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HOSA Dental > Infection Control & Emergency Care > Flashcards

Infection Control & Emergency Care Flashcards

1
Q

observed by someone other than the patient

A

objective symptoms

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2
Q

evidence of a disease as reported by the patient

A

subjective symptom

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3
Q

study of disease

A

pathology

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4
Q

study of symptoms (cause of disease)

A

etiology

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5
Q

prediction of course of the disease

A

prognosis

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6
Q

describes immediate symptoms such as high fever and pain or distress

A

acute

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7
Q

describes a condition present over a long time, often without endpoint (fatigue, anemia)

A

chronic

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8
Q

temporary of permanent cessation of a sever condition (some cancers, sinusitis)

A

remission

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9
Q

occurring continuously in the same population or locality

A

endemic

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10
Q

refers to causes outside the body, such as illnesses arising from trauma, radiation, hypothermia

A

exogenous

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11
Q

refers to causes arising from within the body, such as infections tumors, and congenital or metabolic abnormalities

A

endogenous

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12
Q

refers to conditions inherited from parents, such as cystic fibrosis

A

congenital

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13
Q

refers to conditions resulting from natural aging of the body, such as arthritis

A

degenerative

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14
Q

refers to disease or infection occurring when body resistance is lowered, such as with fungal, bacterial, and viral infections

A

opportunistic

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15
Q

refers to diseases passed on from patient to patient in a health-care setting, such as staphylococcal bacterial infections, (hospital-acquired infections

A

nosocomial

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16
Q

disease producing microorganisms

A

pathogens

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17
Q

bacteria that can live in the presence of oxygen but do not require it

A

facultative aerobes

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18
Q

bacteria that cannot survive without oxygen, e.g. diphtheria

A

obligate aerobes

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19
Q

bacteria that grow best without oxygen but can survive in its presence

A

facultative anaerobes

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20
Q

bacteria that cannot live in the presence of oxygen

A

obligate anaerobes

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21
Q

thick-walled reproductive cell

A

spore

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22
Q

tiny parasitic organisms that require living matter to reproduce and grow

A

virus

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23
Q

microbes smaller than bacteria but longer than viruses, transmitted by vectors such as mice, ticks, live

A

rickettsia

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24
Q

type of fungi such as molds

A

filamentous fungi

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25
Q

type of fungi that is single-cellular such as yeast

A

unicellular fungi

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26
Q

must live upon another organism called the host, small “animal” parasites or organisms (e.g. malaria, dysentery)

A

protozoa

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27
Q

organisms living on decaying or dead organic matter

A

saphrophytes

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28
Q

small parasitic worms such as threadworms and roundworms

A

nematodes

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29
Q

microbes that live together on a host without harming it

A

commensal

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30
Q

disease producing microbes that are present in human blood

A

blood-borne pathogens

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31
Q

airborne infection in which pathogens discharged from the mouth or nose by coughing or sneezing are carried through the air and settle on objects

A

droplet infection

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32
Q

infection resulting from improper handling of materials, contamination of articles (fomes), poor sterilization

A

indirect infection

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33
Q

infection that is passed directly through intimated relationship, contact with blood, mucous membranes, saliva

A

contact infection

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34
Q

piercing of the skin or mucous membrane, “needle stick”

A

parenteral

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35
Q

exchange of disease by direct or indirect contact with an infected human or animal

A

carried infection

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36
Q

an infection that is transmitted by an organism such as a fly or mosquito

A

vector-borne infection

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37
Q

must be present for a disease to occur and prosper, scientific tool, elimination of one of the factors will stop the disease

A

chain of infection

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38
Q

inherited and permanent

A

natural immunity

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39
Q

obtained when a person is infected by a disease, produces antibodies, and then recovers from that disease

A

natural acquired immunity

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40
Q

obtained from inoculation or vaccination against a disease

A

artificial acquired immunity

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41
Q

results from receiving antibodies from another source, such as breast milk, or from injections of gamma globulin, antitoxins, or immune serums

A

passive acquired immunity

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42
Q

passes from mother to fetus, congenitally or through antibodies

A

passive natural immunity

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43
Q

having a weakened immune system, from drugs, irradiation, AIDS or malnutrition

A

immunocompromised

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44
Q

injection of microorganisms, serums, or toxins into the body

A

innoculation

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45
Q

injection with weakened or dead microbes

A

vaccination

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46
Q

substance that induces the body to form antibodies

A

antigen

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47
Q

protein substance produced by the body in response to an antigen

A

antibody

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48
Q

solution of killed or weakened infectious agents injected in to produce immunity

A

vaccine

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49
Q

vaccine produced from a culture of bacteria taken from the patient who will receive the vaccine

