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Clinical Dermatology > Infectious > Flashcards

Infectious Flashcards

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1
Q

HPV virus has early proteins and late proteins. What are their roles?

A

Early proteins (E1-E7) are improtant for DNA replication. Late proteins (L1-L2) encode structural proteins

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2
Q

What genes in HPV allow for amplification?

A

E5,E6, E7

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3
Q

HPV gene E6 and E7 are in high risk types. E6 destroys what?

A

Destroys p53, decreasing apoptosis, increasing replication

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4
Q

HPV gene E6 and E7 are in high risk types. E7 destroys what?

A

Destroys RB, loss of inhibition of E2F transcription factor, increasing expression of genes important for DNA replicatoin

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5
Q

mucosal/cutaneous HPV vs EDV. Which is genus alpha and which is genus beta?

A

mucosal/cutaneous are genus alpha

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6
Q

Common warts

A

1, 2, 4

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7
Q

Flat warts

A

3, 10

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8
Q

Butcher’s warts

A

7, 2

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9
Q

Ridged warts that retain normal dermatoglyphics?

A

HPV60

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10
Q

EDV

A

Genus Beta, HPV 5, HPV8

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11
Q

Acquired EDV seen in

A

HIV

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12
Q

Can EDV warts progress to SCC?

A

Yes HPV 5 and HPV 8 can progress to SCC and Aks

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13
Q

High risk cervical types

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, 33, 45. Not HPV 6 and 11.

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14
Q

Associated with high risk HPV types? Bowenoid papulosis

A

Yes

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15
Q

Associated with high risk HPV types? Erythroplasia of queyrat

A

Yes

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16
Q

Verucous carcinomas include which types?

A

HPV 6,11. buschke lowenstin, oral florid papillomatosis, epithelioma cuniculatum.

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17
Q

Hecks disease is presents as what? What HPV type?

A

multiple flat wart like papules on gingival/ buccal and labial mucosa (children in south america) (HPV 13, 32)

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18
Q

Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis d/t which HPV type

A

HPV 6, 11

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19
Q

Use of what medication can increase your risk of eczema herpeticum?

A

topical calcineurin inhibitors

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20
Q

Herpetic whitlow d/t which HPV type?

A

HSV1 in children and HSV 2 in adults

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21
Q

What part of the brain is most commonly affected by HSV encephalitis?

A

temporal lobe is number 1 site

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22
Q

disseminated zoster can cause complications like? Name 3

A

SIADD, life-threatening pneumonitis, encephalitis, vasculopathy

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23
Q

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is d/t disease of what nerve?

A

Disease of geniculate gangilion of CN7

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24
Q

Symptoms of Ramsay Hunt include

A

Ear pain, deafness, tinnitus, ipsilateral facial nerve paralysis, anterior 2/3 tongue taste loss

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25
Q

If zoster affect CN5, what happens?

A

Aseptic meningitis or vasculopahty

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26
Q

If zoster affect CN8, what happens?

A

deafness

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27
Q

If zoster affect CN2, 3, 5, what happens?

A

herpes zoster opthalmicus

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28
Q

what is the most common type of HSV eye invovlement

A

uveitis

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29
Q

If zoster affect CN7, what happens?

A

bells palsy

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30
Q

If zoster affect cervial dermatome, what happens?

A

motor neuropathy of arm and diaphragm weakness

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31
Q

How much of an increase in IgG confirms infection?

A

four-fold

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32
Q

Within how many days do you have to treat varicella?

A

3 dyas of lesion onset

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33
Q

If you’re immunosuppressed, pregnant or a neonate, and you’re exposed to varicella, what do you need?

A

Get Varicella zoster immunoglobulin OR IVIG. AND start oral acyclovir wihtin 10 days of expsure

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34
Q

Varicella vaccine should be given to what type of patients post-exposure?

A

immunocompetent patients who are nonimmune

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35
Q

What’s a complication of chicken pox in older patients?

A

penumonia

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36
Q

Where does the EBV virus lay formant?

