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PANCE k.i.s.s. > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

First Line Treatment Chlamydia?

If Prego?

Neonate Conjunctivitis?

A
  1. Doxy 100 mg BID x 7 days
  2. Prego = Azithromycin 1g
  3. Neonate = Erythromycin
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2
Q

What is Gonorrhea?

A

Gram Negative Diplocci

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3
Q

Yellow Green Discharge of anus/vagina/penis/pharynx?

A

Gonorrhea

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4
Q

Gonorrhea Arthritis Dermatitis Syndrome?

A

Disseminated Gonorrhea

  1. Tendon/Joint pain
  2. Rash
  3. Septic Arthritis (knee most common)
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5
Q

Tender Grey/Neurotic center Halo papules?

A

Gonorrhea gone Septic!!!

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6
Q

Treatment of Gonorrhea:

1st Line Healthy?

Septic?

What else should you give?

A
  1. I.M. Ceftriaxone
  2. Septic = I.V. Ceftriaxone

You should give DOXY to cover Chlamydia!

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7
Q

What is Cat Scratch Fever?

A

Bartonella Henselae

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8
Q

Describe onset of Cat Scratch Fever

A

Brown/red ulcers (2-4 weeks)

Fever (7 weeks)

Lymphadenopathy (2-4 months)

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9
Q

Treatment for Cat Scratch Fever

Moderate vs Severe

A

Moderate : Doxy

Sever : Rifampin

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10
Q

What is Clostridium Botulinum

A

Gram + anaerobe with spores

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11
Q

Clostridium Botulinum: with what prevents AcH release causing issues on Cranial Nerves

A

The Snare Protein Cleaver

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12
Q

Clostridium Botulinum Test:

A

Toxin Assay

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13
Q

Clostridium Botulinum Treatment

A

If immediate, Active Charcoal and Antitoxin A/G within 72 hours / Human Botulinum immunoglobulin

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14
Q

Which direction does Clostridium Botulinum move?

A

Head down to Feet

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15
Q

Describe Campylobacter Jejuni

A

Gram Negative Rod
Oxidase Postive
Flagella + Curved corkscrew shaped

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16
Q

Bloody Stool with Ascending paralysis?

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

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17
Q

Most Common Acute Bacteria : Campylobacter Jejuni, where to get it from? (4)

A
  1. Raw Chicken
  2. Unpastorized Milk
  3. Puppy Poop
  4. Pigs
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18
Q

D/X: Campylobacter Jejuni

A

Camp in the Heat (42 Degree Agar)

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19
Q

T/X: Campylobacter Jejuni? (2)

A

Fluoroquinolone or Azithromycin

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20
Q

Describe Vibrio Cholera

A

Gram Negative
Oxidase Postive
Comma Shaped (curved)
Glucose Fermenting
NonLactose

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21
Q

Rice Water Diarrhea?

A

Vibrio Cholera

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22
Q

D/X: Vibrio Cholera

A

Dipstick or Stool

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23
Q

T/X: Vibrio Cholera

A

Fluids + Doxy

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24
Q

Describe Diphtheria?

A

Gram + Rod Anaerobe

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25
Q

How does Diphtheria enter body?

A

Inhaled POOP

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26
Q

Diphtheria:

  1. Pseudomemberous?
  2. Lymphadenapathy?
  3. Myocarditis?
  4. Polyneuritis
A
  1. Patchy grey/white exudate that bleeds when scraped
  2. Bull Neck Cervical Lymph
  3. EKG + Enzymes
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27
Q

D/X: Diphtheria?

A

Elek Test

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28
Q

T/X: Diphtheria?

A

Antitoxin + Erythromycin

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29
Q

Describe a Boil/Pustule on skin with Methicillin Res. Staph A. (MRSA) patient?

A

Pustules w/erythematous base

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30
Q

D/X: MRSA

Normal Conditions?

OutBreak?

