IMSE I Flashcards

1
Q

C-REACTIVE PROTEIN

–most widely used indicator of _________
–BINDS to [4]
–Effect: [4]

A

Acute Inflammation

small RNA proteins
phospholipids
peptidoglycan
Org. constituents

Opsonization
Complement Activation
Aglutination
Precipitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

C-reactive protein is iNCREASED when there is:

A

Bacterial
Viral

Rheumatic fever
Tuberculosis
Heart attack
Malignant disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

functions by removing cholesterol from cholesterol-filled macrophages @ tissue injury site

contributes to ____ of the area.

A

Serum Amyloid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Serum Amyloid A is iNCREASED hen there is:

A

Bacterial, Viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

________________

acts as____
widely distributed on _______ surfaces throughout the body.

A

Mannose binding Protein/Lectin
[MASP/MBL]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MASP is DECREASED when there is:

A

Recurrent YEAST infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____________
a general plasma inhibitor of proteases released from leukocytes, especialy _______.

A

Alpha 1-antitrypsin

elastase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin is DEFICIENT when there is:

A

Premature emphysema
Smokers
Noxious occupational exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Haptoglobin
– bind irreversibly to [bound/free] hemoglobin released by [intravascular/extravascular hemolysis].
– protects the _____ from damage and in [x] loss of ____ by _____ excretion.

A

free

intravascular

kidney

iron
by urinary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PLASMA Haptoglobin is INC. when there is:

A

liver de novo synthesis
no presented release of previously formed from other sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Haptoglobin is INC. when there is:

A

Inflammation
Stress
Tissue Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

most abundant of the coagulation factors in plasma, and it forms the ______.

A

Fibrinogen

Fibrin clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

principal copper-transporting protein in human plasma.

A

Ceruloplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ceruloplasmin is DEC. when there is:

A

Wilson’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Enumerate Acute Phase Reactants

A

C-reactive protein
Serum Amyloid A
Mannose binding protein/lectin
Alpha 1-Antitrypsin
Haptoglobin
Fibrinogen
Ceruloplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Leukocytes percentage in blood

1.Neutrophil
2. Lymphocyte
3. Monocytes
4. Eosinophil
5. Basophil

A
  1. 50-70%
  2. 20-40%
  3. 4-10%
  4. 1-3%
  5. > 1%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Neutrophil
– stages of granules______
– specific granules

Function:
[1]
______: movement through blood vessel wall
–how many percentage are adhered in blood vessel wall and in circulation?
– ______ help make neutrophils sticky and enhance adherence to endothelial cells → that make up the vessel wall.

[2]
______ chemical messengers making cells migrate to a [random/particular] direction.
Examples: [9]

A

primary, secondary, tertiary granules

azurophilic granules

[1]
Diapedesis

50% circulation, 50% blood vessel wall adhesion

Selectins

[2]
Chemotaxins/Chemokines

Complement, Coagulation proteins, Platelet activating factor

Bacteria, Viruses

Mast cells, Macro, Lympho, Neutro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Eosinophils
– INC.: [2]
Function: ______ [less efficient than
neutrophils ← smaller _____ and lack of ______ _______]
– _______ basophil/mast cell products and killing certain ______.

A

allergy, parasitic infections

phagocytosis
numbers
digestive enzymes

neutralizes
parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Basophil
– [LARGEST/SMALLEST] of granulocyte
– Maintains [immediate/delayed] _____________.
***looks like ____ cells

A

SMALLEST

immediate
hypersensitivity reactions

mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Monocytes
– _______-shaped nucleus
– ground-glass appearance ← [+] _________ granules.
– BECOME MACROPHAGE: when they go from _______ to _________.

MACROPHAGE
–________ [ less efficient < neutrophils ← __________.

– Life span: range of ______ rather than days.
– Tissue distribution: a [random/specific] phenomenon.