A

B cells

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37
Q

Infected B cells with EBV can continue to replicate and cause lymphoproliderative disorders in what type of immune-deficient pts?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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38
Q

recalcitrant ulcers of perineum in HIV patients due to

A

CMV

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39
Q

reactivation of HHV6 can be seen which what 2 rashes?

A

Pityriasis Rosea and DRESS

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40
Q

HHV8 is also associated what other disease besides kaposi’s

A

multicentric castleman disease, primary effusion lymphoma, paraneoplastic pemphigus

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41
Q

Eczema vaccinatum caused by

A

vaccinia (ortho pox, pox virus) used for live smallpox vaccine

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42
Q

What pox virus can you get from dogs? Cats? Sheep/goat/reindeer? Cows?

A

monkeypox, cowpox, orf/parapox, paravaccinia virus

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43
Q

Do you have to treat orf?

A

no, it self resolves

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44
Q

Chikungunyna virus transmitted by? Presents as?

A

Aedes mosquito. Presents as high fever, headache, joint symptoms

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45
Q

Zika virus transmitted by? Presnet cutaneous as?

A

Aedes mosquito. Presents as morbiliform rash on face, that spreads down

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46
Q

Dengue virus most commonly presnts as:

A

Asymptomatic.

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47
Q

Classic dengue fever presetns like Zika in the sens that it has

A

Fever, mobiliform rash, severe headache/myalgia/arthralgia, and petechial mucosal lesions.

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48
Q

Describe classic dengue rash?

A

widespread erythema with white islands of sparing

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49
Q

Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs?

A

Occus if you develop when a patient previously infected with 1 serotype is subsequently infected with a different viral serotype

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50
Q

Dengue hemorrhagiv fever more commonly occurs in?

A

children younger than 15yo

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51
Q

Necrolytic acral erythema looks like? Associated with? Tx

A

Looks like well defined plaques of eczema. Associated with Hepc and zinc deficiency. Tx with Zinc

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52
Q

EED in HIV is often assciated with

A

B hemolytic strep

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53
Q

herpes vegetans (anogenital exophytic verrucous plaques) is often resistant to what? Tx?

A

acyclovir. Treat with intralesion cidofovir

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54
Q

what HIV associated dermatosis present at CD4 counths greater than 500?

A

Seb derm, oral hairy leukoplakia, vaginal candidiasis

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55
Q

What HIV medications cause antiretroviral-associatedlipodystrohy?

A

protease inhibitor (navir)

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56
Q

HIV drug most likely to cause dress?

A

abacavir, Bactrim, dapsone

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57
Q

HIV drug with the most retinoid like effects including periungal pyogenic granulomas?

A

indinavir

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58
Q

Nonbullous impetigo caused by Strep pyogenes can lead to?

A

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis in 5%. Risk is not changed with antibiotics

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59
Q

Can you get rheumatic fever from strep impetigo?

A

no

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60
Q

If you get bullous impetigo in a renally insufficient person, what can happen?

A

Exfoliatoxin may disseminate causing staph scalded skin syndrome

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61
Q

what makes MRSA resistant to methicillin?

A

mecA gene (encodes penicillin-binding protein, PBP2a)

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62
Q

MRSA virulence factor?

A

Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL) leasd sot more severe necrosi sof skin

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63
Q

Blood cultures of ppl with Staph scalded skin are pos or neg?

A

Positive in adults and negative in children

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64
Q

Tx for staph scaleded skin, ecthyma?

A

dicloxacillin or keflex

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65
Q

how does staph toxic shock present?

A

High fever (greater than 102), rash, hypotension in 100 percent of patients

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66
Q

how do children get staph scalded skin?

A

primary infeciton sidtes are nasopharyns and conjucntiva

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67
Q

Tx for staph toxic shock and strep toxic shock?

A

Clindamycin (suppresses toxin production ), IVIG, fluids. For strep you may need surgical debridement

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68
Q

Staph vs Strep toxic shock. Which has lower mortality?

A

staph-TSS has lower mortality, more frequent rash and less frequent blook culture positivity

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69
Q

Pyomyositis is

A

staph aureus infecoitn of skeletal muscle

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70
Q

Imaging for pyomyositis?

