Induction Agents Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are uses of Propofol (Diprivan)?

a.) IV induction of anesthesia
b.) Oral sedation
c.) IV sedation
d.) TIVA (Total Intravenous Anesthesia)
e.) Pain management

A

11

a.) IV induction of anesthesia
c.) IV sedation
d.) TIVA (Total Intravenous Anesthesia)

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2
Q

What is the standard preparation of Propofol?

A) 10 mg/cc (20cc vial standard), 1% lipid solution
B) 20 mg/cc (10cc vial standard), 2% lipid solution
C) 10 mg/cc (30cc vial standard), 1% lipid solution
D) 5 mg/cc (20cc vial standard), 0.5% lipid solution

A

11

A) 10 mg/cc (20cc vial standard), 1% lipid solution

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3
Q

What is the correct INDUCTION dose of Propofol?

a.) 5 mg/kg IV
b.) 3 mg/kg IV
c.) 1 mg/kg IV
d.) 2 mg/kg IV

A

11

d.) 2 mg/kg IV

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4
Q

What is the correct SEDATION dose of Propofol?

a.) 10 - 50 mcg/kg/min
b.) 25 - 100 mcg/kg/min
c.) 50 - 150 mcg/kg/min
d.) 100 - 225 mcg/kh/min

A

11

b.) 25 - 100 mcg/kg/min

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5
Q

What is the correct TIVA doseage for Propofol?

a.) 25 - 225 mcg/kg/min
b.) 50 - 250 mcg/kg/min
c.) 75 - 275 mcg/kg/min
d.) 100 - 300 mcg/kg/min

A

11

d.) 100 - 300 mcg/kg/min

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6
Q

Which of the following statements about Propofol is correct?

A) It is a controlled substance.
B) It causes pain with IV pushes, which can be mitigated by 1-2% Lidocaine pretreatment.
C) It has a half-life of 2-4 hours.
D) It is poorly titratable.

A

11

B) It causes pain with IV pushes, which can be mitigated by 1-2% Lidocaine pretreatment.

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7
Q

Which statements are true regarding the kinetics of Propofol?

a.) Patient is unconscious in 30 seconds.
b.) Elimination half-life = 0.5 to 1.5 hours.
c.) Protein Binding = 98%.
d.) Context Sensitive Half-Time is less than 40 minutes.
e.) Accumulates significantly with long therapy

A

11

all the above

a.) Patient is unconscious in 30 seconds.
b.) Elimination half-life = 0.5 to 1.5 hours.
c.) Protein Binding = 98%.
d.) Context Sensitive Half-Time is less than 40 minutes.
e.) Accumulates significantly with long therapy

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8
Q

Which of the following are effects of Propofol (Diprivan)?

a.) Acts as a bronchodilator
b.) Increases heart rate
c.) Suppresses the SNS (Sympathetic Nervous System) response to laryngoscopy
d.) Enhances gag reflex
e.) Has anti-nausea properties

A

12

a.) Acts as a bronchodilator
c.) Suppresses the SNS (Sympathetic Nervous System) response to laryngoscopy
e.) Has anti-nausea properties

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9
Q

What is Propofol (Diprivan) particularly effective at doing during laryngoscopy?

A) Enhancing the gag reflex
B) Blunting the laryngeal reflex
C) Increasing sympathetic nervous system response
D) Increasing heart rate

A

12

B) Blunting the laryngeal reflex

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10
Q

Which of the following are rare problems associated with long-term, high-dose Propofol infusions in critically ill adults with head injuries?

a.) Lipidemia
b.) Hepatic encephalopathy
c.) Fatty infiltrates of the liver
d.) Enlarged liver
e.) Metabolic acidosis
f.) Rhabdomyolysis
g.) Myoglobinemia

A

13

a.) Lipidemia
c.) Fatty infiltrates of the liver
d.) Enlarged liver
e.) Metabolic acidosis
f.) Rhabdomyolysis

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11
Q

Which of the following statements about Propofol’s anti-nausea properties are true?

a.) Propofol has anti-nausea properties
b.) It can be used as a rescue in low doses
c.) It is ineffective for nausea control
d.) It should be avoided in patients with a history of motion sickness

A

12

a.) Propofol has anti-nausea properties
b.) It can be used as a rescue in low doses

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12
Q

What is Propofol Infusion Syndrome characterized by?

