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ESA 3 - Recap > Infection and Immunity > Flashcards

Infection and Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Give the 5 types of Phagocytes

A
  1. Mast cells
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Monocytes
  4. Macrophages
  5. Dendritic Cells
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2
Q

Give another term for WBC

A

Leukocyte

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of lymphocytes?

A
  1. B cells
  2. T Cells
  3. NK Cells
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4
Q

Give the 5 types of T Cells

A
  1. NK T cells
  2. Memory T cells
  3. T Helper Cells = CD4+
  4. Cytotoxic T Cells = CD8+
  5. Regulatory T cells
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5
Q

Give the 3 types of granulocytes

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
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6
Q

Give the names of macrophages found in:

a) Bone marrow / blood
b) Bone
c) CNS
d) Skin and mucosa
e) Liver
f) Granulomas

A

a) Monocyte
b) Osteoclasts
c) Microglia
d) Langerhan cells
e) Kupffer cells
f) Epithelioid cells

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7
Q

Give the 3 types of antibiotics that act on protein synthesis

A

1) Tetracyclines
2) Aminoglycosides
3) Macrolides

TAMPons

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8
Q

Give the two types of antibiotics that act on cell wall synthesis

A

1) Beta lactams
2) Glycopeptides

BCG

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9
Q

Give the type of antibiotic that acts on cell membrane function

A

Polymixins

Child Pornography

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10
Q

Give the type of antibiotics that affects nucleic acid synthesis

A

Quinolones

NewQuay

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11
Q

What type of antibiotic is carbapenem? What is it used for? Give an example carbapenem.

A

beta lactam

broad spectrum gram negative

meropenem

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12
Q

Give an example aminoglycoside. What is it used for?

A

Gentamicin

Gram negative

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13
Q

Give example of quinolone and use

A

Ciproflaxacin

Gram negative

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14
Q

Give example macrolide and use

A

Erythromycin

Gram positive

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15
Q

How would you treat UTI? How would you treat MRSA UTI?

A

Trimethoprim

MRSA - Trimethopim + sulphonamide

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16
Q

What are the two categories of antifungals?

A

Azole and polyenes

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17
Q

How do you treat Herpes Simplex

A

Aciclovir

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18
Q

How do MOs Trigger inflammatory cascade?

A
  1. Pathogen releases toxins
  2. Toxins bind to macrophages. Macrophages stimulate cytokines.
  3. Cytokines stimulate growth factor, macrophages and platelets with aim of inducing homeostasis.
  4. If homeostasis not restored –> SIRS
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19
Q

What drug is used to treat Staph Aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin

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20
Q

How would you treat malaria?

A

Quinine for p falciparum species

Chloroquine for every other species

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21
Q

What pathogen causes enteric fever?

A

Salmonella enterica

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22
Q

How would you treat enteric fever?

A

Ceftriaxone for 1-2 weeks

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23
Q

What are the characteristics of brucellosis? How would you treat it?

A

Gram negative coccobacillus

Treat with doxycycline and rifampicin

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24
Q

What is the incubation period for malaria and what is its presenting complaints?

A

Incubation period 2 weeks

Fever that cycles every 3 or 4 days

Fatigue, malaise, arthralgia and myalgia, headache

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25
Q

What are the 4 types of antibodies B cells can produce and what is each useful for?

A
  1. IgG4 - opsonisation
  2. IgA - Mucosal Protection
  3. IgG and IgE - Antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity
  4. IgE - Allergens
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26
Q

Characteristics of Hep B virus?

A

Circular

Double stranded DNA

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27
Q

Characteristics of HIV?

A

ss+ RNA, linear

Spherical

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28
Q

What bacteria causes endocarditis in prosthetic valves

A

Coagulase negative staph aureus

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29
Q

What bacteria cause endocarditis in native and prosthetic valves >1 yr post op?

A

HACEK group

Staph aureus

Viridans streptococci

30
Q

What type of Antibiotic is vancomycin? What is it used for?

A

Glycopeptide

MRSA

31
Q

Difference between Gram negative and gram positive bacteria?

A

Gram negative has outer layer of LPS surrounding peptidoglycan layer.