A

Normal - Chromogen Agar or PCR

Outbreak - PFGE

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31
Q

T/X MRSA: (Irrgate First)

Small:

Mod:

Severe:

A

Small: Mupirocin

Mod: Bactrim or Doxy

Severe: Vanco

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32
Q

Immune Response to Strep Pyrogens, my immune response mimics Anti-Strep-tolysin and fucks shit up?

A

Rheumatic Fever

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33
Q

Jones Criteria:

J.
O.
N.
E.
S.

A

Joints - (poly arthritis)
Heart - Carditis
Nodules
Erythema Marginatum
Sydenham Chorea

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34
Q

Involuntary hand/feet movement

A

Sydenham Chorea

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35
Q

Non-Puritic Trunk/Limb Rash

A

Erythema Marginatum

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36
Q

Rheumatic Fever:

  1. Common Valve Issue?
  2. Rhythm Issue?
  3. Found on Heart?
A
  1. Mitral Regurgitation
  2. A-Fib
  3. Aschoff Bodies
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37
Q

Direction of Joint Pain Rheumatic Fever?

A

Ankles/Knees moving up

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38
Q

Minor Criteria Jones?
C
A
F
P

A

CRP/ESR increased
Arthralgia
Fever
Prolonged PR Interval

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39
Q

T/X Rheumatic Fever:

1st Line:

Allergy:

A

PCN G or Amoxy

If Allergy - Erythromycin

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40
Q

Dermacentor Tick causes?

A

Rocky Mountain Fever - Rickettsia Rickettsii

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41
Q

D/X Rocky Mountain Fever?

A

Fever/HA
Wrist/Angle Rash that moves to Trunk

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42
Q

T/X: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Doxy 200 mg x 7 Days

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43
Q

Describe Clostridium Tetani?

A

Gram + Rods Anaerobe

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44
Q

Clostridium Tetani, what does Tetanspasmin Exotoxin block on the pre synapse of motor nerves?

A

GABA and Glycine

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45
Q

S/S Clostridium Tetani

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Lockjaw (trismus)
  2. Risus Sardonicus (raised eyebrow/grin)
  3. Opisthotunus (Head/Neck/Back Hyperextension)
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46
Q
A

Risus Sardonicus (raised eyebrow/grin)

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47
Q
A

Opisthotonus (Head/Neck/Back Hyperextension)

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48
Q

T/X: Clostridium Tetani

A

Metronidozol

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49
Q

Gram Neg
Oxidate Neg
NonLactose
White/HighPH (MaConkay)
H2S producing

A

Salmella

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50
Q

Gram Neg
Oxidate Neg
NonLactose
White/HighPH (MaConkay)
NOT H2S producing

A

Shigellosis

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51
Q

Salmonella from contaminated food

A

S. Typhi

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52
Q

Salmonella from fecal matter on food that cause Gastroenteritis?

A

S. Typh / S. Enteritis

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53
Q

Invades Pyer Patch with PeaSoup Diarrhea?

Another noticeable Sign?

What if Sickle Cell?

A

Salmella Typhi

Rose Spots (Trunk)

Sickle = osteomyelitis

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54
Q

D/X Salmella?

A

Culture (Increased WBC but Decreased Platelets)

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55
Q

T/X Salmella?

A

Fluids
DO NOT give ABX due to prolonging poop!

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56
Q

Inhibits 60s Ribosomes?

A

Shigellosis Sonnei (most common USA)

Flexneri (developing country)

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57
Q

Daycare kids, crowded areas that causes watery, mucus bloody painful diarrhea?

A

Shigellosis

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58
Q

S/S Shigellosis (4)

A
  1. Diarrhea (watery, mucus, bloody) painful
  2. Cramps
  3. Tenesmus
  4. High Fever and Chills
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59
Q

D/X Shigellosis?

A

Culture Stool

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60
Q

T/X Shigellosis?

1.
2. >18 y/o
3. <18 y/o
4. Caution

A
  1. Fluids
  2. Bactrim
  3. Azithromycin
  4. Don’t give meds that stop diarrhea
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61
Q

Four Areas for Candidiasis?