A

autogenous vaccine

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50
Q

diluted or reduced virulence of pathogenic microbes

A

attenuated

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51
Q

free from germs

A

asepsis

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52
Q

application of chemicals to kill, reduce, or eliminate germs

A

disinfection

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53
Q

the process of destroying all microorganisms to achieve asepsis

A

sterilization

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54
Q

application of methods to promote a favorable germ-free state

A

sanitization

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55
Q

assuming all patients are infectious and applying every method of combating disease and infection

A

universal precautions

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56
Q

instruments used to penetrate soft tissue or bone

A

critical sterilization

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57
Q

methods such as steam under pressure, dry heat, chemical vapor

A

critical sterilization

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58
Q

instruments that do not penetrate soft tissue or bone but contact non-intact skin or mucous membrane

A

semicritical sterilization

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59
Q

method such as high level disinfection

A

semicritical sterilization

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60
Q

instruments that come into contact with intact skin, such as x-ray heads, blood pressure cuffs

A

noncritical sterilization

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61
Q

methods such as EPA-registered “hospital disinfectant” - phenols, iodophors, chlorine, ammonium

A

noncritical sterilization

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62
Q

apparatus for sterilization by steam pressure. Temperature 121C, pressure 15psi and 30min, liquids need special treatment

A

autoclave

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63
Q

smaller ____ but higher temperature (132C) and lessen exposure time (3-5min)

A

flash autoclave

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64
Q

oven apparatus used for a hot air bake at high temperature (170C) for 2hrs, not applicable for paper objects and plastics

A

dry heat sterilization

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65
Q

devices holding superheated metal (234C) or small glass beads, used in endodontics, not recommended by CDC

A

molten metal heat/glass bead heat

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66
Q

use of chemicals and heat of 132C for 20min, noncorrosive method used on metals, proper ventilation and instruction is required

A

chemical vapor sterilization

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67
Q

sterilizing unit used at room temperature and requires prolonged exposure and devaporization time (10hrs), not a popular method in dental office due to cost and toxicity, useful on plastics

A

ethylene oxide

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68
Q

gas plasma sterilization using ionized hydrogen peroxide that releases vaporized gas molecules, killing microorganisms and endosperms in less than 1hr, compatible with most materials except plastics, liquids, and powders

A

vaporized hydrogen peroxide (vhp)

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69
Q

liquids containing chemicals disinfectants or sterilizers that kill microbes and spores, require 6-10 hours

A

chemical agents

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70
Q

placed in or on wrapped items during sterilization cycle to indicate effectiveness of sterilizing process

A

indicator stripes/commercial spore spells

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71
Q

contain instrument setups that travel from operatory use to the ultrasonic cleaning, rinsing, and wrapping for sterilizing and storage until the next use, marked for dating

A

cassette trays

72
Q

application of chemicals to kill, reduce or eliminate germs through soaking, spraying, foams, sponges, or wipes

A

disinfection

73
Q

chemical or agent that kills many microbes

A

disinfectant

74
Q

usually a diluted disinfectant that prevents the growth or inhibits the development of microbes

A

antiseptic

75
Q

inhibiting or retarding bacterial growth

A

bacteriostatic

76
Q

substance that destroys some germs

A

germicide

77
Q

disinfectant solution with biodegradable ingredient that is used to soak instruments until they are cleaned and sterilized

A

holding solution

78
Q

mechanical apparatus with reservoir to contain a solution that cavitates or bubbles of debris

A

ultrasonic cleaner

79
Q

gloves, eyeglasses, clinical attire, masks, face shields; help protect wearer and area from microbes

A

personal protective equipment

80
Q

drapes, covers, plastic instrument sleeves, x-ray covers; prevent contamination

A

barrier techniques

81
Q

for sanitation of operators and patients

A

standard operating procedures

82
Q

treating each case as if the patient has a serious disease, handling and sterilizing with each new use to prevent contamination, maintaining a sterile field

A

standard precautions

83
Q

disposing of all contaminated items in a marked biohazard bag, laundry and other materials should be considered contaminated by splatters or aerosol

A

proper disposal techniques

84
Q

container for disposal of needles, glass and other items

A

sharps disposal unit

85
Q

labeled container for items contaminated with body fluids or life threatening contaminates

