Infections and antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea/chlamydia?

A

ceftriaxone IM 500mg for co-infection
Doxycycline 100mg BID x7d for chlamydia (not pregnant)
Azithromycin 1gm PO or amoxicillin 500mg TID x 7d for chlamydia (pregnant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for PID

A

Outpatient: ceftriaxone IM 500mg + doxycycline 100mg BID x14d + flagyl (metronidazole) 400mg BID x14d

Inpatient: ceftiraxone 1g IV q24 + doxy 100mg PO/IV BID + flagyl 500mg PO/IV q12
OR
cefoxitin 2g IV q6
OR
cefotetan 2g IV q12 + doxy 100 BID and transition all to 14d total oral doxy + flagyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the treatment for BV?

A

Clindamycin 2% cream 5g x 7d
OR flagyl 500mg BID x7d
OR flagyl 0.75% gel intravaginal x5d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment for cystitis?

A

Bactrim (trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole) 100/80mg BID x3d (preferred)
OR
Macrobid (Nitrofurantoin) 100mg BID x7d
OR
Fosfomycin 3g PO x1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the treatment for pyelonephritis?
What is PCN allergy?

A

CTX 1g IV q24 then PO meds for 7d

alternatives: cefepime 1g BID
Amp + gent: amp 2g q5, gent 5mg/kg q24
Aztreonam if beta-lactam allergy: 1g BID

Outpatient: ciprofloxacin 500mg BID x7d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of PID?
Criteria for inpatient treatment?

A

low abdominal/pelivc pain in sexually active and no other obvious causes OR one of following 3 major criteria:
- adnexal tenderness, uterine tenderness, CMT

supporting evidence: fever, mucopurulent discharge, WBC on saline wet prep, +GC/CT, elev CRP/ESR, WBC >10, gram + diplococci on gram stain.

specific for ddx: EMB confirming endometritis, TVUS/MRI w/ thickened fluid filled tubes and TOA, laparoscopy w/ confirmed findings of PID

  • criteria for inpatient PID: cannot r/o surgical emergency, pregnantt, no clinical response to oral abx.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is tuberculosis diagnosis?

A

PPD - administered intradermally. Wait 48hr to interpret. positive induration >10mm

IGRA blood test: detects immune response to TB bacteria

CXR: apical cavitation, hilar LAD

EMB: Longhand giant cells. mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is tuberculosis treatment?

A

6-9 months
Isoniazid: 5mg/kg/d
Rifampin (interferes w/ OCP): 10mg/kg/day
Ethambutol (if isoniazid resistance): 15 mg/kg/day
Supplement w/ B6 to reduce risk of neurotoxicity.

2 phases tx: 4 drugs for 2 months then 2-3 drugs for 2-7 months.

Test for TB if clinical suspicion: F, night sweats, weight loss, cough. Get CXR and 3 sputum samples for culture, AFB stain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many kids <5 are hospitalized each year for RSV?

A

60-80K. What treatments? Supportive (O2, IVF, intubation in severe cases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you counsel patients about RSV vaccine?

A

basic hand hygiene.

Vaccination between 32w0d-36w6d btw Sep and Jan, prevents infection in newborns.
- Risk severe infection in newborn reduced by 80%.
- If decides against it, infant will need monoclonal Ab. If gets it, won’t need monoclonal Ab.
- vaccine must be given 14d prior to birth. Reduces the number of vaccines the infant receives at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is sepsis in pregnancy?

A

2nd leading cause of maternal deaths.
life threatening organ dysfunction 2/2 dysregulated response to infection
- septic shock: subset w/ circulatory dysfunction. persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain MAP>65 and lactate >2 despite fluid resuscitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is workup and management of sepsis in pregnancy?

A

quick SOFA score: systolic BP <100, RR>22, AMS. If 2+ present, risk of sepsis.

ddx: infectious and non-infectious (DKA, adrenal crisis, cardiomyopathy, anaphylaxis) causes.

Workup:
-CBC w/ diff,
- CMP
- serum lactate
- coagulation studies
- ABG
- peripheral blood smear/Blood cultures
- UCx

tx: IVF (1-2L IV crystalloid-LR), strict I/O, norepi=1st line vasopressor. use vTE prophylaxis, insulin prn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is organ damage caused by sepsis?

A

CNS: AMS
Cards: hypotension from vasodilation/3rd spacing, myocardial dysfunction
Pulm: ARDS
GI: paralytic ileus
Hepatic: hepatic failure
GU: oliguria or AKI
Heme: DIC or thrombocytopenia
Endocrine: adrenal dysfunction, incr insulin resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are most common sources of infection in sepsis (OB and non-OB)?

What are OB risks?

