Infection (Misc) Flashcards

1
Q

autoimmune diseases, reoccurrence of disease, incompletion of antibiotics, long-term use of steroids, children and elderly at increased risk, cancer diabetes, stress, chronic disease

A

risk factors for infection

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2
Q

immature immune systems so they respond differently to disorders. ____ have passive immunity 1-3 months after birth. Breast fed _____ have an increased immunity.

A

Infants

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3
Q

decreased immune response, decreased cardiac output that results in the decrease of tissue perfusion causing delayed wound healing, cannot clear secretions as well due to lung inelasticity, incomplete emptying of their bladder increasing risk for bladder infection.

A

elderly

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4
Q

_____ use may increase risk for infection.

A

Steroid

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5
Q

may indicate potential gap in immunizations if they were allergic to a component. May also indicate what type of medications may be exposed more to infectious processes.

A

allergies

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6
Q

incubation of 7 to 21 days, contagious 4 days before and 4 days after infection. High fever, malaise, inflammation of nasal passages (coryza), conjunctivitis, and rash

A

Measles

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7
Q

21 day incubation period.

A

Ebola

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8
Q

fever, signs of inflammation (pain, heat, redness, swelling, loss of function), pain, malaise, draining wounds, enlarged lymph node, nausea, vomiting.

A

when assessing for infection you look for these things

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9
Q

erythema, edema, nausea, vomiting, exudate, fever, malaise

A

general signs of infection

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10
Q

5000-10,000 is the normal range for ____. It’s called leukocytosis if increased. differential allows you to determine what WBC is seen and to determine what sort of infection may be occurring. Immature neutrophils may indicate an acute response to some infection.

A

CBC with Differential

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11
Q

_____ will increase dramatically with infection and sepsis.

A

procalcitonin

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12
Q

______________ determines what microorganism is present and how to treat it.

A

Culture and Sensitivity

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13
Q

Highly contagious viral respiratory infection that infects respiratory epithelium. greatly increases the risk for secondary bacterial infections (pneumonia, otis media, sinusitis). 24 hour before manifestations and up to 5 or 7 days after they begin. (incubation period is 1-4 days generally 2 days)

A

Influenza

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14
Q

fever or feeling feverish, chills, sore throat, cough, runny nose, muscle or body aches, headaches, fatigue, vomiting, or diarrhea. Can range from mild to severe, dry non-productive cough, profound malaise, coryza (inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane)

A

clinical manifestations of influenza

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15
Q

Patient with the ____ often has a rapid onset of a severe headache, muscle aches, fever, chills, fatigue, and weakness. Sore throat, cough and watery nasal discharge may follow initial manifestations. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea may be present with certain strands

A

Flu

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16
Q

should be administered within 24-48 hours of symptoms. It stops replication and speeds recovery time

A

Antiviral Drugs

17
Q

most commonly used, stops replication for the virus, and makes the flu less severe. Inhibits influenza virus enzyme that is essential for viral replication.

A

Zanamivir (Relezna) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

18
Q

Blocks uncoating of influenza A virus, preventing penetration into the hose and inhibiting M2 protein in the assembly of progeny virus.

A

Amantadine

19
Q

inhibits replication of viral RNA, DNA, and influenza virus

A

Rimantadine

20
Q

reddish blue netlike blotching of skin

A

livedo reticularis

21
Q

aspiring, acetaminophen, NSAIDs. Used to decrease fever

A

antipyretics

22
Q

given at night so you can promote rest. Do not administer 24/7, as you want them to move secretions as necessary

A

antitussives

23
Q

yearly ______ are available every fall. Each year they predict what strand of the virus will be most prominent and make an immunization. It generally contains 2 to 3 antigens for the three or four most expected viral strains. Contains egg protein, question egg allergy

A

vaccinations

24
Q

a rare potentially fatal neurologic syndrome in children who receive aspirin with viral illness is called.

A

Reye syndrome

25
Q

is an excess fluid in the lungs resulting from an inflammatory process. The inflammation is triggered by many infectious organisms and by inhalation or iritating agents. This process begins when organisms penetrate the airway mucosa and multiply in the alveolar spaces. White blood cells migrate to the area of infection causing local capillary leak, edema, and exudate. These fluids collect in and around the alveoli and the alveolar walls thicken. Both even reduce gas exchange and lead to hypoxia. 8th leading cause of death in the US leading cause of all infectious diseases in the US. RBCs and fibrin move into the alveoli and capillary leak spreads the infection to other areas of the lung. If the infection move into the bloodstream, septicemia results, if it leads into the pleural cavity emphysema (collection of pus in the plueral cavity) results.

A

pathophysiology of pneumonia

26
Q

diffusely scatted patches around the bronchi. Scattered crackles upon assessment. Low grade fever may occurs

A

Bronchopneumonia

27
Q

consolidation general concentrates in a part or entire part of the lobe. Abrupt onset, purulent rust colored sputum, chest pain during breathing, crackles will occur in concentrated areas.

A

Lobar Pneumonia

28
Q

high fever, chills, clamminess, blueness, cough with sputum or phlegm, shortness of breath, plueritic chest pain, hemoptysis, fatigue, muscle weakness, headache, loss of appetite, mood swings, hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, joint pain, confusion, tachypnea, malaise, respiratory distress, diminished breath sounds. Purulent, blood tinged or rust colored sputum

A

clinical manifestations of pneumonia

29
Q

May be present with the usual symptoms of a fever, but will present with atypical symptoms, such as confusion, weakness, loss of appetite, and increased heart rate and respiration.

A

clinical manifestations of pneumonia for older adults

30
Q

fever, rhonci, crackles, wheezing, cough, dyspnea, tachypnea, restlessness, and decreased breath sounds if consolidation exist. Grunting, nasal flaring, retractions, irritability, lethargy, and a reduced appetite. Chest pain may be present.

A

clinical manifestations of pneumonia for infants

31
Q

diagnosed by a SpO2 of 92% or less, crackles, chest pain and fever

A

pneumonia