A

biohazard container

86
Q

receptacle for used, unsanitary items

A

hazardous waste container

87
Q

covers chemical content, labeling, storage, and safety advice; colored

A

MSDS papers

88
Q

flash point and relative fire hazards

A

red (fire)

89
Q

instability, unreliable if heated, chemical reactions

A

yellow (reactivity)

90
Q

corrosive, acid, radiation

A

white (personal protection)

91
Q

hazardous material, inhalation of irritants, toxic fumes

A

blue (health)

92
Q

disposable cloths ___ with disinfecting solution to wipe contaminated surfaces and then second run to leave behind wet surface to be wiped dry

A

saturate-wipe-saturate disinfection cleaning

93
Q

issues and enforces restrictions and guidelines for infection control, sets standards and regulates conditions for employers to provide safety to their employees at work

A

OSHA

94
Q

sets regulations and issues suggestions for infection control, enforced by OSHA

A

CDC

95
Q

regulates and approves materials, equipment, medical devices, chemicals used in dental practices

A

EPA

96
Q

regulates and approves marketing products and solutions used in infection control

A

FDA

97
Q

a national organization of health professionals that studies and makes suggestions for regulations and guidelines for infection control

A

OSAP

98
Q

written and oral communication regarding patient’s present and past health status

A

patient health history

99
Q

body indications of the patients present health status, blood pressure, pulse, respiration, temperature

A

vital signs

100
Q

indication of the pulsating force of blood circulations

A

blood pressure

101
Q

blood vessel at rest

A

diastolic

102
Q

highest pressure of circulating blood

A

systolic

103
Q

device employed to intensify body sounds, set of earpieces inserted into rubber tubing and extends to metal bell-shaped disc diaphragm

A

stethoscope

104
Q

thin layer over disc end of stethoscope that helps enlarge or amplify pulse/body sounds

A

diaphragm

105
Q

an instrument employed to measure arterial blood pressure, squeeze bulb on rubber tubing, arm cuff, aneroid dial

A

sphygmomanometer

106
Q

interior depression or bend of elbow, placement of stethoscope diaphragm to determine blood-pressure sound

A

antecubital fossa

107
Q

situated at the inside, upper arm area, selected site of blood-pressure cuff placement

A

brachial artery

108
Q

irregular heartbeat or pulsations

A

arrhythmia

109
Q

lower pulse rate at the wrist than at the heart site

A

deficit

110
Q

normal pulse rate becoming weak and feeble with prostration or illness

A

febrile

111
Q

pulse count, # of pulsations

A

frequency

112
Q

occasional skipping of heartbeats

A

intermittent

113
Q

variation of force or frequency in pulse rate

A

irregular

114
Q

uniform pulse force, frequency, and duration

A

regular

115
Q

fine, hard-to-locate, barely perceivable pulse

A

thready

116
Q

suppresses respiratory sounds

A

absent

117
Q

cessation of breathing, usually temporary

A

apnea

118
Q

respirations gradually increasing in volume until climax, and then subsiding and ceasing for a short period of time before starting again; may be noted in dying

A

Cheyne-Stokes

119
Q

out of breath, difficult or labbored breathing

A

dyspnea

120
Q

rapid breathing that may be noted in children, those with disease, those in hysteria, or those in a drug-induced condition

A

frequent

121
Q

noisy, bubbling sounds from lung mucous, heard on inhalation

A

rale

122
Q

short inhalation with small rise in chest

A

shallow

123
Q

rattling, bubbling, or snoring sounds that obscure normal breaths

A

stertorous

124
Q

pertaining to ear

A

aural

125
Q

armpit region

A

axillary

126
Q

measurement of body heat registered by an ear thermometer

A

tympanic

127
Q

important phone numbers necessary in an emergency, which are located in a prominent position near every available phone

A

emergency call list

128
Q

container with oxygen gas tank, colored green; obtained in various sizes and may be centrally supplied to each work station

A

oxygen source

129
Q

device used to control the flow of oxygen

A

oxygen regulator

130
Q

gauge used to adjust the flow amount of oxygen

A

oxygen regulator

131
Q

gauge used to adjust the flow amount of oxygen.