A) Sudden onset of bradycardia that progresses to asystole and is resistant to treatment
B) Progressive hypotension responsive to vasopressors
C) Sudden onset of tachycardia with chest pain
D) Severe respiratory depression requiring intubation

A

13

A) Sudden onset of bradycardia that progresses to asystole and is resistant to treatment

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13
Q

Which of the following complications are associated with Propofol Infusion Syndrome?

a.) Bradycardia
b.) Asystole
c.) Hypoglycemia
d.) Hypotension
e.) Resistance to treatment

A

13

a.) Bradycardia
b.) Asystole
e.) Resistance to treatment

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14
Q

Which of the following statements about Etomidate’s mechanism of action are true?

a.) Etomidate is a GABA modulator.
b.) It mimics GABA directly.
c.) It requires the presence of GABA to function.
d.) It is structurally similar to midazolam.
e.) The drug becomes highly water-soluble in the body.

A

14

a.) Etomidate is a GABA modulator.
c.) It requires the presence of GABA to function.
d.) It is structurally similar to midazolam.

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15
Q

What is the standard adult dose of Etomidate for induction?

A) 0.1 mg/kg
B) 0.3 mg/kg
C) 1 mg/kg
D) 0.5 mg/kg

A

14

B) 0.3 mg/kg

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16
Q

In which of the following situations is Etomidate typically used?

a.) Cardiovascular instability
b.) Stable patients
c.) Trauma patients
d.) Elderly patients
e.) Routine sedation

A

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a.) Cardiovascular instability

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17
Q

What is a rare but significant problem associated with Etomidate?

A) Respiratory depression
B) Adrenocortical suppression
C) Liver toxicity
D) Kidney failure

A

14

B) Adrenocortical suppression

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18
Q

Which of the following are true about the adverse effects of Etomidate?

a.) Causes adrenocortical suppression
b.) Suppresses cortisol levels for 4-8 hours
c.) Has a high incidence of post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV)
d.) Completely safe for long-term use

A

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a.) Causes adrenocortical suppression
b.) Suppresses cortisol levels for 4-8 hours
c.) Has a high incidence of post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV)

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about Ketamine’s mechanism of action are true?

a.) Ketamine causes dissociative anesthesia.
b.) Ketamine is a potent hypnotic.
c.) It depresses neuronal function in the cortex and thalamus.
d.) Stimulates the limbic system.
e.) Activates opioid receptors and subcortical neurons in the spinal tract.

A

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a.) Ketamine causes dissociative anesthesia.
c.) It depresses neuronal function in the cortex and thalamus.
d.) Stimulates the limbic system.
e.) Activates opioid receptors and subcortical neurons in the spinal tract.

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20
Q

What is the most common preparation of Ketamine?

A) 1% (10 mg/ml)
B) 5% (50 mg/ml)
C) 10% (100 mg/ml)
D) 0.5% (5 mg/ml)

A

15

B) 5% (50 mg/ml)

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21
Q

Which of the following are uses for Ketamine?

a.) Dissociative Anesthesia
b.) Pain relief
c.) To increase anesthetic doses
d.) Chronic pain management
e.) Decrease narcotic use

A

15

a.) Dissociative Anesthesia
b.) Pain relief
d.) Chronic pain management
e.) Decrease narcotic use

22
Q

Which of the following are true about Ketamine’s kinetics and contraindications?

a.) Metabolizes 20-30% into nor-ketamine.
b.) High clearance and low protein binding.
c.) Elimination half-time of 2 hours.
d.) Contraindicated with MAOIs.
e.) Tolerance to Ketamine can lead to tachyphylaxis.

A

15

All the Above

22
Q

What is the adult induction dose of Ketamine for IV administration?

A) 0.5 mg/kg IV
B) 1.5 mg/kg IV
C) 2 mg/kg IV
D) 0.3 mg/kg IV

A

15

B) 1.5 mg/kg IV

23
Q

Question: Which of the following physiological effects are caused by Ketamine?

a.) Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
b.) Decreased heart rate (HR)
c.) Increased cardiac output (CO)
d.) Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption (MVO2)
e.) Increased salivary secretions

A

16

a.) Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
c.) Increased cardiac output (CO)
e.) Increased salivary secretions

24
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement about Ketamine’s effect on the airway?

A) It provides complete airway protection.
B) It depresses the airway reflexes significantly.
C) Pharyngeal and laryngeal reflexes remain intact, but it does not protect the airway.
D) It causes complete airway relaxation.

A

16

C) Pharyngeal and laryngeal reflexes remain intact, but it does not protect the airway.