A
  1. Vaginal
  2. Esophageal
  3. Oral
  4. Intertrigo
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62
Q

Vaginal Candidiasis
1. Describe -
2. KOH -
3. T/X -

A
  1. Itchy, erythema, CURD discharge
  2. KOH - Hyphae Budding
  3. Miconazole cream 1-7 days or Fluconazole
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63
Q

Esophageal Candidiasis
1. Most common?
2. EGD shows?
3. T/X?

A
  1. AIDS
  2. Linear erosion
  3. Fluconazole
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64
Q

Dysphagia, Reflux, Nausea with or w/o pain. Patient is AIDs positive. What do you think it is?

A

Esophageal Candidiasis

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65
Q

T/X Oral Thrush (candidiasis)

A

Nystatin

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66
Q

Describe Intertrgo Candidiasis?

A

Pruritic BEEFY red rash w/distinct scalloped borders and satellite region

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67
Q

T/X Intertrigo Candidiasis:
1.
2.

*If in blood?

A
  1. Keep Dry
  2. Ketoconazole w/ Hydrocortisone 2.5%

If in blood, treat with I.V. AmpB

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68
Q

AIDs/immunocomprimised / Acne like ulcers

A

Cryptococcosis

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69
Q

How to contract Cryptococcosis?

A

Inhaled budding yeast in soil/bird poop

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70
Q

Cryptococcosis will cause what most of the time?

A

Meningoencephalitis

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71
Q

Meningoencephalitis Cryptococcosis symptoms? (3)

A

AMS
HA
meningismus

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72
Q

India Ink Cyst?

What does CSF tapping show?
1.
2.

A

Cryptococcosis

  1. increased pressure, protein, lymph
    2.decreased glucose
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73
Q

T/X Cryptococcosis?
1.
2. If CD4 < 100 prophylaxis
3. Pneumonia

A
  1. AmpB + Flucytosine 2 week followed by Fluconazole 10 weeks
  2. Fluconazole
  3. Fluconazole
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74
Q

Caseous Necrosis granulmoa?

A

histoplasmosis capsulatum

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75
Q

S/S (4)

A
  1. Cough
  2. Low grade Fever
  3. Tongue Ulcerations
  4. Huge Spleen
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76
Q

D/X histoplasmosis capsulatum?
1. Takes long time but GOLD Standard

What would you see?

A
  1. Urine Cultures

Increasing Alkaline Phosphatase LDH postive

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77
Q

T/X histoplasmosis capsulatum:
1. Weeks/Months?
2. IF systemic?

A

Itraconazole weeks/months
If Systemic AmpB

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78
Q

Interstitial pneumonia with ground glass opacities HIV patient?

A

pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

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79
Q

pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia 3 common symptoms

A

Dyspnea
Fever
Non-productive Cough

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80
Q

D/X pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

A

Respiratory Tract tissue sample or Broncho alveoli levaage

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81
Q

T/X pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
1.
2. If allergy?

A
  1. Bactrim
  2. Pentamidine
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82
Q

Atypical Mycrobacterials
1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Mycobacterium avium complex MAC
  2. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare MAI
  3. Mycobacterium Kansasii
  4. Mycobacterium Marinum
83
Q

Most common Atypical Mycobacterial?
Location most common?

A

Mycobacterium Avium complex
Lungs

84
Q
A
85
Q

Treatment:
1. MAC
2. Kensasii
3. TB

A
  1. Clarithromycin + Ethambutol 12 months
  2. Rifampin + Ethambutol
  3. R.I.P.E.

Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

86
Q

R.I.P.E. Adverse Effects

Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Rifampin - Red/Orange Fluids

Isoniazid - I-so-numb = Peripheral Neuropathy GIVE Pyridoxine

Pyrazinamide - Pyramid = stones (hyperuicemia) and Sun rash (photo sensitive)

Ethambutol

87
Q

Microbacterium Marinum

A

Aquarium = puncture = Fisherman/Seafood handlers

88
Q

Enterobius

A

Pinworm

88
Q

Nightime Anal itch?

T/X?

A

Enterobius (Pinworm)

Whole family Mebendazole or Albendazole

88
Q

Nematods? (2)
Cestode?
Trematode?