A

Obstetric: septic AB, chorio, endometritis, wound infection
Non-OB: UTI, pneumonia, appendicitis, GI

most common cause antepartum=GU
- Most frequent organisms: E. coli and GBS/group A strep.
- incr risk PTD, prolonged recovery, stillbirth and maternal death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is differential diagnosis for pregnancy w/ respiratory illness?

A

Differential: influenza, covid, RSV, allergies, URI
Flu vaccine should be given by end of October

How do you counsel pt about influenza vaccine
Quadrivalent: 2 strains of influenza A and 2 strains of influenza B
Given for all age 6 months or older
Flu season: Oct to May
Can you receive antiviral treatment for both flu and covid infection at same time?
Yes. Tamiflu and Paxlovid should be taken together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is expedited partner therapy?

A

GC/CT, trich
- preferable for partner to have complete STI evaluation but if not possible, EPT okay.

  • provide abx to patient AND partner at time of visit. written instructions for STI testing, medical evaluation places.
  • test of Cure for patient not indicated, retest for re-infection in 3 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are recommendations for gonorrhea tx?

A

ceftiraxone: 500mg IM if <150kg or 1000mg if <150kg
- stopped CTX/azithro bc decreased susceptibility of GC to azithro

18
Q

What is management of HSV in pregnancy?

A

75% w/ HSV will have recurrence in pregnancy.
primary outbreak at delivery=40-80% risk transmission.

Neonatal HSV: disseminated, CNS, and skin/eye/mouth. occurs w/ primary infection in 1st tri (can cause chorioretinitis, microcephaly, skin lesions).

ddx: PCR>culture. type-specific abx testing.

19
Q

What is treatment of HSV in pregnancy?

A

antivirals inhibit DNA replication. reduce viral shedding and persistence of lesions.

  • suppression at 36w to decr risk outbreak at delivery, reduce risk CS.
  1. Acyclovir (most studied)
    - primary: 400 TID x 7-10d
    - recurrent: 400 TID x 5d
    - suppression: 400 TID daily
  2. Valacyclovir: greater bioavailability=reduced dose frequency.
    - primary: 1000mg BID x 7-10d
    - recurrent: 500mg BID x 3d
    - suppression: 500mg BID daily
  3. Famciclovir (no data in pregnancy)
20
Q

What is the treatment for endometritis? What do the antibiotics cover?

A

Diagnostic criteria: need 2 of 3
- fever
- pain/tendernes
- purulent drainage

Gent dosing: 1.5 mg/kg q24 covers gram negatives
Clinda dosing: 900mg q8 covers anaerobes
Can add Amp if GBS pos (and not getting better after 48hr) 2g IV q6 bc clinda can be resistant to GBS pos.

21
Q

What are causes of watery diarrhea?

A

Infectious (norovirus, C.diff-fluoquinolones, gastroenteritis, listeria, Giardia, food poisoning), laxatives.

22
Q

What foods are high risk for contamination with listeria?
What are the symptoms?

A

Unpasteurized cheese, deli meats, smoked seafood, exposure to raw sewage

Fever, N/V, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, myalgias.

23
Q

How do you confirm the diagnosis of listeria?

What is management?

A

Blood cultures. Treat with IV ampicillin x 2 weeks. If PCN allergic? Bactrim.

Can cause fetal loss, PTL. if pt is asymptomatic, don’t treat. If some sx but no fever, don’t treat!!

24
Q

What are clinical findings of Parvo in pregnancy?

US findings?

Ddx?

A

Self-limiting. Slapped cheek rash, joint pain, fever, mild URI sx.
- causes fetal anemia, HF, hydros
- vertical transmission rate 25%

Hydrops

IgG and IgM but pCR more sensitive (on amniotic fluid).
- If IgM pos, need serial weekly US + MCAD for 8 wks to eval for fetal anemia/hydrops. IF hydros -> PUBS +IUT

Tx: PUBS looking for anemia and possible IUT
- weekly US for 2 months post-exposure

25
Q

What is clinical picture of Zika in pregnancy?
US findings?
What is diagnosis?
Treatment?

A

Mosquito born illness, also transmitted from sex. Fever, maculopapular rash, pleuritis, myalgias

Microcephay, intracranial calcifications

** IgG and IgM, PCR test 3 times during pregnancy**

none. If exposed to Zika, wait 2 months until try to conceive.

26
Q

What is clinical picture of listeria?

How to counsel patient if she hears about listeria outbreak?

Ddx/tx?

A

F, n/V, abdominal pain. Can cause fetal loss, PTL.

overall risk of exposure is low. If asymptomatic, observe for 2 months. If mild sx with NO fever: can manage as asymptomatic or send cultures and only tx if positive. IF febrile, BCx and treat.

Blood Cx. Tx=IV ampicilin x 2 weeks. If PCN allergic, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

27
Q

Which viruses are DNA viruses?

A

Hep B, HSV, HPV

28
Q

Which viruses are RNA viruses?

