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BPT Sadness 😔 > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Which pathogen is associated with reheating rice? 🍚

A

Bacillus cereus

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2
Q

Which monoclonal antibody can be used for prevention in those with recurrent C. difficile toxin B?

A

Bezlotoxumab (inhibits Binding of toxin B)

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3
Q

Most likely Dx in sewage worker with 3/7 LBP, fever, myalgia, jaundice and subconjunctival suffusion or haemorrhage with AKI?

Find in anything to do with water

A

Leptospirosis; spread via rat urine
- Can progress to Weil’s disease (as above, with hepatitis, AKI) +/- aseptic meningitis
- Tx high dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

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4
Q

Most common pathogen associated with IE in post-operative setting?

A

If <2/12 post valve surgery, then S. epidermis
- Start with epicentre

Otherwise S. aureus

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5
Q

Deficiency of which complements predisposes one to Neisseria meningitidis infections?

A

Complement proteins C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9
- Together form the membrane attack complex > cell lysis and death of pathogens

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6
Q

How is a condition which causes positive stool OCP with rhabditiform larvae treated?

A

Strongyloides? Tx ivermectin

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7
Q

Which antibiotic group does NOT work on the cell wall?
a. Penicillins
b. Cephalosporins
c. Vancomycin
d. Aminoglycosides
e. Meropenem

A

Aminoglycoside; works on protein synthesis, 30S
- Gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin

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8
Q

Which is NOT a beta lactam?
a. Penicillin
b. Clindamycin
c. Cephalosporin
d. Carbapenem

A

Clindamycin
- Works on protein synthesis, 50s subunit

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9
Q

What does the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin achieve?

A

Inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes (which can inactivate beta lactam drugs)

Amoxicillin alone disrupts synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer in the bacterial cell wall > cell lysis and cell death

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10
Q

What condition is most likely here, and what is the treatment?

44M IVDU presents with 24/24 Hx weakness and double vision. Has flaccid paralysis of all limbs with complex opthalmoplegia bilaterally. Vitals BTF, afebrile

A

Botulism, treated with botulism anti-toxin and supportive care
- From Clostridium botulinum > produces neurotoxin which irreversibly blocks Ach
- Usually affects bulbar muscles and ANS

Features:
- Fully conscious without sensory disturbance (other than visual)
- Diplopia
- Bulbar palsy
- Flaccid paralysis
- Ataxia

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11
Q

Which groups of antibiotics are effective against Legionella?

A

Macrolides (azithromycin), quinolones (ciprofloxacin) and tetracyclines (doxycycline) have high activity against Legionella
- If severe: azithromycin or cipro for 7-10 days (may be 10-14 for immunocompromised)

Associated with lymphopaenia and hypoNa

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12
Q

Which infections can cause a pancytopaenia?

A
  1. Histoplasmosis (fever, fatigue, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopaenia - usually with immunosuppression)
  2. Visceral leishmaniasis “kala azar or black fever” (asymptomatic OR malaise, fever, LOW, marked splenomegaly, abdominal pain/LUQ, darkening of skin with pancytopaenia, HLH)
  3. Malaria
  4. TB

Pancytopaenia in leishmaniasis is due to parasites replicating in reticuloendothelial system (spleen, liver, bone marrow)

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13
Q

Bacteriocidal vs. bacteriostatic?

A

Lots of the beta lactams seem to murder cells

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14
Q

Fever in returned traveller from Sri Lanka with severe joint pain, myalgia, headache, malaise

A

Chikungunya “to become contorted” - due to SEVERE polyarthralgia
- Caused by infected mosquitos (alpha virus genus)
- Usually resolves in 7-10 days
- Supportive care

DDx dengue fever
- Can cause retro-orbital pain, joint pain, neutropaenia, mild bleeding

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15
Q

What microbe is the causative agent is implicated in bacterial vaginosis and what does the Gram stain?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis
- Gram-variable-staining, anaerobic, coccobacilli bacteria
- Leads to fall in lactic acid > raised vaginal pH
- Clue cells under microscopy

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16
Q

What is the resident microbe in the vagina?

A

Lactobacillus population in the vagina
- Gram positive
- Responsible for the acidic environment

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17
Q

Grams and cocci
- Which are posi and which are neggy?