A

Pinworm/Roundworm
Tapeworm
Flukes

89
Q

Ascaris Lumbricoids

A

Roundworm

90
Q

Ascaris Lumbricoids (RoundWorm) s/s:

Small amount?
Moderate Amount?
Large Amount?

T/X

A

Small = Asymptomic
Moderate = Vague Abdomen symptoms
Large = Pancreatic/Bile/Appendix issues

Mebendazole

90
Q

Patient has vague GI symptoms and unexpected weight loss?

D/X
T/X

A

Tapeworm
Praziquantel

91
Q

Treatment of Mammal Schistosomes Flukes (swimmers itch)?

A

Praziquantel

92
Q

Describe Zika Virus?

A

Tropical Aedes Mosquito that is single RNA Flava virus that infect skin cell.

93
Q

Most Zika virus resolves in 10 days, but what are two complications for a pregnant person needs to be concerned about?

A

Miscarriage
Congenital Microcephaly

93
Q

Patient travels to a tropical area and developed a low grade fever, itchy rash and a mild case of watery eyes. She is pregnant and is concerned for her unborn baby. Describe what you would see if the baby has a congenital microcephaly of the disease above?

A
  1. Intercranial Calcifications
  2. Cerebral Malformations
94
Q

A mosquito in Africa carries what type of Parasite?

A

Plasmodium Parasites

95
Q

Once a Anopheles Mosquito from Africa injects a Plasmodium Parasite into a human, how does it feed and where does it live?

A

Feeds on RBC’s and lives in the Liver

96
Q

S/S of M.A.L.A.R.I.A.?

A

Malaria
Anemia
Liver Failure
AMS
Round n Round Fever
Infant Death (miscarriage)
Abnormal Large Spleen

97
Q

Malaria:

  1. Daily on/off fever?
  2. Every other day Fever?
  3. Every three days fever?
A
  1. Falciparum
  2. Vivax/Ovale
  3. Malariae
97
Q

D/X Malaria?

A

Thick/Thin Smears and Blood cultures

98
Q

T/X Malaria:

Normal:
Resistant:
Chemoprophylaxis:

A

Normal = Chloroquine
Resistant = ACT
prophylaxis follow above

99
Q

Ring Enhanced Legions Aids Patient

A

Toxoplasmosis

100
Q

Group of diseases that can be passed from mother to baby in womb? ToRCH

A

Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes

101
Q

Inflammation of the brain, post-infection, that causes fever, headaches and neck pain?

A

Encephalitis

102
Q

Inflammation of the (thin pigmented vascular coat of the eye) and the eye itself post-infection of Toxoplasmosis?

A

Chorioretinitis

103
Q

S/S Toxoplasmosis?
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Encephalitis
  2. Chorioretinitis
  3. Intercranial Calcifications
104
Q

T/X Toxoplasmosis:

First Line Tx?

If CD4 < 100 then?

A

Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiasine
HIV CD4 <100 = Bactrim prophylaxis

105
Q

Pregnant mother that was discovered to have Toxoplasmosis, baby was born,,, what would you notice if the baby has a congenital defect? (2)

A

Blue berry rash + hearing loss

106
Q

Type of Tick that causes Lyme Disease?

Type of parasite that travel with tick to cause Lyme disease?

A
  1. Ixodes scapularis
  2. Borrelia Burgdorferi
107
Q

Lyme Disease Stages:

Stage 1 (7-10 days):

Stage 2 (1-12 weeks): (3)

Stage 3 (Late): (3)

A

Stage 1: Bullseye Rash

Stage 2. Flu-Like, Bells palsy CN VII, AVBlock

Stage 3. Polyarthritis/polyneuropathy/encephalopathy

108
Q

D/X Lyme disease Two Tiers?

A

Tier 1 = EIA or EFA
Tier 2 = Western blot IgG/IgM

109
Q

T/X Lyme disease:

Normal?
Prego?
Late Stage?

A
  1. Doxy
  2. Amoxicillin
  3. 3rd Gen Cephalosporin or PCN G
110
Q

Most common non-viral STD?