A

oxygen flowmeter

132
Q

device placed over a patient’s nose and mouth to administer gas;
may be clear or tinted plastic or rubber material

A

oxygen mask

133
Q

device attached to an oxygen mask to apply pressure to the oxygen flow and thereby inflate the lungs

A

demand-valve resuscitator

134
Q

handheld squeeze device with a mask that is placed over the patient’s nose and mouth and used to force atmospheric air into the patient’s lungs; may also be attached to the oxygen supply to force oxygen to lungs

A

AMBU-bag

135
Q

a tray assembled with materials and items necessary for
emergencies; often supplied in kit form with medicines, administration items, and chemicals to be used for various emergency events. Emergency trays must be updated frequently and close at hand. All dental personnel should know how to use each item

A

emergency tray

136
Q

bluish discoloration of the skin caused by lack of oxygen

A

xyanosis

137
Q

quick, jabbing pressure and force at belt line to force air up the windpipe

A

abdominal thrust

138
Q

a result of oxygen imbalance

A

asphyxiation

139
Q

applying quick pressure on the chest to force air upward in the windpipe to dislodge the obstruction; may be used on pregnant women as a substitute for abdominal thrusts

A

chest thrusts

140
Q

an insert or cut into the thyroid and cricoid cartilage to introduce an emergency air supply.

A

cricothyrotomy

141
Q

a condition resulting from air having been forced into the abdomen instead of the lungs

A

gastric distension

142
Q

procedure in which abdominal thrusts are applied to a choking patient, which forces air from the diaphragm upward to expel a blockage in the airway

A

Heimlich maneuver

143
Q

a lack of inspired oxygen

A

hypoxia

144
Q

an artificial opening into the windpipe that is placed between the mouth and the lung; the opening is at the frontal base of neck into the windpipe for air intake

A

stoma

145
Q

a cut and an insertion of a tube into the trachea for an emergency air supply

A

tracheostomy

146
Q

a life-saving measure that combines artificial respiration with external cardiac massage

A

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

147
Q

mechanical/electrical device used to revive and stimulate the heart of a patient in cardiac arrest

A

AED (automated external defibrillator)

148
Q

tube inserted into the mouth and down the throat to provide wind to the windpipe

A

airway device

149
Q

force applied to the chest, providing pressure on the heart to imitate a heartbeat or pulsation

A

compression

150
Q

using a finger in the mouth of an unconscious person to locate and wipe out any airway obstruction

A

finger sweep

151
Q

flat bone between ribs “breastbone”

A

sternum

152
Q

lowest portion of the breastbone with no ribs attached

A

xiphoid

153
Q

loss of consciousness due to fall in blood pressure

A

syncope

154
Q

shock arising from a reaction to a body allergen

A

anaphylactic shock

155
Q

shock arising from improper heart action

A

cardiogenic shock

156
Q

shock arising from excessive blood loss

A

hemorrhage shock

157
Q

shock arising from endocrine diseases and disorders such as diabetes

A

metabolic shock

158
Q

shock arising from nervous impulses

A

neurogenic shock

159
Q

shock arising from a sudden change in body positions

A

postural shock

160
Q

shock arising from mental origins

A

psychogenic shock

161
Q

shock arising from insufficient breathing

A

respiratory shock

162
Q

shock arising from a microbial infection

A

septic shock

163
Q

person’s sensitivity to a specific allergen that can cause a variety of symptoms

A

allergic reaction

164
Q

an allergic reaction of the body resulting in lowered blood pressure, swelling of the threat, shock, and even death

A

anaphylaxis reaction

165
Q

a condition of irritation to the skin, scalp, or mucous membranes

A

itching

166
Q

a red rash or blotching of the skin

A

erythema

167
Q

a tissue swelling, enlargement of a body area

A

edema

168
Q

small watery blisters

A

vesicle

169
Q

commonly called hives or wheals

A

urticaria

170
Q

a chronic disorder characterized by shortness of breathe, wheezing, and coughing caused by spams of bronchial tubes or swollen mucous membranes

A

asthma

171
Q

resulting from allergens entering the body

A

extrinsic asthma

172
Q

resulting from bronchial infection allergens

A

intrinsic asthma

173
Q

severe asthma attack that may be fatal

A

status asthmaticus

174
Q

a disorder of the metabolism of carbohydrates

A

diabetes melitus

175
Q

insulin-dependent diabetes, early onset, more severe in course

A

type 1 diabetes

176
Q

noninsulin-dependent diabetes, usually develops later in life and may be regulated by diet control and/or taking oral medication

A

type 2 diabetes

177
Q

gestational diabetes mellitus may occur in pregnant women who have never had or been tested for diabetes before pregnancy

A

type 3 diabetes

HOSA Dental (3 decks)

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