A

Gram Positive cocci
- StaPhylococci and strePtococci

GraM Negative cocci
- Neisseria Meningitidis, Neisseria goNorrhoea
- Moraxella catarrhalis

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18
Q

Gram positive rods (bacilli)

A

ABCD L
- Actinomyces
- Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
- Clostridium
- Diptheria; Corynebacterium diphtheriae
- Listeria monocytogenes

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19
Q

Gram negative rods

A

E. coli
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Salmonella
Shigella
Campylobacter jejuni

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20
Q

What is an found on microscopy of TB?

A

Bright red on Ziehl Neelsen staining

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21
Q

Standard short course for active TB?

A

2 months of treatment with rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol (the ‘intensive phase’) > followed by a further 4 months of treatment with rifampicin and isoniazid (the ‘continuation phase’)

RIPE > RI

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22
Q

What is treatment of latent TB?

A

• Isoniazid OD for 9 months
• Rifampicin OD for 4 months
• Rifampicin OD + isoniazid OD for 3 months

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23
Q

Reverse halo sign on CT is suggestive of?

A

Aspergillosis

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24
Q

Councilman bodies are found in which conditions?

A

Hepatitis C, yellow fever

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25
Q

Which rash is described? Symmetrical monomorphic eruption of small blisters with central umbilication. They are filled with yellow fluid and blood-stained. The skin surrounding these clusters is normal. The patient is febrile and lethargic.

A

Eczema herpeticum
- Affects patients with atopic eczema and typically presents with clusters of blisters, fever and malaise
- Caused by HSV1

Can be life-threatening in children, thus treat with IV acyclovir

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26
Q

India ink stain positive suggests?

A

Cryptococcus
- Below is cryptococcal pneumonia

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27
Q

Tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis

Makes you think?

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection triad

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28
Q

What is MOA of macrolides?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 50S subunit of ribosomes
- Azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin

M-ACE (50S)

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29
Q

What is the recommended prophylaxis of close contacts with N. meningitis/meningococcal?

A
  • PO: ciprofloxaxin or rifampicin
  • IM: ceftriaxone
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30
Q

Which pathogens cause positive nitrites in U/A?

A

E. coli, Proteus mirabilis, and Klebsiella

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31
Q

What is the preferred treatment for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Voriconazole (over amphotericin B)
- UNLESS had already been on azole prophylaxis, then use amphotericin

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32
Q

Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Amphotericin B liposomal (3-4 mg/kg) IV OD + flucytosine 25mg/kg PO
- Alternative to flucytosine is high dose fluconazole (800-1200mg OD)

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33
Q

Treatment of PJP pneumonia? And which complication to out for?

A

Low-moderate severity:
- Bactrim q8h PO/IV for 21/7

If non-severe Bactrim allergy and mild-moderate
- Clindamycin + primaquine, OR
- Dapsone plus trimethoprim, OR
- Atovaquone

High severity PJP
- IV Bactrim
- Clindamycin + primaquine, OR
- Pentamidine IV

NB: cross-reactivity between dapsone and Bactrim (9-12%)

Pneumothorax

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34
Q

Treatment of Pseudomonas pneumonia?

A

IV ceftazidime q8h, OR tazocin q6h
PLUS
gentamicin OR IV ciprofloxacin

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35
Q

Traveler from eastern Europe/Russia/Asia with sore throat, grey pseudomembrane, bulky cervical lymphadenopathy (bull neck) +/- neuritis +/- heart block makes you think?

A

Diptheria
- Treat with IM penicillin +/- diptheria anti-toxin

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36
Q

Treatment of shigella?

A

Ciprofloxacin (think shiprofloxacin)
- Associated with bloody stools and MSM

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37
Q

Treatment of Campylobacter (Gram negative)?

A

CAN-pylobacter
• Ciprofloxacin, azithromycin, norfloxacin

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38
Q

Treatment of E. faecalis (Gram positive)?

A

Basically everything except cephalosporins
Vanc
- Benpen
- Amoxicillin/ampicillin/Augmentin
- Tazocin
- Cipro/moxiflox/norflox
- Linezolid

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39
Q

Treatment of cholera?

A

Azithromycin or ciprofloxacin

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40
Q

Non-purulent cellulitis is almost always caused by…?