A

Trichomoniasis Vaginalis

111
Q

S/S of Trichomoniasis Vaginalis? (3)

A
  1. Malodorous green/gray discharge
  2. Frothy petechiae cervix (strawberry)
  3. Burn/itch/pain sex
112
Q

D/X Trichomoniasis Vaginalis smear shows?

A

pear-shaped protozoa with flagella and pH >4.5

113
Q

T/X Trichomoniasis Vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole (also treat partner)

114
Q

Congenital Varicella:

Fetus infect 8-28 weeks
30% fatal w/in 1 month of birth
15% Herpes w/in 4 years of life

S/X (5)

A
  1. Scars w/ dermatomal patterns
  2. Neuro/ocular deficits
  3. Limb deficits
  4. GI issues
  5. Decrease birth wt.
115
Q

D/X Congenital Varicella?

A

PCR baby blood or amniotic fluid for VzV DNA

116
Q

Congenital Varicella what not to give to mother? and what to do if the mother has immunity?

A

NO live vaccine

Reassurance that its going to be ok

117
Q

You conduct a Direct viral test of a lesion from a pregnant mother testing positive for Herpes Virus. How should you treat?

New Onset?
To surpress?
If shedding?

A

Aclylovir 400 mg x 7 days
Acyclovir 400 mg TID
C-Section

118
Q

Extremely rare to pass on this STD from mother to baby, and only c-section is recommended if obstruction?

A

Perinatal Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

119
Q

D/X HPV Colposcopy will show?

2.

A

Colposcopy will show
1. Low-grade squamous
2. ASCUS HPV positive

120
Q
A

HSV 1 - Oral Lesions (cold sore)

121
Q
A

HSV 2 Genital Lesions

122
Q
A

HSV 2 Genital Lesions

123
Q

Most common form of herpes that leads to Viral Meningitis?

A

HSV 2 Genital Lesions

124
Q

What?
Describe?

A
  1. HHV 3 - VZV Varicella Zoster Chicken Pox
  2. Dewdrop on a rose pedal
125
Q

What?
Describe?

A
  1. HHV 3 - VZV Varicella Zoster Shingles
  2. Unilateral Dermatomal pattern
126
Q
A

HHV 4 - EBV Epstein Barr

127
Q
A

HHV 5 - CMV Cytomegalovirus

127
Q
A

HHV 6 - Roseola Virus a.k.a. 6th disease

128
Q
A

HSV - Herpetic Whitlow

129
Q

Herpes Labials

A

Herpes of the mouth

130
Q

Herpes Gladiaturum

A

Westler trunk Herpes

131
Q

Blanching dendritic lesion around the Eye caused by herpes?

A

Keratoconjunctivitis Herpes

132
Q

Herpes, why is PCR assay better than Tzank?

What would the Tzank test show?

A

Because PCR assay is better!

Multinucleated Giant Cells

133
Q

Double stranded DNA virus that is leaner?

What is this pattern called?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

Cowdry Bodies

134
Q

Hutchinson Sign

A

Varicella Zoster Shingles

135
Q

T/X Varicella Zoster:

  1. Normal and Prego
  2. < 12 y/o
  3. > 12 y/o

Bonus: What not to give if child has VZV? What should you give instead?

A
  1. Acyclovir
  2. Nothing
  3. Valacyclovir

DONT GIVE salicylate because risk of Reys Syndrom
Instead give them Acetaminophen

136
Q

VSV Vaccine schedule:

A

1st dose at 12-15 months
2nd dose at 4-6 y/o

137
Q

To prevent shingles if older than 50 y/o, give?

If active shingles give?

A

Shingrex 2 does 6 months apart

Valaclovir

138
Q

If you have a 21 y/o pregnant women with not history of have vaccine or chickenpox, what should you do for her?

A

Give her Varcilla-Zoster immuneglobin

139
Q

Classic Triad for the KISSING disease (Epstein Barr)?

