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Wolff Pharmacology Review > Incontinence and Male GU > Flashcards

Incontinence and Male GU Flashcards

1
Q

a CYP17 inhibitor that selectively blocks androgen synthesis while increasing mineralocorticoid synthesis and decreasing glucocorticoid synthesis; unlike GnRH agonists/antagonists, it also suppresses adrenal synthesis of androgen

A

abiraterenone

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2
Q

neurotransmitter of the pelvic nerve that promotes bladder contraction

A

ACH

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3
Q

reduces sexual inhibitions but a frequent cause of male sexual dysfunction

A

alcohol

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4
Q

PGE1 formulation that can be injected into the corpus cavernosum or administered as a transurethral pellet to cause an erection

A

alprostadil

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5
Q

cell layer present in normal prostate glands that is absent in prostate cancer

A

basal

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6
Q

administered to augment the immune response against urothelial cancers to hopefully decrease the rate of recurrence

A

BCG

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7
Q

deformity in which the testes lies horizontally, carries an increased risk for testicular torsion

A

bell-clapper

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8
Q

antiandrogen that has become the drug of choice due to once daily dosing

A

bicalutamide

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9
Q

cigarette smoking, arylamine exposure and shistosome haematobrium are among the risk factors for this

A

bladder carcinoma

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10
Q

refers to androgen-sensitive periurethral nodules of prostrate stromal and epithelial cells that compress the urethra and can project into the bladder

A

BPH

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11
Q

aggressive testicular cancer, often causes no testicular enlargement; characterized by big multinucleated syncytiotrophoblasts and polygonal cytotrophoblasts with clear cytoplasm and one nucleolus, and hCG as a marker

A

choriocarcinoma

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12
Q

confers protection against penile squamous cell carcinoma, which is rare in US but has 10-20% incidence elsewhere (associated with HPV type 16 & 18)

A

circumcision

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13
Q

important complexer of calcium in the urine, low levels increase the risk of calcium stone formation; fruit juices are among the remedies

A

citrate

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14
Q

this of tamsulosin and dutasteride works better than either agent alone for treatment of BPH

A

combination

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15
Q

genital warts caused by HPV

A

condyloma acuminatum

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16
Q

failure of the testes to descend, has incidence of ~1% at 1 yr; carries increase risk of germ cell tumors

A

cryptorchidism

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17
Q

inflammation of the bladder, common in women of reproductive age

A

cystitis

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18
Q

GnRH antagonist, potentially the preferred choice for initial androgen ablation therapy since cost is comparable to GnRH agonists and it is able to suppress LH/FSH release without an initial surge

A

degarelix

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19
Q

abbr. for active form of testosterone in prostate, generated by 5-alpha-reductase

A

DHT

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20
Q

can be a consequence of BPH, this pouch-like evagination through the muscularis mucosa of the bladder is a site of urinary stasis and therefore prone to infection

A

diverticula

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21
Q

cytotoxic anticancer drug used to treat castration-resistant prostate cancer, inhibits mitosis

A

docetaxel

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22
Q

testicular carcinoma characterized by poorly demarcated cells arranged in alveolar/tubular patterns or sheets punctuated by foci with hemorrhage or necrosis

A

embryonal

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23
Q

uncommon malformation in which the urethra opens on the upper aspect of the penis, seen in association with bladder extrophy when the anterior abdominal wall fails to develop properly

A

epispadias

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24
Q

occurs in ~10 min when papaverine and phentolamine are self-injected into the corpus cavernosum

A

erection

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25
Q

unusual drug used as palliative therapy for advanced prostate cancer, it is comprised of estradiol and nitrogen mustard and concentrates in the prostate where it disrupts mitosis

A

estramustine

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26
Q

5-alpha-reductase inhibitor, suppression of DHT production treats BPH by causing regression f the prostate epithelial tissue that is compressing the urethra; side effects include gynecomastia

A

finasteride

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27
Q

increasing intake of this is the most important preventative measure against kidney stone formation for most people

A

fluids

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28
Q

antiandrogen used to block initial flare when GnRH agonists are administered to patients with advanced prostate cancer, also combined with GnRH antagonist to produce a “complete” androgen blockage when patients have failed to respond to GnRH agonist alone