A

Beta haemolytic Strep A, C, G
- A: S. pyogenes
- C/G: S. dysgalactiae

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41
Q

Which pathogens to think about in dog and cat bites?

A

Pasteurella multicoda and Capnocytophagia canimorsus

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42
Q

Which pathogens to think about in marine exposure?

A

Vibrio/Aeromonas species

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43
Q

Treatment of necrotising faciitis?

A
  1. Surgery - only steel can heal
  2. If septic - IV clindamycin or linezolid
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44
Q

Which bugs in DFI?

A

Acute: S. aureus, Streptococci (usually group B)

Chronic: also Gram negatives and anaerobes

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45
Q

An outbreak of painless purple plaques in a HIV positive patient should make you think of? And what pathogen causes it?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma
- Caused by HHV-8

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46
Q

What is most common gene mediating resistance to ESBL? What is treatment?

A

CTX-M (followed by ampC)

Treatment:
- Carbapenem for severe sepsis (alternatives: gent, amikacin)
- Uncomplicated: fosfomycin, nitrofurantoin

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47
Q

Scarlet fever

A

S. pyogenes (GAS)
- Strawberry tongue

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48
Q

Painless black eschar in a returned traveller makes you think?

A

Anthrax/Bacillus anthracis

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49
Q

Pathogens associated with acute food poisoning?

A

• Staphylococcus aureus
• Bacillus cereus
• Clostridium perfringens

Incubation periods
• 1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*
• 12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli
• 48-72 hrs: Shigella, Campylobacter
• > 7 days: Giardiasis, Amoebiasis

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50
Q

Treatment of C. difficile

A
  1. Mild/moderate: PO/IV metro or PO/IV vanc
  2. First recurrence/refractory: PO/IV vanc or fidaxomicin200 mg orally, 12-hourly for 10 days
  3. 2nd recurrence or ongoing refractory: faecal transplant or PO/IV vanc or fidaxomicin
  4. Severe infection: PO vanc (preferred over IV) + IV metronidazole +/- intracolonic vanc if ileus
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51
Q

Treatment of cat bite?

A

Mild = Augmentin Duo
Severe = tazocin/vitamin T

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52
Q

Gram positive bacilli/rods

A

• Actinomyces
• Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
• Clostridium
• Diphtheria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
• Listeria monocytogenes

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53
Q

Types of pneumonia

A

• Pneumonia + alcoholic + cavitation = Klebsiella
• Pneumonia + prior flu = Staph pneumonia
• Pneumonia + chicken pox rash = Varicella
pneumoniae
• Pneumonia + haemolygic anaemia = Mycoplasma
• Pneumonia + hyponatraemia + travel history = Legionella
• Pneumonia + fleeting opacities = cryptogenic pneumonia
• Pneumonia + fits/LOC = aspiration
• Pneumonia + HSV oral lesion = Strep pneumonia
• Pneumonia + parrot = Chlamydia psitatssi
• Pneumonia + farm animals = Q fever (coxillea brunetii)
• Pneumonia + HIV = think PCP but if straight forward case strep pneumonia is still most common
• Pneumonia + cystic fibrosis = consider pseudomonas/Burkholderia
• Pneumonia + eCOPD = Haemophilus influenza
• Commonest cause of CAP = Strep pneumoniae

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54
Q

Treatment of Clostridium tetani?

A

Metronidazole

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55
Q

Sx yellow fever?

A
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56
Q

MOA red man syndrome with vanc?

A

Direct mast cell degranulation

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57
Q

Mechanism of vancomycin?

A

Inhibits bacterial cell wall by binding to D-ala-D-ala > prevents crosslinking

58
Q

Which VRE strains are sensitive to teicoplanin?

A

Van B and Van C only

59
Q

Which cephalosporin is able to treat ESCAPPM organisms?

A

Cefepime

60
Q

Treatment of CPE?

A

Ceftazidime-avibactam +/- aztreonam

Then cefiderocal

61
Q

Fever (saddleback fever) in returned traveller with retro-orbital pain makes you think?

What is the treatment?

