Infectious disease Flashcards
What organism causes necrotising fasciitis?
Type 1 is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes (often occurs post-surgery in diabetics). This is the most common type
Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
What is the management of necrotising fasciitis?
urgent surgical referral debridement
intravenous antibiotics
What is the typical presentation of mumps?
Fever
Malaise, muscular pain
parotitis (earache, pain on eating): unilateral initially then becomes bilateral in 70%
What are the complications of mumps?
- Orchitis - uncommon in pre-pubertal males but occurs in around 25-35% of post-pubertal males. Typically occurs four or five days after the start of parotitis
- Hearing loss - usually unilateral and transient
- Meningoencephalitis
- Pancreatitis
What is the Amsel’s criteria for bacterial vaginosis?
Amsel’s criteria for diagnosis of BV - 3 of the following 4 points should be present
- thin, white homogenous discharge
- clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells
- vaginal pH > 4.5
- positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)
What is the treatment for BV?
Oral metronidazole:400–500 mg twice daily for 5–7 days
topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin are alternatives
How do you differentiate BV from Trichomonas?
BV - Thin, white discharge with clue cells on microscopy
Trichomonas - Frothy, yellow-green discharge, vulvoagniitis, strawberry cervix
A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to her GP with a rash over her right thigh. Her observations are normal and she appears well in herself otherwise. It appears to be cellulitic and the GP decides to prescribe her some antibiotics to target the cellulitis. She is penicillin allergic.
Which antibiotic is appropriate to cover for this infection?
Erythromycin
Usually flucloxiciilin - but if not usable - then clarithromycin if not pregnant
Doxycycline can also be used
Severe - co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin and ceftriaxone can be used
What is the criteria for admission for cellulitis?
- Has Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis.
- Has severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis (for example extensive areas of skin).
- Is very young (under 1 year of age) or frail.
- Is immunocompromized.
- Has significant lymphoedema.
- Has facial cellulitis (unless very mild) or periorbital cellulitis.
What are the risk factors for invasive aspergillosis?
Risk factors include:
- HIV
- Leukaemia
- Following broad-spectrum antibiotics
What are the notable adverse effects of tetracyclines?
- Discolouration of teeth: therefore should not be used in children < 12 years of age
- Photosensitivity
- Angioedema
- Black hairy tongue
What are the different incubation periods of bugs causing diarrhoea?
1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*
12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli
48-72 hrs: Shigella, Campylobacter
> 7 days: Giardiasis, Amoebiasis
*vomiting subtype, the diarrhoeal illness has an incubation period of 6-14 hours
A 32-year-old female patient attends your practice complaining of severe frontal facial pain, fever, and rhinorrhoea. This has been ongoing for nearly two weeks and she is now feeling more unwell. She has tried over the counter nasal sprays but with no effect.
Her observations are:
Temperature: 38.1ºC
Pulse: 96 bpm
Blood pressure:118/80 mm/Hg
She asks you to prescribe some antibiotics to help with her symptoms, she has no known allergies.
Which of the following would be your first-line choice?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
This is a case of sinusitis. Sinusitis is usually caused by viral infections and therefore treatment is not usually indicated if symptoms are present for less than 10 days. Beyond this, steroid nasal sprays are usually the first-line treatment, unless antibiotics are indicated.
In this case, her symptoms have been present for nearly two weeks. Her fever and slightly raised heart rate are consistent with her being unwell and would therefore be indications for antibiotics in this case.
In acute uncomplicated sinusitis, first-line therapy as per NICE guidelines would be phenoxymethylpenicillin. In those who are penicillin-allergic, doxycycline or clarithromycin can be used.
The second-line choice would normally be co-amoxiclav.
A 42-year-old male attends your practice complaining of a two-day history of pain ‘down below’. He has been suffering from urinary frequency and nocturia. Digital rectal examination reveals a tender, boggy prostate.
How would you manage him in the first instance alongside painkillers?
This is a case of acute prostatitis, which can be quite distressing to patients. This should be treated with a 14-day course of ciprofloxacin 500mg BD and reviewed thereafter as a further two-week course may be required.
What is the treatment for MRSA?
vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid
What can be used to suppress MRSA once a carrier is identified?
Nose: mupirocin 2% in white soft paraffin, tds for 5 days
Skin: chlorhexidine gluconate, od for 5 days. Apply all over but particularly to the axilla, groin and perineum
What is the source of clostridium tetani?
Tetanus spores are present in soil and may be introduced through a wound
What are the features of tetanus infection?
- prodrome fever, lethargy, headache
- trismus (lockjaw)
- risus sardonicus
- opisthotonus (arched back, hyperextended neck)
- spasms (e.g. dysphagia)