A

flutamide

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29
Q

responsible for the vast majority of malignant testicular tumors

A

germcell

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30
Q

grading system used in prostate cancer, the sum of the two most common glandular patterns observed

A

gleason

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31
Q

loss of this, typically unilaterally, has been associated with PDE5 inhibitor use; the permanence of this loss is unclear

A

hearing

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32
Q

presumed precursor of prostate carcinoma, has normal architecture with patchy basal layer and cytological atypical secretory cells (i.e., have large nuclei with prominent nucleoli)

A

HGPIN

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33
Q

among the causes of hypercalciuria

A

hyperparathyroidism

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34
Q

population among elderly men who might derive additional benefit from use of a drug such as terazosin to treat BPH

A

hypertensives

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35
Q

among causes of this is chemotherapeutic treatment of malignancies

A

hyperuricosuria

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36
Q

high grade papillary urothelial carcinoma and carcinoma in situ are most likely to do this the bladder

A

invade

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37
Q

provides information on kidney stone size and location, if it is radiolucent or radiopaque, and information on calculus movement over time

A

KUB

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38
Q

GnRH agonist administered to desensitize the pituitary gland so that it does not secrete LH and FSH to stimulate testicular androgen production in patients with advanced prostate carcinoma; after an initial flare due to prostate stimulation it causes chemical castration

A

leuprolide

39
Q

cells in testis stimulated by LH and FSH to secrete testosterone

A

leydig

40
Q

rare testicular tumor, forms a circumscribed golden brown nodule that elaborates androgens and other steroid hormones; cells are large with eosinophiic cytoplasm and may contain Reinke crystals

A

leydig cell tumor

41
Q

if a characteristic of prostate cancer, surgery and radiation are treatment options

A

localized

42
Q

yellow lesions found in bladder of typically immunocompromised patients with a chronic infection, associated with macrophage accumulation and characteristic Michaelis-Gutmann bodies seen on H&E stained sections

A

malakoplakia

43
Q

form of prostate cancer for which hormone deprivation therapy and chemotherapy are the only treatment options

A

metastatic

44
Q

on the market since 2012, this beta3 agonist treats urge urinary incontinence by promoting relaxation of the detrusor muscle

A

mirabegron

45
Q

characteristic of many urothelial bladder tumors at presentation

A

multifocal

46
Q

refers to a rare but irreversible impairment of vision associated with the use of PDE5 inhibitors

A

NAION

47
Q

neurotransmitter of hypogastric nerve that promotes bladder storage

A

NE

48
Q

use of PDE5 inhibitors is absolutely contraindicate in patients treating angina with these drugs

A

nitrates

49
Q

characteristic of prostate cancer disseminated to bone

A

osteoblastic

50
Q

normally poorly absorbed from intestine, but absorption is markedly increased by inflammatory bowel disease and can contribute to stone formation unless chelated in the bowel by calcium or magnesium supplements

A

oxalate

51
Q

an M3 selective antagonist, it is among the drugs in this class used to treat urge incontinence by blocking parasympathetic stimulation of the detrusor muscle

A

oxybutynin

52
Q

perhaps the only symptom of urothelial carcinoma

A

painless hematuria

53
Q

pathognomonic of prostate cancer

A

perineural invasion

54
Q

DRE-palpable region of prostate that is site of majority of prostate cancer

A

peripheral

55
Q

an erection lasting longer than 6 hrs, this is painful and can permanently damage the penis

A

priapism

56
Q

normally a walnut-sized gland through which the urethra passes, composed of 70% glandular epithelial cells and 30% fibromuscular stromal cells

A

prostate

57
Q

gritty/firm tan mass containing prostate glands lined with a single layer of epithelium

A

prostate adenocarcinoma

58
Q

most common non-skin cancer in men, risk of developing is high during lifetime, but risk of dying from it is relatively low

A

prostate cancer

59
Q

generally a result of poor bladder emptying or high pressure voiding due to BPH

A

prostatitis

60
Q

promotes semen liquefaction, widely used to screen for prostate cancer but role is controversial

A

PSA

61
Q

alpha adrenergic agonist that is a common OTC decongestant, it can increase urinary sphincter tone to decrease stress incontinence