A

Fever
Pharyngitis
Lymphadenopathy

140
Q

Patient was complaining of symptoms that lead the Practitioner to give an antibiotic thinking it was a bacterial disease. The patent soon after developed a macular rash and now you believe the patient might have a virus instead. What virus and what antibiotic was given that caused the rash?

A

Epstein Barr Virus and the patient must have received Ampicillin

141
Q

D/X Epstein Barr Virus EBV HHS 4? (2)

A

Blood Smear showing atypical lymph
Monospot showing heterophiles antibodies

142
Q

T/X Epstein Barr Virus EBV HHS 4?

A

Support (fluids, gargle salt, no sport 4 week)

143
Q

Why no sport for 4 weeks with a Epstein Barr Virus EBV HHS 4 patient?

A

Patients can develop splenomegaly

144
Q

Cytomegalovirus CMV 5 (ToRCH):
Where does it go dormant?
Who does it develop in?

A

Dormant in B/T cells and macrophages

Immunocompromised

145
Q

Most common Viral Fetal Infection?

A

Cytomegalovirus CMV 5 (ToRCH)

146
Q

Describe congenital Cytomegalovirus CMV 5 (ToRCH)?
(5)

A

Blueberry rash
Jaundice
Seizures
Deaf
Perintercrainal calcifications

147
Q

You received back a Tissue biopsy that shows Owls eye inclusion, what do you suspect it is?

A

Cytomegalovirus CMV 5 (ToRCH)

148
Q

T/X Cytomegalovirus CMV 5 (ToRCH)?

A

Ganciclovir

149
Q

Roseola Infantum HHV 6, occurs in?

A

Children less than 2 years old

150
Q

S/S Roseola Infantum? (3)

A
  1. Extremly High Fever
  2. Lacy blanching body rash (trunk to arms)
  3. Nagayama’s Spots
151
Q

Patients develops a rash that started at the trunk after a few days of a very high fever. The rash has now moved to the extremities. What disease?

A

Roseola Infantum HHV 6

152
Q

Treatment?

A

Support (fluids, rest, NSAIDS)

153
Q

Fifths Disease or Parvovirus B19?

A

Erythema Infectiosum (Slap Cheek)

154
Q

Fun Fact about the rash for Roseola infantum HHV 6?

A

The only rash that start at the trunk and moves to the extremities

154
Q

Patients has a low grade fever, then devlopes a rash that began in the face but has moved to the body. What do you expect this to be?

A

5ths Disease Erythema Infectiosum (slap cheek)

155
Q

As a concerned practitioner, what type of patients can have a aplastic crisis with 5ths Disease Erythema Infectiosum (slap cheek)?

A

Sickle Cell
G6PD
Thalassemia

156
Q

D/X and T/X for 5ths Disease Erythema Infectiosum (slap cheek)?

A

Clinical and Supportive care

157
Q
  1. HPV Stereotype that causes Cutaneous Warts?
  2. HPV Stereotype that causes Genital Warts?
  3. HPV Stereotype that causes Cervical Cancer?
A
  1. Cutaneous = 1,2,4
  2. Genital = 6,11
  3. Cervical Cx = 16, 18 (USA)
158
Q

Most patients never realize they have HPV, what test should you order if PAP smear came back showing Stage II dysplasia?

A

Colposcopy and HPV test

159
Q

HPV Gardasil vaccine Schedule

2.

A
  1. 11-12 y/o x 2 doses
  2. 13-26 y/o to catch-up
160
Q

Condyloma Acumination =

Condyloma Lata =

A

Condyloma Acumination = HPV genital warts

Condyloma Lata = Secondary Syphilis white lesions

161
Q

Koilocytic squamous clumps

A

HPV Human Papillomavirus

162
Q

Patient develops a rash that started at the trunk after a few days of a very high fever. The rash has now moved to the extremities. What disease?

A

Roseola Infantum HHV 6

162
Q

Influenza Prophylaxis Vaccine Starts at what age?

A

> 6 months old

163
Q

Influenza treatment:

  1. Neuraminidase inhibitors Dr. OZ P.hD
A

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir, and Peramivir

164
Q

Gold Standard D/X influenza?