A

Dengue
- If joint pain, think chikungunya
- May have positive ‘tourniquet test’ = microvascular fragility compatible with dengue fever
- Single stranded RNA
- Mosquito name - Aedes
- Incubation period: 3-14 days

Phases
1. Febrile
- Day 4-7; sudden onset high grade fever >38; retro-orbital pain, myalgia, arthralgia
- Lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, maculopapular rash
- Neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia, transaminitis - in SEVERE dengue

  1. Critical (not every patient goes through this phase)
    - Second dengue infection - more at risk of critical phase, esp if previous infection within past 18 months
    - 24-48 hours
    - Thrombocytopaenia
  2. Recovery phase
    - Resolution
    - May see new rash (similar to first rash)
    - May have chronic fatigue

Dx: dengue IgM or PCR

Tx supportive care

62
Q

What are the 3 Cs of measles?

A

Cough, coryza, conjunctival suffusion
- Think Philippines if traveller
- Long incubation 10-14 days
- Rash spreads in craniocaudal fashion
- Koplik spots pathognomic

63
Q

How often is Yellow fever vaccine required for non-immunocompromised?

A

Once only!
- Need if pred >20mg

64
Q

What are the most common meningitis bacteria?

A

Strep pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis
- But if diabetes or immunocompromised = Listeria

Gram negative meningitis very rare
- Think of Strongoloides

65
Q

Eculizimab raises risk of which bug?

A

Neisseria meningitidis/meningococcal
- 2000x risk increased

66
Q

Gram negative meningitis causes?

A

Head trauma, neurosurgery
- Rare is Strongoloides

67
Q

PET in IE is useful for what type of valve?

A

Prosthetic valve

68
Q

Multi-drug resistant TB refers to?

A

Resistant to rifampicin and isoniazid (isolated rifampicin resistance is RARE)
- Isoniazid resistance most common

Treatment
Add in aminoglycosides
- Amikacin
- Can also use kanamycin and capreomycin

69
Q

Meningitis with HIV and positive India ink stain and HIGH OPENING PRESSURE makes you think?

A

Crytococcus meningitis
- CD4 count <100 is main RF

Treat this first if Dx at same time as acute HIV
- Risk of IRIS

NO STEROIDS

Treatment: amphotericin B AND flucytosine for 2 weeks > fluconazole 800mg for 8 weeks

70
Q

Biggest concern with tocilizumab?

A

Increased risk diverticulitis > bowel perforation

71
Q

Most common HSV strain in encephalitis?

A

HSV1
- Usually unilateral temporal lobe involvement

(HSV2 more common in neonates)

72
Q

How long can you give Varicella immunoglobulin?

A

Up to 10 days after exposure
- BUT NOT IF RASH DEVELOPED (too late)

73
Q

Why do we add rifampicin to PJI?

A

Anti-biofilm activity
- Also good bone penetration

74
Q

Which syphilis test remains positive forever?

A

TPPA
- Treponema palladium particle agglutination

(Acute infection is RPR positive)

75
Q

Which bug has highest rate of IE when cultured in blood?

A

Strep mutans

76
Q

Branching filamentous fungi with septate hyphae makes you think?

A

Aspergillosis
- Tx with voriconazole

77
Q

Effectiveness of PrEP?

A

70-90%

78
Q

In which 2 infections do you delay treatment in acute HIV?

A

TB meningitis and cryptococcus

79
Q

HLA B5701 causes issues with which HIV drug?

A

Abacavir

80
Q

At what CD4 count can you give live vaccines?

A

CD4 ≥200

81
Q

Multiple ring enhancing lesions in HIV with low CD4 count makes you think?

A

CNS toxoplasmosis
- Single lesion think lymphoma

Treat with Bactrim

82
Q

Treatment of CMV retinitis?

A

Ganciclovir

83
Q

Quickest acting anti-fungal?

A

Caspofungin
- CRASHpofungin; going so quick you crash…

84
Q

Tree-in-bud makes you think?

A

Aspergillous

85
Q

Which type of RTA is associated with amphoterin?

A

Type 1

86
Q

Non-septate hyphae in diabetes makes you think?

A

Mucormycosis

87
Q

Alemtuzumab and anti-lymphocyte globulin increases risk of which infection?

A

CMV

88
Q

Treatment of Nocardia

A

Bactrim with ceftriaxone OR Bactrim with linezolid

89
Q

Which bug is associated with post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders

A

EBV

90
Q

PML associated with which DMARDs?