A

Horse-shoe
fine dustlike granules

blood vessel
tissue

phagocytosis
slower motility

months
random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cells that perform phagocytosis but are less efficient than neutrophils

[Enumerate/Cause of less efficiency]

A

Eosinophil - smaller number, lack digestive enzymes

Macrophages- slower motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Macrophages in different tissues
enumerate

1.Liver–
2. CNS–
3. Bone—
4. Lung–
5. Connective tissue-
6. Placenta–
7. Spleein–
8. Kidney–
9. Synovial–

A

1.Kupffer cell
2. Microglia
3. Osteoclasts
4. Alveolar macrophage, dust cell
5. Histiocyte
6. Hofbauer cell
7. Littoral cell
8. Mesangial cell
9. Type A lining cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

– common lymphoid precursor.
– differentiated: [3]

A

Lymphocyte

T cell, B cell, NK cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

LYMPHOCYTE TYPES:
1. B lymphocyte/cell: ______. + ____ maturation

  1. T lymphocyte/cell: ______ + ____ maturation
  2. NK lymphocyte/cell: _________

Die in few _____ if not activated by _______.

A

AB production
BM maturation

Regulatory role
Thymus maturation

Innate/Adaptive immuity

thoracic duct

days
foreign antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lymphocyte don’t undergo ______- and ______ to go to the tissue, but rather travel through________.

A

chemotaxis
diapedesis

thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

product of primary lymphoid organ

product of secondary lymphoid organ

A

Ag-independent

Ag-dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Primary lymphoid organ

______- largest tissue in the body. Center for ______________.

______- has cortex and medulla.

A

Bone marrow
Ag-independent lymphopoiesis

Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Secondary lymphoid organ

– Organs [5]

Spleen – filters the [bloodstream/fluid] for ag + removes _______. [smallest/largest] secondary lymphoid organ. [@ upper-[RQ/LQ] of abdomen]

Lymph nodes – filter the [bloodstream/fluid] in the tissue for ag. Generation of ________.

A

Spleen
Lymph nodes
Tonsils
Peyer’s patches
MALT

bloodstream
old RBC
largest
LQ

fluid
b-cell memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

_________
– tells if the lymphocyte is a B, T or NK cell.
– use to name the _____ found in human WBC

Examples
______– T cell
______– NK cell

A

Cluster of differentiation [CD]
protein

CD2/3
CD16/56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Surface Markers/CD on T cells [Elaborate other cells involved]

CDs for:
1. Thymocytes
2. T cells
3. T-helper cell
4. Mature T-cells

  1. Thymocyte subsets
  2. T-cytotoxic
  3. T-cell precursors
  4. Activated T-cell
  5. T-cell subsets
A
  1. CD2 [+NK cells], CD3
  2. CD2 [+NK cells], CD3, CD5- [+B cell subsets]
  3. CD4-[+ mono/macro]
  4. CD5- [+ B cell subsets]
    5.CD8
    6.CD8
    7.CD10-[+ B cell precursors, BM stromal cells]
    8,
    CD25- [+Acitvated B-cell, mono]
  5. CD 56- [+NK cells]
    CD 94- [+NK cells]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

B-CELL MATURATION STAGES
[7]

A

Pro-B cell
Pre-B cell
Immature B Cell
Mature B cell
Activated B cell
Plasma B-cell
Memory B-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Explain each B-cell stages
1.Pro-B cell
2.Pre-B cell
3.Immature B Cell
4.Mature B cell
5.Activated B cell
6.Plasma B-cell
7.Memory B-cell

A
  1. PRO-B CELL
    Gene rearrangement–> heavy/light chain coding
  2. PRE-B CELL
    Heavy chain starts to synthesize= “u” heavy chain + 2 surrogate light chains
  3. IMMATURE B CELL
    Appearance of Complete IgM molecules [w/ heavy/light chain]
  4. MATURE B-CELL
    Divided: Marginal zone B cell, Folllicular B cell
  5. ACTIVATED B CELL
    Takes place in primary follicles of peripheral lymphoid tissue
  6. PLASMA
    Cytoplasmic Immunoglobulin + little to no Surface Ig.
    AB PRODUCTION.
    [x] blood –> located in germinal centers in peripheral lymphoid organs.
  7. Recirculation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Surface markers for B-cell stages
1.Pro-B cell
2.Pre-B cell
3.Immature B Cell
4.Mature B cell
5.Activated B cell
6.Plasma B-cell
7.Memory B-cell

A
  1. CD19, 24, 43, 45R
  2. CD19, 24, 43
  3. CD21, 40, MHC Class III, IgM
  4. IgM, IgD

5.CD25

  1. Ig in cytoplasm
  2. Surface IgG, IgA, IgE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T-CELL MATURATION STAGES
[4]

A

Double negative
Double Positive
Mature T-cell
Activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DOUBLE NEGATIVE
— These large double-negative thymocytes actively proliferate in the ________ under the influence of ____.
— Coding for ___ chain starts here

A

outer cortex

IL-7

beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DOUBLE POSITIVE

-– Coding for ____ chain starts here

–[POSITIVE selection] allows only double-positive cells: ___ and ____ + functional ___________ to survive.
T cells must “[weakly/intermediately/strongly’ recognize foreign antigen [+]_______

Afterwards → A [2nd selection process] _________, takes place among the surviving double-positive T cells.