A

MRI

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71
Q

Botryomycosis most commonly cuased by? Best imaging?

A

Staph aureus, MRI

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72
Q

What percent of botryo is skin limited? If it affects visceral organs, which one?

A

70% is skin limited. Affect lungs

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73
Q

Botyro granules would stain for

A

PAS, Gram, Giemsa stain positive

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74
Q

Ecthyma most commonly caused by

A

strep pyogenes. Also risk of post-streptococcal glomeriulonephritis

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75
Q

Erysipelas aka st anthony fire caused by

A

group a beta hemolytic strep (strep pyogenes)

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76
Q

Erysipelas is very red because of

A

Because it has prominent lymphatic involvement

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77
Q

Erysipelas number 1 site?

A

lower extremitiy , then face

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78
Q

Erysipelas is basically a superfical cellulitis. Treatment of choice?

A

Penicillin for 14 days. If allergic, then erythromycin

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79
Q

Erysipelas is basically a superfical cellulitis. Treatment of choice if allergic to penicillin?

A

Erythromycin

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80
Q

Perianal strep tx?

A

oral cefuroxime

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81
Q

Blistering distal dactylitis most commonly caused by

A

strep pyogenes more than staph aureus

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82
Q

Blistering distal dactylitis most commonly affects who? Presents as?

A

children. Presents as dark patch of skin that progresses to bulla

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83
Q

Scarlet fever presents as

A

sore throat, purulent pharyngitis, high fevers, then sandpaper rahs

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84
Q

Pastia lines

A

Linear petechiae in flexures of scarlet strep fever

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85
Q

what percentage of strep throat patients develop scarlet fever?

A

10%

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86
Q

Strep toxic shock due to steph M type 1 and 3 that produce

A

SPE A, B, and C

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87
Q

cellulitis common cause

A

strep pyogenes

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88
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis in children most commonly caused by

A

strep M type 1 and 3 (same type that causes streph toxic shock)

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89
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis in adults most commonly caused by

A

polymicrobial (steph, staph, ecoli, clostridium, bacteroides)

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90
Q

Corynebacteria is what type of bacteria?

A

Gram positive filamentous rod

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91
Q

Erythrasma fluoresces red because of

A

coproporphyrin 3 production

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92
Q

Erythrasma tx?

A

Topical clindamycin/erythromycin, 2% aluminum chloride

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93
Q

Erythrasma caused by

A

cornebacteria minutissimum

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94
Q

Pitted keratolysis caused by. Affects what part of the feet?

A

Kytococcus sedentarius. Affects weiht bearing areas of plantar skin

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95
Q

Trichomycosis axillaris caused by

A

corynebacterium tenuis

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96
Q

Clostridium is what type of bacteria?

A

Spore forming Gram positive rod

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97
Q

Skin with crepitus and foul-smelling brown exudate. Thick of

A

clostridium skin infection

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98
Q

Clostridium has what 2 toxins?

A

alpha toxin (cleaves lipids) and perfringolysin (induced vascular clots)

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99
Q

Actinomyces israelii is what type of bacteria? Found where?

A

Non acid fast filamentous bacteria. Found in mouth

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100
Q

Nocardia brasiliensis is what type of bacteria? Found where?

A

Weekly acid fast filatemntou sbacteria. Found in soil.

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101
Q

Numbe one cause of mycetomas in USA? In south america?

A

In us, it’s tru fungi. In south america, it’s nocardia brasiliensis

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102
Q

Cutaneous anthrax treatment?

A

quinolone or doxycyline x 2 weeks

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103
Q

Anthrax lethal toxin incrased levels of what?

A

Increases level of TNF alpha

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104
Q

Anthrax edema toxin incrased levels of what?

A

cAMP

105
Q

Erysipeloid typically affects what part of the hand?

A

Affect finger webspaces w/ sparing of terminal phalanges

106
Q

Erysipeloid cause? tx?

A

Ersipelothix rhusiopathiae (gram pos rod) penicllin, ciprofloxacin

107
Q

Listeria tx in a penicillin allergic patient?