A

Rituximab, natalizumab, anti-TNF

91
Q

Apical/upper lobe cavitation makes you think?

A

TB

92
Q

Infection with calcification in lungs makes you think?

A

Varicella pneumonia

93
Q

Which ABx predisposes most to C. diff?

A

Clindamycin
- Lincosamide

94
Q

Which anti-viral for hep C is better in ESKD?

A

Glecaprevir and pibrentasvir
- GP for hep C

95
Q

HIV gains entry into target cells by binding to which receptor/HIV co-receptors?

A

CCR5, CXCR4

96
Q

Anti-retrovirals for HIV

A
97
Q

Dolutegravir + bictegravir are examples of which class of anti-retroviral?

A

Integrase inhibitors

98
Q

Ritonavir, darunavir and lopinavir are examples of which ART?

A

Protease inhibitors

99
Q

Marivoc is an example of which type of ART?

A

CCR5 antagonist
- Entry inhibitor

100
Q

Monkeypox is what type of virus?

A

DNA virus
- Orthopox
- Related to smallpox; smallpox vaccine can be protective

101
Q

When to give post-exposure prophylaxis/PEP in HIV?

A

ASAP, up to 72 hours post exposure
- 2 drug regime: TDF + emtracitabine
3 drug regime: TDF + emtracitabine + integrase inhibitor

102
Q

What is the regime for daily continuous PrEP?

A

1 pill daily of tenofovir disoproxil + emtricitabine 300/200
- Start 7 days before HIV risk exposure

On-demand PrEP: tenofovir/emtricitabine
- 2 pills at least 2h before sex (up to 24h before sex)
- 1 pill 24h later
- 1 pill 48h after first dose If repeated sexual activity, then continue with 1 pill daily until 48h after last sexual contact

103
Q

Which infection causes undulant (rising and falling) fevers for weeks-months, hepatosplenomegaly and is associated with feral pigs (contact with animal bodily fluid) and/or unpasteurised dairy?

A

Brucellosis
- Treat with doxycycline + either rifampin vs. gentamicin

104
Q

AUC and time above MIC etc.

A
105
Q

Duration of secondary prophylaxis in mild rheumatic heart disease?

A

Minimum of 10 years after most recent episode OR until age 21 years (whichever is longer)

106
Q

Treatment of malaria P. falciparum on return from SEA esp. Cambodia, Laos, Thailand, Vietnam and Myanmar?

A

Atovaquone + proguanil or quinine + doxy/clinda
- Due to drug resistance to artemethur + lumefantrine

107
Q

Standard treatment of uncomplicated malaria

A
  1. Artemether + lumefantrine with fatty food for 6 doses,
    or
  2. Atovaquone + proguanil with fatty food for 3 days,
    or
  3. Quinine + doxycycline/clindamycin for 7 days
108
Q

Treatment of malaria with P. falciparum in Northern Australia

A

Single dose primaquine
- Avoid in G6PD deficiency

109
Q

Treatment of malaria with P. vivax or P. ovale infection?

A

Primaquine for 14 days

110
Q

Treatment of severe malaria

A

IV artesunate or quinine dihydrochloride

111
Q

Black eschar on the nose or palate in someone with diabetes makes you think?

A

Murcomycosis
- Treatment liposomal and lipid complex amphotericin B (AmBisome)

112
Q

Which carbapenem has no anti-Pseudomal activity?

A

Ertapenem

113
Q

HIV in pregnancy

A

Continue previous ART
If HIV RNA >1000 or unknown > give intrapartum IV zidovudine (NRTI)

114
Q

What constitutes hyperparasitaemia P. falciparum malaria?

A

Percentage of RBC
* Non-immune travellers >/= 5 percent
* All patients > 10%

115
Q

Dry cough and GI symptoms in immigrant who deteriorates with steroids makes you think?

A

Strongoloides - hyperinfection caused by steroids
- Tx ivermectin

116
Q

MOA of tamiflu AKA oseltamivir

A

Inhibits the influenza neuraminidase enzymes

117
Q

Which pathogen predisposes you to Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

HHV8

118
Q

Pathogen associated with dog bites in immunocompromised patients?