**Weak/Strong reactions with MHC Class I/II [Positive selection] / self-peptides [Negative selection]→ ________.

A

alpha chain

CD4/CD8+
Functional TCR receptors
Class I/II MHC

Negative selection

apoptosis, programmed cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MATURE T-CELL
CD4+: T ____/___ cell [1/3 or 2/3 of T cell]

— Th1: [3]
[protect cells against _____ infections]

— Th2: [4]
[help __ cells produce ___ against [intracellular/extracellular _____ and ____]

— Th17: [2]
[protection against [intracellular/extracellular ____ and ______]

CD8+: T ______ cell [1/3 or 2/3 of T cell]

CD4+ and CD___+: T _____
– [stimulating/suppressing] the immune response to self-antigens

A

helper/inducer
2/3

IFN-y, IL-2, TNF-B
intracellular infections

IL4, 5, 10, 13
extracellular parasites/allergen

IL17, 1L22
extracellular bacteria/fungi

cytotoxic
1/3

CD25
regulator
suppressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ACTIVATED T CELL

—resting T cell→ activated =
_______ cell [3] OR _____ cell.

A

Effector
Helper, Cytotoxic, Regulator

T Memory cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

NK CELL MATURATION
– [X/+] PROTEIN MARKERS [CD]
–______ unique to express them
– [+] ________ for identification.
– ____ shaped nuclei
– % of the circulating lymphocytes in the blood @[#] ____, peripheral blood.
– ability to mediate _____ reactions and kill target cells [WITH/WITHOUT] PRIOR EXPOSURE to them.

A

X
Surface Ag
Specific combination of Ag

Kidney-shaped
5 to 10%
spleen

cytolytic
WITHOUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T-cells

Develop in _____
% in blood _____ @ [2]
Identified by _______ w/ _____

End products ______
Located ____ region of lymph nodes.

A

Thymus

60-80% @ Thoracic fluid, lymph nodes

Rosette formation
SRBCs

cytokines
paracortical region of lymph nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

B-cells

Develop in _____
@ [3]
Identified by _____________

End products ______
Located ____ region of lymph nodes.

A

Bone marrow

Bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes

surface immunoglobulin

Antibody
cortical region of lymph nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Of all the lymphocytes, again, how do we know what kind of lymphocyte it is?

[3]

+can use _______ but unaccurate because od [warm/cold] acting antibody.

A
  1. Ficoll-Hypaque - isolation through density gradient centrifugation
  2. Flow cytometer- lymphocyte seperation into diffl subsets
  3. CD marker detection

rosette technique
cold antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MOST POTENT PHAGOCYTIC CELL in the tissue.

A

Dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MAIN FUNCTION: phagocytose antigen and present it to T-helper.

A

Dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Dendritic cell’s Classification/Naming: accdg. to _____ .

A

location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

PHAGOCYTOSIS

general process

  1. Physical contact
  2. Cytoplasm outflowing 3. Phagosome
  3. Phagolysosome
    → DIGESTION
  4. Digestion
  5. Excretion
A

INITIATION → CHEMOTAXIS →ENGULFMENT→ DIGESTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What specifically happens in engulfment process of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Physical contact
  2. Cytoplasm outflowing
  3. Phagosome
  4. Phagolysosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What specifically happens in digestion process of phagocytosis?

A

5.Digestion
6. Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

glycoproteins found on the serum portion of blood.

A

Antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Each Ab is made up of a basic [#] chain polypeptide unit that consists [2]. Ab can be cleaved by ____ or ____.

A

4

2 large HEAVY CHAINS
2 smaller LIGHT CHAINS

papain
pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pepsin digestion

Trimmed at [before/after] hinge region.

End products:
Fab are [monovalent/divalent]

A

after

F[ab]2 + Fc
monovalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Papain digestion

Trimmed at [before/after] hinge region.