A

bactrim. If not allergic, then ampicillin

108
Q

Treatment for ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

IV aminoglycoside and antipseudomonal PCN. PO cipro or levo

109
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis caused by

A

bartonella henselae or quintana

110
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis: histology?

A

pyogenic granuloma plus neutrophilic infiltrate and bacteria in endothelial cells seen with Warthin Starry stain

111
Q

Bartonella is what type of bacteria?

A

Intracellular gram negative bacteria

112
Q

what does bartonella look like on warthin-starry stain?

A

bartonell organisms are black and the background is gold

113
Q

Rickettsia are what type of bacteria? What type of cells do they live in?

A

Obligate intracellular gram negative organisms. Live in endothelial cells

114
Q

Ricketsial disease that have bad prognosis, and good prognosis?

A

Bad: RMSF, epidemic typhus Good: endemic typhus, tickettsial pox

115
Q

Ricketsial disease usally have an eschar at inoculation site except for

A

RMSF and typhus group(r thyphi and r prowazekii)

116
Q

Tx for meningococcemia?

A

Ivpenicillin, quinolones (if pencillin allergic)

117
Q

meningococcemia prophylaxis for close contacts?

A

ciprofloxacin 500mg single dose (250mg if child less than 11) OR rifampin 600mg

118
Q

Bartonellosis is caused by? Tx in acute phase (oroya fever)? In chronic phase (verruga peruana)

A

Bartonella bacilliformis. Tx is chloramphenicol and beta lactam. Chronic: Rifampin and streptomycin

119
Q

Bartonella henselae transmitted by what vector?

A

Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea)

120
Q

Cat scratch tx?

A

Supportive care if mild, if severe, then doxy plus rifampin

121
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis Tx?

A

Erythromycin

122
Q

Who gets trench fever? What bacteria? What vector?

A

Bartonella quintana, Human body louse, homeless and poor

123
Q

Vector for RMSF (2)

A

Dermacentor variabilis (eastern US) and Dermacentor andersoni (western)

124
Q

RMSF treatment for adults, kids, pregnant women?

A

Doxy for adults and children. Chlorampheniol is the treatment of choise of pregnant women

125
Q

Rickettsial pox caused by what bacteria? What vector? Tx?

A

Rickettsia akari, house mite (liponyssoides sanguineus), non required, self-resolves

126
Q

Scrub Typus caused by what bacteria? What vector? Tx?

A

Oreintia tsusugamushi. Larval mites (chiggers), doxycyline. Seen in asia

127
Q

Human monocytic whrlichoiosis transmitted by what vector?

A

Amblyomma americanum (lone start tick)

128
Q

Epidemic typhus aused by what bacteria? What vector? Tx?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii. Human body louse. Doxycyline

129
Q

Glanders caused by what bacteria. What tx?

A

burkholderia mallei in horses or donkeys. Augmentin for 60 days

130
Q

Malakoplakia is what?

A

chronic grannulomatous infectoin as a result of inability of macrophages to kill phagocytosed Ecoli

131
Q

what patients get malakoplakia?

A

Immunosuppressed (BMT, HIV, AIDs)

132
Q

Where on the body do you see malakoplakia?

A

perianal genital (ulcerated abscesses). Most common affects GU tract

133
Q

Michaelis Gutmann body seen in ?

A

Malakoplakia. The are incompletely killed bacteria wihtin calcified phagolysosomes

134
Q

Malakoplakia tx?

A

surgical excision

135
Q

tularemia tx?

A

streptomycin (sherry owns bunnies)

136
Q

Hinfluenze cellulitis blood cultures pos or neg?

A

positive

137
Q

Rhinoscleroma d/t

A

inhalation of klebsilla rhinoscleromatis from torpical location

138
Q

Mikuliz cells are seen in ?

A

Rhinoscleroma. Large vacuolated histiocytes containing bacteria

139
Q

Tx of rhinoscleroma?

A

tetracycline for 6 months along with surgical correction of airway

140
Q

Vibrio tends to affect what type of patients?

A

people with liver disease and diabetes

141
Q

Vibrio exposure risk?

