Infection Review Sessions 5- Flashcards

1
Q

What is the last antibody to appear when the body is clearing a hep b virus

A

HbsAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The post exposure prophylaxis for hep C is

A

Nothing - wait until test positive and cure it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gentamicin mainly targets

A

Gram negative (sepsis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which immune cell expresses the bacterial peptides on MHC class II molecules

A

Dendritic cells (has APC properties)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why does CRP increase

A

CRP is an acute phase protein produced by the liver in response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How would you describe bacteria quorum sensing

A

Modulation of gene expression in response to changes in cell population density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 Characteristics of biofilms

A

Low metabolic activity
Low penetration of antibiotics
Secretion of virulence factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Planktonic phase of biofilm formation

A

Enter a spore-like state and move freely without being in a colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Formation of extracellular matrix occurs after

A

Attachment of the spore-like bacteria to body cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What substance has the phagocytic cell produced to trigger inflammation

A

Cytokines, Il1 and 6, TNFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are most staph resistant to?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

UTI treatment

A

Nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cell or cellular product responsible for controlling HIV infection initially

A

HIV specific CD8+ T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Patients who have cleared an infection will have

A

Surface antibody response HBcAg

Core antibody response IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chesty symptoms in HIV positive patient likely to be caused by

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (PJP/PCP infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does staphylocccus epidermis cause an infection in central lines

A

Produces a slime that adheres to plastic surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Likely causative organism for infection following mitral valve replacement

A

Staph epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mechanism of action for antibiotic used to treat endocarditis caused by staph epidermis

A

Cell wall synthesis inhibitor (vancomycin plus rifampin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does HIV bind to lymphocyte

A

Gp120 docking glycoprotein binds to CD4 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In malaria, low haemoglobin is due to

A

Action of merozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Legionnaires disease commonly presents with similar signs and symptoms to what other condition

A

Pneumonia

- clarithromycin

22
Q

Name a common feature of malaria

A

Dark coloured urine due to haemolysis of RBCs leaking Hb into urine

23
Q

Which antibiotic do you prescribe for C. difficile e

A

Metronidazole

24
Q

Most important factor in reduction of MRSA infections

A

Hand washing

25
high ratio of IgM to IgG means
Patient has not encountered the virus previously
26
Patient has encountered virus before
High ratio of IgG to IgM
27
Any infection would trigger both
IgG and IgM
28
Any infection is associated with an
Antibody response
29
Description of CVID
Have B cells but they cannot produce antibodies
30
Di george syndrome description
Deletion on chromosome 22 causes hypoplastic thymus so no B cells can be matured
31
Description of Hyper-IgM syndrome
No isotope switching occurs so no IgG produced
32
Examples of supportive treatments for immunodeficiency
Prophylactic antibiotics and UV-irradiated/CMV negative blood products only
33
Example of specific treatment for immunodeficiency
Immunoglobulin therapy
34
Which malaria species is most commonly associated with severe malaria
Falciparum
35
Which pattern of infection is seen in HSV cold sores
Latent
36
Pattern of high igG and absent IgM usually means
Past infection
37
In which cell is EBV maintained for life
B cell
38
Which wbc is responsible for raised wbc count in EBV
CD8 T cell
39
What kind of murmur is suggestive of aortic stenosis
An ejection systolic murmur in 2nd intercostal space on the right
40
What is likely to be heard in tricuspid valve endocarditis
Systolic murmur in left lower sternal border
41
Features of IgA
Found on mucosal surfaces. Protects respiratory tract.
42
Features of IgA deficiency
Recurrent ear infection, sinusitis, bronchitis and pneumonia Some also have GI infections and chronic diarrhea
43
Important virulence factor that is part of cell wall and inhibits phagocytosis in streptococci
M protein (interfered with complement)
44
Toxin A is produced by
C. difficile
45
What microbial feature is important in strep pyogenes
M protein - prevents phagocytosis
46
Impetigo- lesions, beta haemolysis, cocci. Suggestive of
Streptococcus pyogenes
47
Does E. coli contain rna genetic material
No | Also Is prokaryote
48
What 2 pathogens are associated with toxic shock syndrome
Strep pyogenes | MRSA
49
Which treatments are needed in a case of necrotising fascilitis
``` IV antibiotics (normally penicillin) Antibody transfusion and debridement/amputation ```
50
What does alpha haemolytic mean
Partially oxidise iron in Hb to cause greenish colour
51
2 classes of antibiotic to treat cellulitis
Penicillins | Carbapenems