End products:
Fab are [monovalent/divalent]

A

before

2 Fab + Fc
divalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ANTIGENS

– substances that react with __.

–_______ are antigens → TRIGGERS immune response.
All ______ are antigens but NOT ALL AG ARE ________.

_________ – recognized part of antigen by B [readily/delayed] and T cell [Ag should be processed first by ____ to be recognized]

______ – nonimmunogenic materials that, when combined with a carrier, create new antigenic determinants.

A

Ab

Immunogens
immunogens
immunogens

Epitope/Determinant site
B-readily
T-APC

Haptens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

_______ – increase the power of immunogens to create immune response.
– works by attracting the ______ to the site of _______.
– _________ is the only approved adjuvant in the US.

A

Adjuvants
lymphocyte
administration

Aluminum salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

_______ – antigens that belong to the host
________- other members of the host’s species
________- from other species **_____ antigens

A

Autoantigens
Alloantigens

Heteroantigens
Heterophile antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

IDEAL ANTIGENS to stimulate an immune response:
1. macromolecular size: should be m/w]
2. chemical composition and molecular complexity.
protein → poly > carbs > nylon > Teflon
3. foreignness
4. ability to be processed and presented with MHC molecules

A
  1. macromolecular size [10k m/w, best: 100k
  2. chemical composition/ molecular complexity [protein > poly > carbs> nylon >teflon]
  3. foreignness
  4. ability to be processed/presented w/ MHC molecules.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

MHC
— Genes that controls the expression of ____.
— ___= MHC molecules.
— @ all [annucleated/nucleated] cell of the body.

MAIN ROLE:

A

HLA
HLA

nucleated

bind peptides/antigen WITHIN/ON cells> Present to t-cell

58
Q

CLASS 1
– [+] all [nucleated/annucleated] cell
– [#/few on] lymphocyte
– [LOW/UNDETECTED:]
– Binds to [exogenous/endogenous antigen]

A

-nucleated
-#
-hepatocytes, neural cells, muscle cells, sperm cells
–endogenous antigen

59
Q

CLASS 2
– [+] _____
– @ [4]
– Binds Ag found on _______.

A

APC

B lympho, mono, macro, dendritic cells

cell’s surface

60
Q

CLASS 1
Presents antigen to ______
Chain structure _____
Locus/Ag: HLA- _____

NONCLASSICAL CLASS I
HLA-______

A

CD8
a-chain b2-microglobulin
HLA-A,B,C

HLA-E,F,G

61
Q

CLASS 2
Presents antigen to ______
Chain structure _____
Locus/Ag: HLA- _____

NONCLASSICAL CLASS I
HLA-______

A

CD4
a-chain b-chain
HLA-DP,DQ,DR

62
Q

CYTOKINES
— Effect: [3] activity
— Individual cytokines [ACT/DO NOT ACT] ALONE
— produced by different type of cells

A

autocrine, paracrine, systemic/endocrine

DO NOT ACT ALONE

63
Q

TUMOR NECROSIS FACTOR
–[orig. TNF] because it induces ____ of TUMOR cells

  1. TNF - α [also called as] – [least/most] prominent member;
    –FUNCTIONS: [4]
  2. TNF – β [also called as] – produced by ______ & _____ cells.
A

lysis

CACHECTIN
most
Vasodilation, vasopermeability, T-cell/Mono/Macro activation

LYMPHOTOXIN
CD4/8

64
Q

interfere w/ VIRAL REPLICATION

A

Interferon

65
Q
  1. IFN-a
    Other name _______
    Secreted by _______
    Features [2]
  2. IFN-b
    Other name _______
    Secreted by _______
    Features [2]
  3. IFN-y
    Other name _______
    Secreted by _______
    Features [2]
A
  1. Leukocyte IFN
    Leukocytes
    INC. MHC Class 1/2 replication
    [X] Viral replication
  2. Fibroblast/Epithelial cell IFN
    Fibroblasts
    INC. MHC Class 1/2 replication
    [X] Viral replication

3.
immune IFN
TH1, NK
INC. MHC CLASS 1/2 replication
ACTIVATE MACROPHAGE

66
Q

INTERLEUKINS
IL- __ – simulate T cells
IL-__ – inducer of hot body temperature
IL- __ – stimulates bone marrow >= T and B cells
IL- __– stimulates IgE prod.
IL- __ – stimulates IgA prod.
IL- __ - stimulates acute phase reactants production.