A

Exposure to contaminated seawater/shellfish

142
Q

Vibrio treatment?

A

doxycyline and third generation cephalosporin

143
Q

Dog bite tx?

A

augmentin (amoxicillin clauvulanate)

144
Q

borrelia burgdorferi transmitted by what vector?

A

Ixodes scapularis har dbody tick

145
Q

borrelia lymphocytoma is a sign of early local or early disseminated disease?

A

result of hematogenous spread of spirochetes if the initial phase is untreated

146
Q

borrelia lymphocytoma typiccally presents as? In children? In adults?

A

plum-colored tender nodule/plaques on the earlobbes in children and nipple/adults

147
Q

Early disseminated symptoms of lyme disease include?

A

arthritis of the knees, bells palsy, av block

148
Q

lyme disease co-infection?

A

babesiosis, hga (human granulocyic anaplasmosis)

149
Q

borrelia lymphocytoma and acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans classically caused by?

A

Borrelia afzelli

150
Q

Vitiligo like lesion over bony prominences?

A

treponemal pallidum carateum, which affects all ages

151
Q

Syphilis stages?

A

primary is 1 month, secondary is month 2-4, latency, tertiary 2 years

152
Q

Syphilis tx?

A

IM benzathine penacillin (2.4IU for up to latent disease, 7.2 for tertiary syphilic. Neurosyphilis is IV penicillin G

153
Q

most common form of cutaneous TB is? Occurs in patient who have immunity to TB?

A

tuberculosis verruc cutis. Occus in patients w previous infectoin w high immunity

154
Q

high immunity or low immunity: lupus vulgaris

A

high immunity contiguous spread or hematogenous/lymphatic

155
Q

high immunity or low immunity: scrofuloderma

A

low immunity, contiguous spread of infection to skinf rom underlying lymph nodes an dbones

156
Q

high immunity or low immunity: orificial tuberculosis

A

autoinoculation of mucosa/skin

157
Q

high immunity or low immunity: acute miliary tuberculosis

A

immunosupressed

158
Q

tx for TB?

A

RIPE. Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol. RIPE for 2 months, then RI for 4 months

159
Q

Chancroid organism. Giemsa stain

A

Hemophilius ducreyi. School of fish sign on giemsa stain of exudate smear

160
Q

Chancroid presentation:

A

Ragged painful ulcer with undermined borders. Kissing lesion. Painful lymphadenitis

161
Q

Chancroid tx:

A

Axithromycin 1g po x 1 dose

162
Q

Gonorrhea organism. Culture medium

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Thayer Martin media

163
Q

Gonorrhea presentation:

A

Hemorrhagiv aral pustuels w arthritis of larger joints

164
Q

Gonorrhea tx:

A

Axithromycin 1g po AND ceftriazine 250mg IM

165
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum organism. Giemsa Stain?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3. Gamma Favre bodies

166
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum presentation

A

about 1 -6 months after infection, get buboes above and below inguinal ligament with groove sign

167
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum tx

A

Doxycyline 100mg PO BID for 3 weeks

168
Q

What is a complication of lymphogrnauloma venereum if untreated?

A

proctocolitis w perirectal absceses fistula

169
Q

Granuloma inguinale organism. Geimsa stain?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis. Safety in Donovan bodies

170
Q

Granuloma inguinale Presentation

A

2 week after infection, painless ulcer with beefy red friable grnaulation tissue

171
Q

Granuloma inguinale tx?

A

Azithromycin 1gm PO once weekly until lesions have resolved

172
Q

Tuberculoid leprosy clinical presentation?

A

Dry scaly hypopigmented and anesthetic plaques with raised peripheral rim

173
Q

Absent sensation in lesions is more lepromatous or tuberculoid leprosy?

A

tuberculoid

174
Q

Cell-mediated immunity in leprosy? LL and TT

A

LL is Th2, TT is Th1

175
Q

LL cytokin mileu?

A

IL4, IL5, Il10, IFN beta

176
Q

TT cytokin mileu?

A

IL2, INF gamma

177
Q

How does AFB stain differ in LL and TT?

A

stains positive in LL and negative in TT

178
Q

mycobacteria leprae parasitize what cells?