A

Most common: Pastuerella but in immunocompromised = Capnocytophaga canimorsus

119
Q

What is a rare lung Cx of daptomycin

A

Eosinophillic pneumonia

120
Q

Hypervirulent Klebsiella pneumonia comes from which countries and possible S/E?

A

South East Asia incl. Taiwan

Pyogenic liver abscess
Endo-opthalmitis
Pneumonia +/- empyema
SBP

121
Q

Treatment of Candida auris

A

Tx micafungin, caspofungin
- 90% are resistant to fluconazole

122
Q

Which has blood-borne infection has highest transmission? Hep B, hep C, HIV?

A

Hep B - up to 30%
- HIV 0.3%
- HCV - 1.8 - 3%

123
Q

When is live vaccine not safe in prednisolone?

A

Pred >20mg for 14 days
- Wait 1 month after stopping prednisolone

124
Q

What pathogen do you suspect in water-immersed skin wound not responsive to appropriate cefazolin?

A

Aeromonas
- Add ciprofloxacin

If dirty water > add metronidazole

125
Q

Hep B clearance rate?

A

95% spontaneous clearance

126
Q

Vaccination in hyposplenism or splenectomy?

A

Conjugate > polysaccaride 2 months > polysaccaride 5 years later

127
Q

Leading cause of non-AIDS related mortality?

A

Non-AIDS malignancies
- Not cardiovascular

128
Q

Which diseases are associated with Burkholderia and which demographic

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei: can cause pneumonia in Northern Australia or South East Asia

Burkholderia cenocepacia: dangerous for CF patients, can cause severe decline in lung Fx > cepacia syndrome

129
Q

Treatment of AF (even if pAF) in moderate mitral stenosis in rheumatic heart disease

A

Warfarin
- Aim 2.5?

130
Q

Rheumatic heart disease more common in men or female

A

Females&raquo_space;> men
Group A Strep
Most patients don’t have documented Hx acute rheumatic fever

131
Q

MOA of remdesivir

A

Nucleoside analogue
- Acts as a nucleoside analog and inhibits the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase > halts further viral replication

132
Q

MOA Paxlovid

A

Protease enzyme inhibitor
- Ritonavir

133
Q

Quick onset fever (7-10 days of returning) in returned traveler with mosquito bite - most likely?

A

Dengue fever
- Rapid onset
- Check NS1 antigen and dengue serology
- Can cause viral-induced myositis

134
Q

Severe COVID infection associated with which auto-Ab?

A

Severe COVID-19 associated with neutralising auto-Ab to type 1 interferon i.e. interferon alpha

135
Q

Example of fluoroquinolones?

A

Floxacins
- Ciprofloxacin
- Moxifloxacin
- Norfloxacin

136
Q

Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in a young person with Hx of previous painless genital ulcer makes you think?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum
- Urogenital infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
- Secondary infection

Primary infection is typically characterised by a genital ulcer that heals spontaneously

Secondary manifestations appear within 2 to 6 weeks and are characterised by infection of the inguinal and/or femoral nodes

Enlarged inguinal node = bubo

137
Q

What to treat Bartonella henslae in immunocompetent person

A

Usually don’t treat, unless
- Uresolved lymphadenopathy >1 months
- Lymphadenopathy associated with significant morbidity
- Systemic disease with organ involvement (eg liver, eye, neurological); or endocarditis

Treatment:
- Azithromycin 5 days
- Doxycycline if endocarditis

138
Q

Treatment of ESBL E. coli or Klebsiella in febrile neutropaenia
- Sensitive to tazo and mero
- Resistant ceftriaxone

A

Meropenem has superior mortality in ESBL over taz
- Ceftriaxone resistance should make you think of ESBL

139
Q

Cardinal AIDS-defining illness

A
  • PJP
  • Toxoplasma encephalitis
  • CMV retinitis
  • Disseminated MAC or TB
  • Oesophageal candiasis
  • Chronic cryptosporidiosis/microsporidosis
  • Kaposi sarcoma
140
Q

Which type of pulmonary TB is most likely associated AFB sputum?

A

Cavitary

141
Q

Most common cause of sepsis in someone with with splenectomy despite immunosation and prophylaxis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

BPT Sadness 😔 (20 decks)

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