A

IL-2
IL-1
IL-3
IL-4
IL-5
IL-6

67
Q

IL1
Induced by:[3]
Released by: [2]

A

microbial pathogens, bacterial lipopolysaccharide, other cytokines

mano/macro

68
Q

IL6
Released in response to ________

A

lipopolysaccharides

69
Q
  1. IL-1α – [intra/extracellularly.]
    [Released] ________.
    Once released, it attracts the ______ cells.
  2. IL-1β –
    [Secreted] by _____.
    [Induces] : [3]
  3. IL-1__ – ANTAGONIST to the rest of IL-1members by competing with receptor.
A
  1. intracellularly
    inflammatory cells
  2. monocytes
    fever, phagocytes, acute phase reactants production
  3. RA
70
Q

CHEMOKINES
– production is by [3]

A

TNF-a, IL-6, many cytokines

71
Q

[NORM] random movement [ABN] chemotaxis

A

Job syndrome

72
Q

[ABN] random movement + chemotaxis

A

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome

73
Q

receptor of HIV in CD4+ cells

A

CXCR4/CCR5

74
Q

– responsible for the ANTIPROLIFERATIVE activity in a wide variety of cell types.

A

Transforming Growth Factor

75
Q

Transforming Growth Factor Isoforms

A

TGF B1
TGF B2
TGF B3

76
Q

– FAMILY of different GROWTH FACTOR.

A

Colony Stimulating Factor

77
Q

Colony stimulating factors types:

A

IL-3
EPO

GCSF
M-CSF
GM-CSF

78
Q

Promotes opsonization
LYSIS of foreign cells, immune complexes

A

COMPLEMENT

79
Q

Most plasma complement proteins are synthesized in the ___ [EXCEPT C1 components from _______ + Factor D from_____]

A

liver
intestinal epithelial cell
adipose tissue

80
Q

EFFECTOR MOLECULES OR THE COMPLEMENTS that causes an effect on the cell

A

Anaphylatoxins
Chemotazins
Opsonins

81
Q

ANAPHYLATOXINS
– CAUSE: [3]
–COMPLEMENT PROTEINS:
(most to least effective)

A

inc. vascular permeability
smooth muscle contraction
histamine release from baso/mast cell

C5a, C3a, C4a

82
Q

–movement of cells toward the source of chemotaxins

A

Chemotaxins

83
Q

Complement protein of Chemotaxins

A

C5a

84
Q

facilitates PHAGOCYTOSIS and CLEARANCE OF FOREIGN SUBSTANCES

A

Opsonins

85
Q

Complement protein of Opsonins

A

C4b, C3b, iC3b

86
Q

— provide LINK between innate & acquired immune response.

A

CLASSICAL PATHWAY

87
Q

CLASSICAL PATHWAY
Activated by: [9]

A

IgM, IgG3, IgG1, IgG2 [most-least]

Gram [-] Bacteria-E-coli, Viral,

Protozoa, C-reactive protein, Mycoplasma

88
Q

part of INNATE NATURAL IMMUNITY

A

ALTERNATIVE PATHWAY

89
Q

no need need Ab-Ag complex → activates as soon as organism is detected.

A

ALTERNATIVE PATHWAY

90
Q

Activated by: [6]

A

Bacteria [Lipopolysaccharide], Viral, Parasites [Trypanosomes], Yeast, Fungal

Tumor cell lines

91
Q

– proteins that BIND TO CARBOHYDRATES

– RECOGNITION OF CARBS
common constituents of [=]_______+ [≠]________

A

LECTIN PATHWAY

microbial cell walls

human cell surfaces

92
Q

– Provides an ADDT’L LINK between the innate and acquired immune response

A

LECTIN PATHWAY

93
Q

_____: Acute phase reactant

KEY FACTOR:
Mannose-binding or Mannan-binding lectin
that BINDS Mannose or related sugars in the _____of ________.