A

marcophages and schwann cells

179
Q

can leprosy be cultured in vitro?

A

no, must be cultivated in mouse foot pads or in armadillos

180
Q

Do leprosy patients change between LL, BL, BB, BT and TT?

A

polar forms (LL or TT) are stable and do not change. Borderline forms are unstable

181
Q

type 1 reversal reaction

A

Th1. downgrading or upgrading. Present with ulceration of existing lesions and preferntila targeitn go nerves resulting in dangerous neuritis

182
Q

highest risk for type 1 reveral reaction?

A

broderline forms.

183
Q

type 1 reversal reaction treatment

A

prednisone

184
Q

Type 2 reversal reaction

A

Th2. immune complexes form EN like lesions, resulting in multisystem vasculitis and EN like lesoins in previously unaffected areas

185
Q

Type 2 reversal reaction preferred areas of body?

A

extensor forearms and medial thighs

186
Q

Type 2 reversal reaction highes risk?

A

LL and BL forms

187
Q

Type 2 reversal reaction tx

A

thalidomide

188
Q

Tx for leprosy?

A

rifampin 600mg montly, clofazimine 300mg once a day and dapsone 100mg daily

189
Q

M marinum grows best at

A

31 degrees celsius

190
Q

Mycobacteria rapid grow are which ones? Rapid growers grow within

A

3-5 days. Fortuitum, chelonae, abscessus

191
Q

Tx for mycobacteria?

A

clarithromycin

192
Q

black dot is endothrix or ectothris?

A

Endothrix

193
Q

Endothrix mnemonic

A

Inside: Yaomings tonsil were red and gouged by a violent sudanese. (rubrum, tonsurans, yaounde, violaceum, gourvilli, soudanese)

194
Q

Ectothrix mnemonic

A

outisde: Cats and dogs fight and growl sometimes. Canis, audouinii, distorum, ferrugineum, gypsum, schoenleinii

195
Q

Favus

A

T schoenleinii. Like a flattened French toast

196
Q

Kerion

A

Exuberant reactions to fungus. Boggy scalp. Zoophilic organisms. Mcanis dog, T verrucosum cattle, T mentag rodents

197
Q

Tinea faceii common organisms?

A

M canis, T metag (dogs and rodents)

198
Q

Proximal white subungal and distal subungal onychomycosis

A

T rubrum

199
Q

White superficial onychomycosis

A

T mentagrophytes (adults) T rubrum in children

200
Q

uncommon cause of white superifical onychomycosis

A

fusarium

201
Q

Anthropophilic dermatophytes include which ones

A

All trichophyton (except mentagrophytes and verrucosum), E floccosum, M. audouinii

202
Q

Zoophilic dermatophtes include?

A

M canis, T metag (dogs and rodents) M nanum (pigs), T verrucosum (cattle)

203
Q

how do dermatophytes stain on histology? PAS, Giemsa

A

red in PAS and black on GMS

204
Q

Tinea cruris vs candidiasis, which spares the scrotum?

A

Tinea cruris

205
Q

Erosive interdigitalis blastomycetia affects which fingers? What sthe cultprit?

A

between middle and ring fingers. Candida vs 4th and 5th fingers for dermatophytes

206
Q

black piedra and white piedra organism

A

black is piedra hortae, white is trichosporon ovoides (scalp) T inkin (pubic) T asahii (immunocompromised)

207
Q

white/black piedra. Hard/soft. Mobile or not?

A

white is soft mobile. Black is hard non mobile.

208
Q

how do ppl with white/back piedra present?

A

hair breakage in scalp, axilla and pubic region

209
Q

Sporotrichosis is a ubiquitous saprophyte from what plants?

A

rose thorns, wod splinters, spagnum moss

210
Q

Sporotrichosis tx?

A

itraconazole

211
Q

Black grain mycetoma is

A

eumycetoma (fungus) madurella or pseudallescheria spp.

212
Q

Red grain mycetoma is

A

actinomycetoma (actinomadura pelletieri)

213
Q

Chromomycosis aka Chromoblastomycoses organism. Microscopy.

