IMT Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

What is the time limit guideline for PCI in STEMI?

A

2 hours of ECG diagnosis (pre-hsopital) or 1 hour (hospital diagnosis)

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2
Q

What is the time limit for thrombolysis in STEMI?

A

12 hours

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3
Q

Which patients with NSTEMI may be considered for immediate PCI?

A

CV unstable

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4
Q

Patients with NSTEMI and high GRACE score should be considered for…

A

PCI within 72 hours

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5
Q

Give ECG findings which may suggest NSTEMI

A

TWI, ST depression, Q waves

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6
Q

Which coronary artery is usually implicated in anterolateral MI?

A

LCA

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7
Q

Which coronary artery is usually implicated in lateral MI?

A

Circumflex

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8
Q

Which coronary artery is usually implicated in anterior MI?

A

LAD

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9
Q

Which coronary artery is usually implicated in inferior MI?

A

RCA

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10
Q

How is fast AF treated?

A

Rate control (beta-blocker +/- amiodarone) and anticoagulation

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11
Q

How is stable SVT usually treated?

A

Adenosine 6mg IV, can give 12 - 18mg if unsuccessful, may require cardioversion

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12
Q

What is the treatment for stable VT?

A

Amiodarone 300mg

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13
Q

What are the mainstays of management for exacerbation of COPD?

A

Ipratropium
Salbutamol
Oxygen
Antibiotics (if infective)
Prednisolone

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14
Q

What are the main treatments for exacerbation of asthma?

A

Oxygen
Salbutamol
Hydrocortisone
Ipratropium
Theophylline
Magnesium
Anaesthetis

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15
Q

Which features suggest a severe asthma exacerbation?

A

Unable to complete sentences
Increased WOB
Peak flow < 50%
Sats < 92%
Raised ++ HR/RR for age

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16
Q

Which features suggest a life-threatening asthma exacerbation?

A

Peak flow < 33%
Exhaustion
Hypotension
Silent chest
Cyanosis
Confusion

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17
Q

Which sign on an ABG is concerning in acute asthma?

A

Rising pCO2

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18
Q

Which finding may be found on ABG in a patient with PE?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

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19
Q

How are patients with a stable PE treated?

A

anticoagulate with DOAC or LMWH

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20
Q

How are patients with an unstable PE treated?

A

continuous infusion unfractionated heparin +/- thrombolysis

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21
Q

What are the mainstays of DKA treatment?

A

Fluid resuscitation, insulin and electrolyte replacement (esp K)

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22
Q

Give examples of stroke mimics.

A

Hypoglycaemia
Seizures
FND
SOL
Electrolyte imbalance

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23
Q

What are the main treatment options for stroke caused by an infarct?

A

Thrombolysis and Thrombectomy

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24
Q

What scoring system can be used for stroke?

A

NIHSS

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25
Q

What is the usual timeframe for thrombolysis?

A

4.5h

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26
Q

What is the usual timeframe for thrombectomy?

A

Usually 6h but can be performed up to 24h

27
Q

Which protocol may need to be activated in UGIB?

A

Major Haemorrhage

28
Q

Which treatments may be considered for variceal bleeding?

A

Terlipressin
pAbx
Definitive - ligation, banding

29
Q

What is involved in the ‘sepsis six’?

A

Give 3 - antibiotics, fluids, oxygen
Take 3 - cultures, urine output, lactate

30
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylaxis?

A

IM adrenaline 500mcg (1ml 1 in 1000)

31
Q

Which ECG changes may suggest hyperkalaemia?

A

Tented T waves, prolonged PR interval, prolonged QRS

32
Q

What is the treatment for hyperkalaemia?

A

Calcium gluconate 10% 10mls to stabilise myocardium
Insulin/dextrose infusion
Sometimes nebulised salb recommended

33
Q

Give some common causes of delirium.

A

PINCHME
Pain
Infection
Nutrition
Constipation
Hydration
Medication
Environment

34
Q

What is meant by status epilepticus?

A

Seizure > 5 mins or not recovering between multiple seizures

35
Q

What initial treatments and doses could be given in status epilepticus?

A

10mg buccal midazolam or PR diazepam

36
Q

What is the most important part of your assessment in status epilepticus?

37
Q

What is the treatment for status epilepticus?

A

benzo such as midazolam, repeated after 5 mins if no response
2nd/3rd line include levetiracetam, phenytoin etc
May require RSI and intubation

38
Q

Which symptoms may be present in adrenal insufficiency?

A

Dizziness, vomiting, reduced GCS

39
Q

Give common triggers for adrenal insufficiency.

A

Infection, surgery, exogenous steroid withdrawal

40
Q

What is the biochemical pattern seen in adrenal crisis?

A

Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia

41
Q

Hypoadrenalism leads to deficiency of…

A

Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids

42
Q

Rapid correction of sodium can lead to…

A

central pontine myelinolysis

43
Q

Give differential diagnoses for chest pain.

A

ACS, PE, Pneumothorax, dissection, boerhavve’s

44
Q

Give examples of features which may suggest high risk in NSTEMI.

A

Poor LV function
Previous CABG
Other co-morbidities
Raised trop
Arrythmia

45
Q

What is the usual treatment for DVT?

46
Q

Give potential causes for ‘unprovoked’ DVT.

A

Malignancy
Clotting issues inc thrombophilia

47
Q

How was IMT as a training programme conceived?

A

Transitioned from CMT in 2019 after ‘Shape of Training’ review

48
Q

How does IMT differ from previous CMT?

A

Addition of IMT3, allows for a ‘bridge’ between SHO and Reg level, usually working as a junior reg with support

49
Q

What are the three main aspects to the IMT curriculum?

A

Capabilities in Practice (CiPs), clinical knowledge, and procedures

50
Q

What are the indications for emergency dialysis?

A

Refractory hyperkalaemia
Metabolic acidosis
Fluid overload unresponsive to treatment
Symptoms of uraemia

51
Q

Which classification score is used for stroke?

A

Oxford-Bamford

52
Q

What is meant by a Total Anterior Circulation Stroke (TACS)?

A

3/3 features of weakness, hemianopia, cognitive

53
Q

What is meant by TACS?

A

2/3 features of weakness, hemianopia, cognitive OR cognitive alone

54
Q

What is meant by lacunar stroke?

A

pure motor/sensory without higher cognitive dysfunction
This remains important in prognosticatio

55
Q

What is the treatment for addisonian crisis?

A

100mg methylpred

56
Q

What is the mechanism for adrenal crisis when steroids omitted?

A

Due to exogenous steroids, HPA axis becomes down-regulated meaning insufficient endogenous steroid production

57
Q

Which criteria can be used to differentiate exudative and transudative pleural effusion?

A

Light’s criteria

58
Q

Which factors are involved in Light’s criteria?

A

Serum/pleural LDH and serum/pleural protein

59
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an exudative effusion?

A

Leakage of protein out of pleural space

60
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a transudative effusion?

A

Fluid leaking INTO pleural space

61
Q

What is the most common cause of a unilateral pleural effusion?

A

Malignancy

62
Q

Give causes of exudative pleural effusion.

A

Malignancy
Pneumonia
RA
TB

63
Q

Give causes of transudative pleural effusion.

A

Heart failure
Hypoalbuminaemia
Hypothyroidism
Meig’s syndrome