25
Q

What are the potential problems associated with Ketamine use?

a.) Hallucinations
b.) Respiratory depression
c.) Increased bronchoconstriction
d.) Delirium after dissociation wears off
e.) Excessive bleeding

A

16

a.) Hallucinations
d.) Delirium after dissociation wears off

26
Q

Which of the following can be used to manage hallucinations caused by Ketamine?

A) Antihistamines
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Antipsychotics
D) Opioids

A

16

B) Benzodiazepines

27
Q

Which of the following effects of Ketamine are true regarding its role in treating bronchospasm?

a.) It acts as an intense bronchodilator.
b.) It is ineffective in bronchospasm.
c.) It can treat status asthmaticus.
d.) It increases bronchoconstriction.
e.) It should be avoided in asthmatic patients.

A

16

a.) It acts as an intense bronchodilator.
c.) It can treat status asthmaticus.

28
Q

Which of the following are effects of Dexmedetomidine (DMD) on different α2 receptor classes?

A.) α2A: Sedation, Hypnosis, Sympatholysis
B.) α2B: Vasodilation, Anti-shivering, Analgesia
C.) α2B: Vasoconstriction, Anti-shivering, Analgesia
D.) α2C: Learning, Startle response
E.) α2C: Sedation, Hypnosis, Sympatholysis

A

17

A.) α2A: Sedation, Hypnosis, Sympatholysis
C.) α2B: Vasoconstriction, Anti-shivering, Analgesia
D.) α2C: Learning, Startle response

29
Q

What is the typical loading dose of Dexmedetomidine for sedation?

A) 0.1 mcg/kg over 10 minutes
B) 1 mcg/kg over 10 minutes
C) 0.5 mcg/kg over 5 minutes
D) 2 mcg/kg over 20 minutes

A

17

B) 1 mcg/kg over 10 minutes

30
Q

Which of the following uses are appropriate for Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)?

a.) ICU Sedation
b.) Cardiovascular surgery
c.) TIVA (Total Intravenous Anesthesia)
d.) Routine analgesia in minor surgeries
e.) Management of chronic pain

A

17

a.) ICU Sedation
b.) Cardiovascular surgery
c.) TIVA (Total Intravenous Anesthesia)

31
Q

What might happen if the loading dose of Dexmedetomidine is administered too quickly?

A) Severe bradycardia
B) Respiratory depression
C) Transient hypertension
D) Tachycardia

A

17

C) Transient hypertension

32
Q

How is Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) typically prepared for administration?

a.) Supplied in 2 cc vials (100 mcg/cc)
b.) Mix with 50 cc of normal saline to obtain a concentration of 4 mcg/cc
c.) Supplied in 10 cc vials (50 mcg/cc)
d.)Mix with 100 cc of normal saline to obtain a concentration of 1 mcg/cc

A

17

a.) Supplied in 2 cc vials (100 mcg/cc)
b.) Mix with 50 cc of normal saline to obtain a concentration of 4 mcg/cc

33
Q

What is the typically infusion rate of dexmedetomidine?

a.) 0.5 - 1.0 mcg/kg/hr
b.) 0.4 - 0.9 mcg/kg/hr
c.) 0.3 - 0.8 mcg/kg/hr
d.) 0.2 - 0.7 mcg/kg/hr

A

17

d.) 0.2 - 0.7 mcg/kg/hr

34
Q

Which of the following are true about the respiratory effects of Dexmedetomidine?

a.) Minimal respiratory depressant effects compared to other induction drugs
b.) Causes significant respiratory depression
c.) Acts as an anti-salivary agent (Anti-salogog)
d.) Completely protects the airway in all patients
e.) Requires caution in patients with sleep apnea

A

18

a.) Minimal respiratory depressant effects compared to other induction drugs
c.) Acts as an anti-salivary agent (Anti-salogog)
e.) Requires caution in patients with sleep apnea

35
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding Dexmedetomidine’s effect on thermoregulation?

A) It narrows the range of thermoregulation.
B) It has no effect on thermoregulation.
C) It widens the range of thermoregulation and acts as an anti-shivering agent.
D) It causes hypothermia in most patients.

A

18

C) It widens the range of thermoregulation and acts as an anti-shivering agent

36
Q

Which of the following are benefits of using Dexmedetomidine in specific patient populations?

a.) Decreases muscle rigidity seen with high doses of opioids
b.) Effective in managing drug withdrawal in addicts and alcoholics
c.) Ideal for treating all chronic pain conditions
d.) Prevents fatal outcomes during alcoholic withdrawal under anesthesia

A

18

a.) Decreases muscle rigidity seen with high doses of opioids
b.) Effective in managing drug withdrawal in addicts and alcoholics
d.) Prevents fatal outcomes during alcoholic withdrawal under anesthesia

37
Q

Which of the following best describes the impact of Dexmedetomidine on ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) levels?