32
Q

What are the following complement proteins involved in:

a) C3a and C5a
b) C3b and C5b
c) C5-9

A

a) opsonisation
b) Recruiting phagocytes
c) Membrane attack complex

33
Q

Give 2 examples of yeast, mould, protozoa, and helminths

A

Yeast - candida albicans, cryptococcus neoformans

Mould - aspergillus, dermatophytes

Protozoa - Trypanosoma cruzi, cryptosporidium parvum

Helminth - Tape worm, roundworms

34
Q

Name the 4 categories of beta lactams

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, Carbapenems, monobactams

35
Q

Give an example cepahlosporin

A

ceftriaxone

36
Q

Give an example carbapenem

A

Meropenem

37
Q

Give 3 examples of penicillin

A

penicllin

amoxicillin

flucloxacillin

38
Q

Give an example glycopeptide

A

vancomycin

39
Q

Give an example aminoglycoside

A

gentamicin

40
Q

Give example quinolone

A

ciprofloxacin

41
Q

Give an example macrolide

A

erythromycin

42
Q

Give 3 examples of opsonins

A

C3b, CRP, IgG

43
Q

What 2 pathways can activate the complement system?

A

MBL pathway

Alternative

44
Q

Give the features of the norovirus

A

ssRNA

non enveloped

45
Q

What is the mechanism of infection of HIV?

A
  1. Enters blood and contents enters via CCR5 receptor
  2. Reverse transcriptase converts ssRNA to DNA
  3. Integrase combines virus DNA with cell DNA
  4. When infected cell divides, viral proteins made and form a virus
  5. VIrus buds out of cell membrane
46
Q

How is HIV treated?

A

HAART therapy

Fusion inhibitor, 2 reverse transcriptase inhibitors, DNA integrase inhibitor

47
Q

How is HIV investigated?

A

ELISA with western blotting

48
Q

Symptoms of Hep B infection?

A

Nausea, vomiting, fever, jaundice

49
Q

Presenting complaint of enteric fever?

A

fever, headache, dry cough, hepatosplenomegaly

50
Q

What clinical symptoms would there be in malarial patient?

A

splenomegaly

Metabolic acidosis

Pulmonary oedema

51
Q

How do APCs capture a pathogen?

A

phagocytosis and pinocytosis

52
Q

How do CD4 cells deal with intracellular microbes?

A

Turns on B cells when activated.

B cells –> antibodies –> opsonise cells –> phagocytosis by macrophages

53
Q

How do CD4 cells deal with extracellular microbes?

A

Activate eosinophils

Activate B cells –> antibodies

Activate mast cells –> inflammation

54
Q

What features are associated with acute sepsis?

A

Pale cool extremities

high temp above 39.5

High resp rate >20/min

Widespread purpuric rash

55
Q

WHat is SIRS comprised of?

A

2 or more of the following:

Temp - >38 deg

HR - >90

Resp rate - >20/min

4) WBC - >12x10-9 or

56
Q

What is SIRS, sepsis, severe sepsis, and shock?

A

SIRS = 2 or more of the aforementioned

Sepsis = SIRS + confirmed infection

Severe sepsis = sepsis + organ hypoperfusion

Shock = severe sepsis + low BP despite IV infusions

57
Q

How would you diagnose an allergy?

A

History

Blood tests - serum allergic specific IgE

Skin prick tests with allergens

58
Q

Define an endemic disesae

A

background rate of infeciton

59
Q

Define an epidemic

A

rate greater than backgroundrate of infection

60
Q

Define MDR

A

resistance to at least 1 type of drug in 3 or more categories

61
Q

define XDR

A

resistance to at least 1 drug in all but 2 or less categories

62
Q

What 3 persuasive methods can you use to prevent antibiotic resistance?

A

Audits, reminders, education

63
Q

How can chronic diseases be acquired?

A

VITAMINNDEI

Vascular

Infectin

Trauma

Autoimmune

Metabolic

Idiopathic

Neuroplastic

Neurological

Degenerative

Environmental

Inflammatory

64
Q

What organisms infect CF patients?

A

H influenzae, staph aureus, ps aeruginosa, atypical mycobacteria

65
Q

What ENT infections are DM patients susceptible to? name the offending MO

A

Rhinocerebral mucormycosis - mould fungi, colonises paranasal sinuses

Nectrosising otitis externa - ps aeruginosa, colonises pinna of ear

66
Q

What form does infectious disease take in immunocompromised hosts?

A

SPUR

Severe

Persistent

Unusual

Recurrent

67
Q

How do you manage primary immunodeficiency?

A

Prophylaxis

Immunoglobin replacement therapy

Manage resp function

Avoid radiation

68
Q

How do you manage phagocyte dificiencies?

A

Antifungals, prophylaxs, stem cell transplantations

69
Q

What disorder occurs from the lack of a thymus? Name the associated abnormalities

A

Digeorge syndrome - CATCH22

Cardiac abnormalities

Abnormal facies

Thymic hypoplasia

Cleft palate

Hypercalcaemia

chromosome 22 abnormality

70
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A

Remove immune complexes

Remove opsonised bacteria

Antibody production IgM and IgG

ESA 3 - Recap (6 decks)

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