A

HAV, HCV, HDV, HIV

29
Q

Clinical manifestations of hepatitis?
How is acute hepatitis managed in pregnancy?
Vertical transmission of HBV without HBV/IG?

A

RUQ Abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, N/V, fatigue, coagulopathy.

Supportive care.

40%. If HBeAg pos, 80-90%.

Risk of HIV transmission without treatment is 25%, <1% with treatment.

30
Q

Who should get tested for HCV?

A

All pregnant patients!

hIV or another hepatitis. IV drug use. Blood transfusion from donor who later tested positive. Long-term hemodialysis, chronic liver disease.

Risk of occupational exposure for physician to HBV, HIV. HBV 20-30%, HIV 0.3%.

31
Q

Pneumonia physical exam findings?

A

Decreased or bronchial breath sounds.
Crackles on auscultation of the affected regions of the lung.
Dullness on percussion

32
Q

For endometritis, why gent and clinda?

A

Gent for gram negatives, clinda for anaerobes.

– if no improvement in 24hrs, what do you do? Add ampicillin 2g q6 to broaden if GBS pos.

33
Q

What are recs for HIV in pregnancy?

A
  • screen w/ ELISA, confirmatory w/ Western blot.
  • if both pos, CD4, VL (HIV RNA PCR), CBC, LFTs.

check VL: IPV, 2–4 weeks after initiating (or changing) cART drug regimens; monthly until RNA levels are undetectable; and then at least every 3 months during pregnancy

  • if VL >1000, CS at 38 0/7 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission. IV zidovudine (ZDV), ideally 3 hours preoperatively as a 1-hour intravenous loading dose then continuous until delivery to achieve adequate levels of the drug in maternal and fetal blood.

if VL < 1000, avoid operative delivery, FSE, methergine in labor if using protease inhibitor.

34
Q

What is toxoplasmosis?

A

60% vertical tramission risk in 3rd trimester.
- highest severity in 1st trimester though

CLINICAL (all HEAD problems):
- intracranial calcifications
- chorioretinis
- HSM
- hearing loss
- low IQ

need serologies (IgM and IgG)

Tx: Spiramycin in 1st tri.
Pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine in 2nd tri

35
Q

What is CMV?

A

3% prevalence
30% vertical transmission, 30% of infected infants will due

CLINICAL
- chorioretinis
- HSM
- abdominal/liver calcifications
- FGR
- hydros

36
Q

What is varicella?

A

chickenpox
- pneumonia occurs in 20% pregnant woman. hIGH mortality! treat w/ IV acyclovir and iCU admission
- shingles=reactivation of latent virus.

FETAL EFFECTS
- SAB, IUFD
- congenital varicella: limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, cataracts, chorioretinis
- varicella embryopathy in 2nd trimester
- high mortality if maternal infection < 5d before delivery (Bc no passive transfer of IgG)

sx: fever, malaise, URI, rash.
dd: clinical, serologic testing IgG and IgM. PCR of vesicular fluid.
tx: Oral acyclovir 800mg 5x/day for 7d
- maternal tx DOES NOT prevent congenital varicella, only benefits mom.

Delay delivery for 1 week to allow passive transfer of IgG
- if can’t delay, give VZIG to neonate.

post-exposure ppx if non-immune: immune globulin or acyclovir.

after vaccines avoid pregnancy for 1 month!

37
Q

What is AIDS?

A

positive HIV with CD4 <200 OR 1+ opportunistic infections regardless of Cd4

screening for HIV: ELISA then confirmatory with Western blot.
- if both positive, need Cd4 count and viral load, Hep B and C testing, CBC, LFTs.

38
Q

What is the transmission rate for HIV?

What are deliver recs for HIV?

A

without zidovudine: 24%
with ZDV 8%
with ZDV and CD 2%
VL <1000, on HAART and no CD 1-2%

if unknown viral load, CD
if VL <1000, no CD. If > 1000, CD prior to labor or ROM at 38wks

intrapartum
- give IV ZDV 2mg/kg IV load then 1mg/kg/hr until delivery. if elective CD, need 3 hrs prior.
- avoid methergine with use of protease inhibitors.

39
Q

What is differential for diffuse rash in pregnancy?

A

scarlet fever, parvo, roseola, toxo, PUPPS, varicella

40
Q

how do you counsel HIV positive pt about reducing tramission?

A
  • use condoms
  • take hIV meds
  • partners should take PREP
  • annual screening for high risk behavior (multiple sexual partners and drug use)
  • serosorting and seropositioning (limit unprotected intercourse to other HIV pos and use se positions less likely to transmit hIV like oral sex, penile/vaginal vs. anal)

HIV pos can use all contraception methods if consider drug-drug interaction.

41
Q

What is prenatal treatment of HIV?

A

HAART
- 3 drugs from 2 different classes of meds (to decrease antiviral resistance).