A

Fonseca pedrosoi. Copper pennies

214
Q

Chromoblastomycoses exposure?

A

traumatic inoculation by thorns or splinters

215
Q

Chromoblastomycoses sequele?

A

SCC

216
Q

Tx for histo, blasto, coccidio, paracoccidio?

A

Itraconazole.

217
Q

What candida is resistant to fluconazole?

A

C glabrata, C krusei

218
Q

two most common candida?

A

C albican, C tropicalis

219
Q

ccryptococcus tx

A

fluconasole for mild disease, amphotericin b for CNS meningoencephalitis

220
Q

aspergillous primary cutanous vs secondary organisms?

A

a flavus primary via iv cath a fumigatus via inhallation in immunosuppressed

221
Q

most common fungus cultures in burn patients?

A

fusarium

222
Q

aspergillous and fusariusm septate or nonseptate?

A

septate

223
Q

mucormycosis tx

A

amphotericin b

224
Q

protothecosis is not a fungus but a ? Exposure? Clincial presenation

A

algae from contaminated water. Olecranon bursitis

225
Q

Rhinosporidiosis is not a fungus but a ? Exposure?

A

protozoa from contaminated water.

226
Q

Rhinosporidiosis clinical presentation?

A

looks a PG in the nose or eye. With Epistaxis

227
Q

where to look for head lice?

A

occipital and post-auricular

228
Q

body louse is vector for

A

trench fever (B quintana), louse-borne relapsing fever (b recurrentis), epidemic typhus (R prowazekii)

229
Q

Leishmaniasis tx for cutaneous and mucocutaneous?

A

pentavalent antimony

230
Q

Leishmaniasis tx for visceral lesihmaniasis?

A

amphotericin b

231
Q

Leishmaniasis vector? Which is new world, old world?

A

sandfly (new world lutzomyia), old world is (lphebotomus)

232
Q

Leishmaniasis culture medium

A

NNN. Novy McNeal Nicolle

233
Q

Kinetoplasts in ?

A

Leishmaniasis

234
Q

Trypanosomiasis vector?

A

TseTse fly

235
Q

African trypanosomiasis Tx

A

Pentamidine (SNAP)

236
Q

South american trypanosomiasis Tx

A

Nifurtimox (SNAP)

237
Q

Ancylostoma brasiliense causes

A

cutaneous larva migrans

238
Q

Stronglycoides stercoralis

A

Larva currens

239
Q

Onchocerciasis River blindness vector?

A

balck fly aka simulium fly

240
Q

Onchocerciasis tx?

A

ivermectin and excision of onchocercomas

241
Q

Filariasis cause

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

242
Q

Filariasis presentation?

A

lymphedema

243
Q

swimmer’s itch

A

schistosoma fresh water uncovered skin

244
Q

seabather

A

salt water, edwardsiella, linuche, covered skin

245
Q

bed bugs species name

A

cimex lectularius

246
Q

bed bugs toxin?

A

nitrophorin

247
Q

fire ants toxin?

A

solenopsin D

248
Q

Bees toxin?

A

phospholipase A

249
Q

cat flea is a vector for

A

bartonell henselae (cat scratch, BA), bartonella quintana (bacillary angiomatosis)

250
Q

puss caterpillar rash

A

linear petechiae. Super hairy catepriller

251
Q

summer penile syndrome in boys

A

chigger mites (trombicula alfreddugesi)

252
Q

black widow spider

A

alpha lactotoxin

253
Q

brown recluse spider

A

sphingomyelinase d. dangerous because pt can hav ehemolytic anemia, shock and death

254
Q

jumping spider (4 eyes)

A

hyaluronidase

255
Q

wolf spider (8 eyes)

A

histamine

256
Q

sac spider (albino spider)

A

hilipase

257
Q

centipede bite. What does it look like. How many legs per segment?

A

one pair of leg per segment, two punture wounds

258
Q

milipede bite. What does it look like. How many legs per segment?

A

two pairs of legs per segment. Chemical irritant dermatitis. Burn and blistering

Clinical Dermatology (11 decks)

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