Infection Review Sessions 5- Flashcards

1
Q

What is the last antibody to appear when the body is clearing a hep b virus

A

HbsAb

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2
Q

The post exposure prophylaxis for hep C is

A

Nothing - wait until test positive and cure it

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3
Q

Gentamicin mainly targets

A

Gram negative (sepsis)

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4
Q

Which immune cell expresses the bacterial peptides on MHC class II molecules

A

Dendritic cells (has APC properties)

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5
Q

Why does CRP increase

A

CRP is an acute phase protein produced by the liver in response to infection

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6
Q

How would you describe bacteria quorum sensing

A

Modulation of gene expression in response to changes in cell population density

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7
Q

3 Characteristics of biofilms

A

Low metabolic activity
Low penetration of antibiotics
Secretion of virulence factors

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8
Q

What is the Planktonic phase of biofilm formation

A

Enter a spore-like state and move freely without being in a colony

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9
Q

Formation of extracellular matrix occurs after

A

Attachment of the spore-like bacteria to body cell

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10
Q

What substance has the phagocytic cell produced to trigger inflammation

A

Cytokines, Il1 and 6, TNFR

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11
Q

What are most staph resistant to?

A

Penicillin

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12
Q

UTI treatment

A

Nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim

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13
Q

Cell or cellular product responsible for controlling HIV infection initially

A

HIV specific CD8+ T cell

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14
Q

Patients who have cleared an infection will have

A

Surface antibody response HBcAg

Core antibody response IgG

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15
Q

Chesty symptoms in HIV positive patient likely to be caused by

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (PJP/PCP infection)

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16
Q

Why does staphylocccus epidermis cause an infection in central lines

A

Produces a slime that adheres to plastic surfaces

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17
Q

Likely causative organism for infection following mitral valve replacement

A

Staph epidermis

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18
Q

Mechanism of action for antibiotic used to treat endocarditis caused by staph epidermis

A

Cell wall synthesis inhibitor (vancomycin plus rifampin)

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19
Q

How does HIV bind to lymphocyte

A

Gp120 docking glycoprotein binds to CD4 receptor

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20
Q

In malaria, low haemoglobin is due to

A

Action of merozoites

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21
Q

Legionnaires disease commonly presents with similar signs and symptoms to what other condition

A

Pneumonia

- clarithromycin

22
Q

Name a common feature of malaria

A

Dark coloured urine due to haemolysis of RBCs leaking Hb into urine

23
Q

Which antibiotic do you prescribe for C. difficile e

A

Metronidazole

24
Q

Most important factor in reduction of MRSA infections

A

Hand washing

25
Q

high ratio of IgM to IgG means

A

Patient has not encountered the virus previously

26
Q

Patient has encountered virus before

A

High ratio of IgG to IgM

27
Q

Any infection would trigger both

A

IgG and IgM

28
Q

Any infection is associated with an

A

Antibody response

29
Q

Description of CVID

A

Have B cells but they cannot produce antibodies

30
Q

Di george syndrome description

A

Deletion on chromosome 22 causes hypoplastic thymus so no B cells can be matured

31
Q

Description of Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

No isotope switching occurs so no IgG produced

32
Q

Examples of supportive treatments for immunodeficiency

A

Prophylactic antibiotics and UV-irradiated/CMV negative blood products only

33
Q

Example of specific treatment for immunodeficiency

A

Immunoglobulin therapy

34
Q

Which malaria species is most commonly associated with severe malaria

A

Falciparum

35
Q

Which pattern of infection is seen in HSV cold sores

A

Latent

36
Q

Pattern of high igG and absent IgM usually means

A

Past infection

37
Q

In which cell is EBV maintained for life

A

B cell

38
Q

Which wbc is responsible for raised wbc count in EBV

A

CD8 T cell

39
Q

What kind of murmur is suggestive of aortic stenosis

A

An ejection systolic murmur in 2nd intercostal space on the right

40
Q

What is likely to be heard in tricuspid valve endocarditis

A

Systolic murmur in left lower sternal border

41
Q

Features of IgA

A

Found on mucosal surfaces. Protects respiratory tract.

42
Q

Features of IgA deficiency

A

Recurrent ear infection, sinusitis, bronchitis and pneumonia

Some also have GI infections and chronic diarrhea

43
Q

Important virulence factor that is part of cell wall and inhibits phagocytosis in streptococci

A

M protein (interfered with complement)

44
Q

Toxin A is produced by

A

C. difficile

45
Q

What microbial feature is important in strep pyogenes

A

M protein - prevents phagocytosis

46
Q

Impetigo- lesions, beta haemolysis, cocci.

Suggestive of

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

47
Q

Does E. coli contain rna genetic material

A

No

Also Is prokaryote

48
Q

What 2 pathogens are associated with toxic shock syndrome

A

Strep pyogenes

MRSA

49
Q

Which treatments are needed in a case of necrotising fascilitis

A
IV antibiotics (normally penicillin) 
Antibody transfusion and debridement/amputation
50
Q

What does alpha haemolytic mean

A

Partially oxidise iron in Hb to cause greenish colour

51
Q

2 classes of antibiotic to treat cellulitis

A

Penicillins

Carbapenems