In-service NIS Flashcards

1
Q

What does “validity” mean according to the ACGME’s assessment toolbox

A

“how well assessment measures represent or predict a resident’s ability”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Regarding an institution’s pharmaceutical charge generated from intravenous contrast material used from a single use vial, what is the MOST appropriate billing practice?

A

Bill for the entire amount WITHIN the pharmaceutical container.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can a service or procedure which changes the definition of the code being modified use a billing modifier with the appropriate written documentation?

A

No. Modifiers, by definition, cannot alter the definition of the code to which it applies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the False Claims Act?

A

The false claims act addresses the filing of false claims.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Recent diagnoses occupy more prominence in a radiologist’s memory and thus tend to exert greater influence on diagnostic reasoning. What type of bias does this represent?

A

Availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a CPT code?

A

Current Procedural Terminology (CPT): Uniform language for coding and billing. A CPT code is a five-digit numeric code with no decimal marks, although some have four numbers and one letter. Codes are uniquely assigned to different actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

for certain marketing or fund- raising activities, what is required according to HIPAA?

A

written authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is a provider permitted to access the electronic medical record of a patient who was seen by another provider in the organization?

A

When the provider is treating that patient or assisting another provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a young or middle-aged patient (< 65 years of age) with a suspected rib fracture, the MOST
appropriate initial imaging test is:

A

CXR, rib series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The ACGME Diagnostic Residency Review Committee for Radiology requires a MINIMUM of how many hours of conferences and lectures for residents?

A

5/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the significance of CPT test codes?

A

Track use and acceptance of newer procedures and diagnoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ACGME requires that the maximum number of consecutive nights of in-house night float be:

A

7 ACGME Common Program Requirements states that residents must not be scheduled for more than six consecutive nights of night float.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME), incorporating considerations of cost awareness in patient care is part of which competency?

A

Systems-based practice According to the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME), incorporating considerations of cost awareness in patient care is part of systems-based practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A waiver of the requirement for documentation of informed consent may be granted under what circumstances?

A

If the study poses no more than minimal risk to subjects and involves no procedures for which written consent is normally required outside of the research context. The requirement to document informed consent can be waived if the study poses no more than minimal risk to subjects and involves no procedures for which written consent is normally required outside of the research context. The requirement may also be waived if the only record linking the subject and the research is the consent document and the principal risk is a breach of confidentiality. Identifying secure storage space for consent forms is an investigator’s responsibility. If a researcher anticipates that subjects might be embarrassed by questions, this concern should be addressed in the consent process. With regard to non-English speakers, if documentation is required, investigators must provide informed consent materials in the subjects’ language.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

This is when physicians collect or present conclusions in ways to confirm rather than refute their hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a receiver operator characteristic curve?

A

The receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve is a statistical relationship used frequently in radiology, particularly with regards to limits of detection and screening. The curves on the graph demonstrate the inherent trade-off between sensitivity and specificity: y-axis: sensitivity x-axis: 1-specificity (false positive rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is hindsight bias?

A

This represents overestimation or confidence in an answer or diagnosis, which can occur when the answer is already known.

18
Q

Concerning the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) toolbox for assessment of the General Competencies, which of the following terms describes how well assessment measures represent or predict a resident’s ability?

A

Validity According to the ACGME’s assessment toolbox, validity describes “how well assessment measures represent or predict a resident’s ability.”

19
Q

In a postmenopausal patient with vaginal bleeding, the MOST appropriate initial imaging test is:

A

ultrasound pelvis transabdominal and/or pelvis transvaginal.

20
Q

Concerning ethics, the American College of Radiology Code of Ethics states that:

A

members should at all times be aware of their limitations and be willing to seek
consultations in clinical situations where appropriate.

21
Q

Concerning the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) toolbox for
assessment of the General Competencies, simulations for the assessment of clinical performance
should:

A

permit examinees to make life-threatening errors without harming a real patient.

22
Q

a diagnostic mammogram should be performed under the direct supervision of a
physician qualified in mammography under _____.

A

MQSA

The American College of Radiology practice guideline for performance of screening and diagnostic
mammography states: “Diagnostic mammography is a radiographic examination performed to evaluate patients who have signs and/or symptoms of breast disease, imaging findings of concern or prior imaging findings requiring specific follow-up. Diagnostic mammography requires direct
supervision…A diagnostic mammogram should be performed under the direct supervision of a
physician qualified in mammography under MQSA.”

23
Q

According to the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME), use of
information technology to improve learning is part of which competency?

A

Practice based learning and improvement.

24
Q

The development CPT codes (Current Procedural Terminology) is the responsibility of what organization?

A

AMA Having a basic understanding of the submission and billing process is the responsibility of the physician of record. Knowing how and where the basic codes and process is key to minimize fraud. Understanding the parties responsible for the codes affecting reimbursement is key to empower radiologist to play an active and supportive role in this critical issue. These codes are generated by the American Medical Association (AMA) and if there are new desired codes these requests are submitted to the AMA and a specialize dedicated panel. The codes are adopted by the government.