A

RT-PCR

165
Q
  1. MMR vaccine protect against?
  2. Frist dose?
  3. Second dose?
A
  1. Measles, Mumps, RubeLLa
  2. 12 months
  3. 15-16 months
166
Q

Macular-Papular blanching rash

A

Rubeola (Measles) virus

167
Q

Bright Red spots w/blue/white center like GRAINS of Sand

A

Koplik Spots

168
Q

Phases of Rubeola (Measles) Virus

Phase 1: 1-3 days … 3c’s

Phase 2: 48 hours later

Phase 3: 2-4 days later

A

Phase 1: Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis with Fever

Phase 2: Rash + Koplike spots

Phase 3: brick red rash maculopapular blanching rash face down

169
Q

D/X Rubeola (measles)?

A

Fever x 3 days + Koplik spots + one of the 3 c’s

169
Q

T/X Rubeola (measles)

A

Isolate for 1 week if Rash + support

169
Q
A

Mumps

170
Q

Mumps can cause whats in males?

A

Orchitis (swollen testes)

171
Q

Mumps can make you testes as big as POP Poms

A

Parotitis
Orchitis
Mengitits (aseptic)

Pancreatitis

171
Q

TX for Mumps

A

Isolate 5 days + Support

172
Q

Pinpoint Red Macula’s on soft palate

A

Forchheimer spots

174
Q

What is Rubella (German mumps) called the 3 day version of measles?

A

Rash in gone within 3 days

175
Q

Patients comes in with a rash that started in the face and moved down the body. After 3 days, the rash was gone. You notice pinpoint red macula’s on the soft palate. What is you D/X?

A

Rubella (German mumps)

176
Q

What can Rubella (German mumps) cause in the 1st Trimester of pregnancy?

A

Deaf, Dumb and Blind + PDA baby

177
Q

T/X Rubella (German Mumps)?

A

Support

178
Q

What virus most commonly in bats cause Rabies?

A

Ribonucleic RNA rhabdovirus

179
Q

Incubation of RNA rhabdoviurs (Rabies)?

Symptoms?

A

1 to 3 months

Hydrophobia (can’t swallow water)
Fear of draft fresh air

180
Q

Before rabies death, test?

After rabies death, test?

A

Before = RT-PCR + Skin + CSF

After = Negri Bodies

181
Q

AIDS = CD4 counts <

A

200

182
Q

Protocol for CD4 < 350 HIV patient?

A

HAART

  1. NNRTI + 2 NTRIs or PI + 2NTRIs
  2. INSTI + 2 NTRIs
183
Q

CD4 < 250

A

Coccidioidomycosis = Annual Testing + Fluconazole

184
Q

CD4 < 200

A

Pneumocystis = Bactrim

185
Q

CD4 < 150

A

Histoplasmosis = test only

186
Q

CD4 < 100

A

Toxoplasmosis/Cyptococcus
only treat Toxoplasmosis TMP-SMX (Bactrim)

187
Q

CD4 < 50

A

MAC = ART treatment

188
Q

Sepsis is life threatening, what 3 areas are disfunctioning?

A

Circulatory
Cellular
Metobolic

189
Q

Indirect marker of tissue Perfusion?

A

Lactate

190
Q

Most common cause of sepsis?

A

Pneumonia

191
Q

Criteria for sepsis SIRS (old) SOFA and NEWS, what information does this give?

A

Mortality predicition

192
Q

Gram + Septic shock? (2)
Gram - Septic Shock? (4) KEPP

A

Gram + : Staph/Strep
Gram - : Klesbella, E. coli, Proteus, Pseudomonas

193
Q

Sepsis biomarkers (2)

A

Procalcitonin (increased w/in 4 hours)
Lactate (>18)

194
Q

Treatment for Sepsis
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A
  1. Remove cause of infection!
  2. NormSaline fluids 30 ml/kg x 3 hours
  3. Empiric Antibiotics
  4. NoriEpi to get MAP > 65
  5. Remove all existing catheters

PANCE k.i.s.s. (2 decks)

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