A

pseudoephedrine

62
Q

somatic nervous system nerve that contracts the external urinary sphincter

A

pudendal

63
Q

extension of this from slightly above the iliac crest to the ipsilateral testis indicates the kidney stone is in the ureter

A

referred pain

64
Q

rod-shaped structures found in leydig cells/tumors

A

Reinke crystals

65
Q

probably more likely to be discovered now as an incidental finding on a radiograph than by the classic triad of flank pain, hematuria, and flank mass

A

renal mass

66
Q

consequence of alpha-1a blockade in prostate

A

retrograde ejaculation

67
Q

lymph nodes that are a common site of spread for testicular neoplasms

A

retroperitoneal

68
Q

herbal remedy widely used to treat BPH, evidence of benefit is lacking

A

saw palmetto

69
Q

contribute ~70% of ejaculate

A

seminal vesicles

70
Q

most common germ cell tumor, presents as a painless testicular mass; cells are large and round/polyhedral with a distinct membrane, water-appearing cytoplasm, and a central nucleus with 1-2 prominent nucleoli, arranged in sheets with fibrous septations and lymphocyte infiltrates

A

seminoma

71
Q

the nurse cells in the testes that support sperm production

A

sertoli

72
Q

usually a hormonally silent benign testicular mass

A

sertoli cell tumor

73
Q

phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor, it provides for a harder and longer-lasting erection by potentiating the effects of cGMP generated by sexual arousal

A

sildenafil

74
Q

a very expensive customized therapy used to prolong the life of patients with hormone-refractory prostate cancer; macrophages are harvested and treated to express a prostate cell protein in their MHC surface molecule prior to readministration to patient to no trigger T-cell mediated killing of prostate cells

A

sipuleucelt

75
Q

can occur in bladder due to injury/irritation

A

squamous metaplasia

76
Q

class of drugs well-known for its adverse effects on sexual performance

A

SSRI

77
Q

urinary incontinence due to inadequate containment by the urinary sphincter such that coughing, laughing, lifting heavy objects, etc. causes urine leakage; most common form of incontinence in women

A

stress

78
Q

decreased when a urothelial bladder tumor has invaded into the muscularis propria

A

survival

79
Q

alpha-1a subtype selective blocker that treats BPH by blocking constrictor tone of the fibromuscular portion of the prostate gland that could be impeding flow; doesn’t shrink prostate size; also used facilitate passage of kidney stones

A

tamsulosin

80
Q

testicular tumor composed of a heterogeneous mix of differentiated cells including glands, cartilage, hair, bone/teeth, smooth muscle and squamous mucosa

A

teratoma

81
Q

kept at a temperature 2-4 deg C cooler than core body temperature

A

testis

82
Q

refers to twisting of the spermatic cord, causes abrupt/severe scrotal pain; a surgical emergency

A

torsion

83
Q

zone of prostate that is site of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

transitional

84
Q

abbr. for gold standard surgical treatment of BPH, use is decreasing due to better pharmacologic treatment options

A

TURP

85
Q

intrinsic causes of its potentially very painful obstruction include calculi, stricture and tumors while extrinsic causes include pregnancy and endometriosis

A

ureter

86
Q

obstruction here is a congenital anomaly that is the most common cause of (typically unilateral) hydronephrosis in infants

A

ureteropelvic junction

87
Q

urinary incontinence associated with hyperactivity of the detrusor muscle, treated with muscarinic antagonist and/or a beta3 agonist

A

urgency

88
Q

kidney stones composed of this are more likely to form at low urine pH

A

uric acid

89
Q

4-6 cell layers thick, it rests on a well-developed basement membrane, has a surface layer of large flattened “umbrella” cells, and is a frequent site of neoplasia

A

urothelium

90
Q

site in addition to UPJ and crossing of iliac vessels where kidney stones are likely to become lodged

A

UVJ

91
Q

more than 1 of these increases the risk of stress incontinence in women

A

vaginal delivery

92
Q

common site of disseminated prostate cancer

A

vertebrae

93
Q

testicular tumor most common in infants and young children, may contain Schiller-Duvall bodies (have mesodermal core with central capillary and visceral/parietal layers suggestive of primitive glomeruli)

A

yolksac

Wolff Pharmacology Review (12 decks)

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