25
Q

What does the area under the curve on a receiver operator characteristic curve represent?

A

Test accuracy.

Determining the area under the curve (AUC), allows one to compare different tests. The greater the area under the curve (up to the maximum 1.0), the more accurate the test is (both better sensitivity and specificity).

26
Q

What is framing bias?

A

This is when you can create opposing answers to the same problem depending on how the problem is posed.

27
Q

An American Board of Radiology (ABR) diplomate must report any state ABR action against a license to the board within how many days?

A

60 days

28
Q

Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence and justice are considered to be principles of which of
the following parameters of medical practice?

A

Medical ethics

29
Q

Per the ACR Practice Guidelines and Standards for Performing and Interpreting Diagnostic
Ultrasound, physicians performing and/or interpreting diagnostic ultrasound examinations:

A

Not board certified in radiology or not trained in diagnostic radiology residency program should
have completed ACGME approved residency program in specialty practice and completed 200 hours of Category I CME in subspecialty where similar ultrasound reading occurs.

30
Q

According to the ACR Practice Guideline for the Performance of Vertebroplasty, what is an absolute (i.e., NOT relative) contraindication for this procedure?

A

commonly tested answer: Asymptomatic vertebral body compression fractures

ACR-ASNR-ASSR-SIR-SNIS Practice Parameter For The Performance of Vertebral Augmentation indicates that absolute contraindications for vertebroplasty include:

  • septicemia,
  • active osteomyelitis of the target vertebra,
  • uncorrectable coagulopathy and allery to bone cement or opacification agent.
  • Asymptomatic vertebral body compression fractures
31
Q

In multiple choice questions what type of study typically delivers the highest radiation dose?

A

Some kind of PET-CT, if that choice is not available choose a CT exam

32
Q

According to the “ACR Practice Guideline for Communication of Diagnostic Imaging Findings,”
which is MOST important?

A

Timeliness.

The ACR Practice Parameter for Communication of Diagnostic
Imaging Findings states “Timely receipt of the report is more important than the method of delivery.”

33
Q

In setting up a new pediatric MRI service at your healthcare facility, your administrator asks
about the purchase of MR coils and crash cart supplies. According to the “ACR-SPR Practice Guideline for the Performance and Interpretation of Pediatric Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI),” which of the
following is the MOST appropriate course of action?

A

Purchase a variety of sizes.

A variety of sizes of coils is necessary to accommodate the needs of all pediatric patients.

The ACR Practice Parameter For Performing And Interpreting Magnetic Resonance
Imaging states “Appropriate emergency equipment and medications must be immediately available to treat adverse reactions associated with administered medications and should also be appropriate and comprehensive for the range of ages and sizes in the facility’s patient population. Inventory and drug expiration dates must be monitored on a regular basis “. Children vary in size. Therefore, a variety of sizes of coils is necessary to accommodate the needs of all pediatric patients.

34
Q

“Covered entities” include:

A
  • health care providers
  • health plans
  • health care clearinghouses
35
Q

A physician diagnosing suspected child abuse is often legally required to:

A

A physician diagnosing suspected child abuse is often legally required to:

notify local child protection authorities.

The interpreting radiologist may be required to do so, if not done by the attending physician/clinician.

36
Q

indications for skeletal surveys:

A

“Indications for skeletal surveys include, but are not limited to:

  • suspected physical abuse in infants and young children;
  • suspected skeletal dysplasias, syndromes, and metabolic disorders;
  • and suspected neoplasia and related disorders.”
37
Q

Services for which group of patients are paid under Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System?

A

Medicare

38
Q

According to the ACR Appropriateness Criteria, for a child with fever (without any
clinically apparent source) and neutropenia, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate first imaging procedure?

A

CXR

Within the context of the ACR Appropriateness Criteria (Registered
Trademark) for “Fever without Source – Child,” this scenario would fall under the category of
Variant 5: “Child with fever and neutropenia.” X-ray chest (A) received a rating of 6 (9=most
appropriate) whereas CT sinuses chest abdomen without contrast (B) received a rating of 3 and
CT sinuses chest abdomen without and with contrast (C) received a rating of 2.

39
Q

The Privacy Rule within the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
states that patient information may be released without specific written consent for
three purposes only. These include:

A
  1. Treatment
  2. Payment
  3. Healthcare operations
40
Q

What does the FIRST character of the ICD-10-PCS code represent?

A

Section Structure

41
Q

To properly code a study, what has the highest priority in determining the proper ICD-10 code?

A

New diagnoses resulting from exam

Utilizing the myriad of clinical information appropriately is critical in order to not
create fraudulent billing errors, either purposely or inadvertently. The priority one uses to code
for ICD-10 is critical to prevent “… investigations of fraud and abuse”. Any new definitive
diagnosis from a diagnostic exam takes precedence over the condition of the patient on initial
presentation.
Only last would preexisting diagnoses be used when appropriate and applicable.
Often the new definitive diagnoses would encompass presenting patient data.

42
Q

When is it permissible for an outside visiting physician to observe multiple patients and
examinations?

A

When consent has been obtained from each patient being observed