A) Causes significant hypoxemia
B) Causes hypercapnia
C) No significant change in ABG levels
D) Causes metabolic acidosis

A

18

C) No significant change in ABG levels

38
Q

What are some additional effects of Dexmedetomidine mentioned in the notes?

a.) Widens thermoregulation and has anti-shivering effects
b.) Increases muscle rigidity seen with high opioids
c.) Helps offset withdrawal symptoms in drug addicts and alcoholics
d.) May exacerbate chronic pain in tolerant patients
e.) Provides profound muscle relaxation

A

18

a.) Widens thermoregulation and has anti-shivering effects
c.) Helps offset withdrawal symptoms in drug addicts and alcoholics

39
Q

Which patient population is particularly cautioned when using Dexmedetomidine due to airway considerations?

A) Patients with asthma
B) Obese patients with sleep apnea
C) Patients with COPD
D) Patients with chronic bronchitis

A

18

B) Obese patients with sleep apnea

40
Q

Which of the following benefits does Dexmedetomidine offer for managing anesthesia in certain populations?

a.) Reduces the risk of fatal withdrawal in alcoholic patients under anesthesia
b.) Provides deep sedation in chronic pain patients
c.) Decreases the need for other anesthetic agents in drug-tolerant patients
d.) Causes severe respiratory depression, making it unsuitable for outpatient procedures

A

18

a.) Reduces the risk of fatal withdrawal in alcoholic patients under anesthesia
c.) Decreases the need for other anesthetic agents in drug-tolerant patients

41
Q

Which of the following are true regarding the preparation and dosing of Methohexital (Brevital)?

a.) Available in 1% (10 mg/cc) and 2% (20 mg/cc) solutions
b.) Usually supplied in a 50cc vial of 2% solution
c.) Adult dose is 1.5 mg/kg
d.) Distribution time is 5.6 minutes
e.) Clearance is 11 ml/kg/min

A

19

a.) Available in 1% (10 mg/cc) and 2% (20 mg/cc) solutions
c.) Adult dose is 1.5 mg/kg
d.) Distribution time is 5.6 minutes
e.) Clearance is 11 ml/kg/min

42
Q

What is the elimination half-life of Methohexital (Brevital)?

A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 6 hours

A

C) 4 hours

#19

43
Q

Which of the following are potential side effects of Methohexital (Brevital)?

a.) Myoclonus
b.) Hiccoughs
c.) Seizure activity at low doses (epileptogenic)
d.) Respiratory depression
e.) Hypertension

A

19

a.) Myoclonus
b.) Hiccoughs
c.) Seizure activity at low doses (epileptogenic)

44
Q

In addition to its use as an induction agent, Methohexital (Brevital) is also used for what purpose?

A) Treating hypertension
B) Treating seizures at high doses
C) Managing chronic pain
D) Inducing muscle relaxation

A

19

B) Treating seizures at high doses

45
Q

Which of the following considerations are important when using Methohexital (Brevital)?

a.) It can cause airway irritability.
b.) It is used to induce deep sedation.
c.) It should be avoided in patients with a history of seizures.
d.) It has a rapid distribution time of 5.6 minutes.

A

19

a.) It can cause airway irritability
d.) It has a rapid distribution time of 5.6 minutes.

46
Q

Which of the following are uses for Methohexital (Brevital)?

a.) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
b.) Cardioversion
c.) Deep sedation for long procedures
d.) Mapping seizure focus
e.) General anesthesia maintenance

A

20

a.) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
b.) Cardioversion
d.) Mapping seizure focus

47
Q

Why is Methohexital preferred in Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

A) It enhances seizure activity.
B) It depresses seizure activity.
C) It does not depress the seizure.
D) It provides deep muscle relaxation.

A

20

C) It does not depress the seizure.

48
Q

Which characteristics of Methohexital make it suitable for “rapid, non-painful procedures”?

a.) Rapid onset of action
b.) Long duration of action
c.) Minimal respiratory depression
d.) Ability to induce muscle relaxation
e.) It allows quick recovery

A

20

a.) Rapid onset of action
e.) It allows quick recovery

49
Q

In what context might Methohexital be used during cardioversion?

A) To induce muscle paralysis
B) To manage chronic pain
C) To provide light sedation while preserving cardiovascular stability
D) To increase blood pressure

A

20

C) To provide light sedation while preserving cardiovascular stability

50
Q
A