A

MBL

Carbohydrates
Bacteria, Viral, Parasites, Yeasts

94
Q

Associated disease of
1.C1
2.C2
3.C3
4.C4
5. Factor H/I

A

1.Lupuslike syndrome, recurrent infections
2. Lupuslike syndrome, recurrent infections; Atherosclerosis
3. Severe recurrent infections, Glomerulonephritis
4. Lupuslike syndrome
5. Recurrent pyogenic infections

95
Q

Associated disease of
1.C5-8
2. Properdin
3. MBL
4. MASP-2

A
  1. Neisseria infections
  2. Neisseria infections,
  3. Pneumococcal diseases, Neisseria infections
  4. Pneumococcal diseases
96
Q

Associated disease of
1.DAF
2.MIRL

A
  1. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  2. Parozysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
97
Q

Associated disease of
1. C9
2. C1INH

A
  1. no known disease
  2. Hereditary angioedema
98
Q

CLASSICAL - LECTIN
REGULATORS

A
  1. C1INH
  2. [C4b-binding protein]/ C4BP
  3. [Complement receptor type 1]/CR1
  4. [Membrane cofactor protein]/ MCP
  5. [Delay Accelerating Factor] DAF
99
Q

inactivates C1; MASP-2
–by binding to the active site of C1r and C1s. → separates them from C1q. C1q remains bound to antigen but all the proceeding processes halt – binding to the MBL-MASP-2 complex.

A

C1-INH

100
Q

– [X] C3 convertase formation
– by disassociating them every time it forms.
– [+] on [SELF/FOREIGN] CELLS
– [absent/present] FOREGIN cells/particles. This is how the body knows what to lyse and what not to.

A

DAF

SELF
ABSENT

101
Q

ALTERNATIVE PATHWAY
REGULATORS

A

Factor H

102
Q

binding to C3b, thus preventing the binding of factor B. [C3bBb/C3 convertase]

A

Factor H

103
Q

ALL PATHWAY [MEMBRANE ATTACK COMPLEX]
REGULATORS

A

S protein/Vitronectin

104
Q

S PROTEIN/VITRONECTIN
– Interacts with the ____ complex
– as it forms in the ______ and prevents it from binding to cell membranes to prevent lysis.

A

C5b67

fluid phase

105
Q

ability of cells to bind complement coated particles.

A

Immune adherence

106
Q

COMPLEMENT CAN BE HARMFUL IF:
[1] ACTIVATED
a. on a [small/large] scale [example]
b. ____ necrosis [example]

[2] ____ LYSIS occurs

A

large
gram [-] septicemia

tissue [MI]

RBC

107
Q

COMPLEMENT’S DEC. LEVELS: [3]

o Clot tube [should be SPUN DOWN]
w/o serum-seperator
o Serum: frozen/dry ice if not tested within 1 to 2 hours

A

– decreased production
– consumption
– in vitro consumption

108
Q

COMPLEMENT LAB DIAGNOSIS:

Type of tube
Tube should be SPUN [up/down]
[With/Without] Serum seperator

Serum, if not tested w/in 1-2 hrs should be at what temp? + placed on a ?

A

Clot tube
down
without

Frozen
Dry ice

109
Q

Immunologic Assays of INDIVIDUAL COMPONENTS

A
  1. Radial Immunodiffusion
  2. Nephelometry
110
Q

Assay for CLASSICAL PATHWAY

A
  1. Hemolytic titration Assay [CH50]
  2. Radial hemolysis
  3. ELISA
111
Q

measures the px serum amount required to lyse 50%
of standardized conc of antibody- sensitized [human/sheep] erythrocytes.

A

[CH50] Hemolytic Titration Assay

112
Q

Assay for ALTERNATIVE PATHWAY

A
  1. AH50
  2. ELISA
113
Q

75-80 % Serum Antibody LARGEST

A

IgG

114
Q

largest to smallest hinge region of IgG

A

IgG3
IgG1
IgG2
IgG4

115
Q

IgG that cannot transfer placenta

A

IgG2

116
Q

Maternal immunity is actively/passively transferred across placenta to fetus> imparts passive protection to newborn

A

IgG

117
Q

Ab type functions:
opsonization
complement fixation
neutralization of toxins/viruses
agglutination & precipitation

A

IgG

118
Q

star-shaped w/ ten functional binding sites

has pentamer: @[2]
monomer: @[1]

A

IgM

secretions, body fluids [saliva,blood]

B-cell surface

119
Q

5-10% Serum Ab

10 days half life

A

IgM

120
Q

First/Most effective in complement fixation

Cannot transfer placenta but FIRST to appear in maturing _____.

A

IgM

infant

121
Q

First to appear in infection/Primary Response. Short-lived response because it is only synthesized as long as Ag is present since there are no memory cells here.

A

IgM

122
Q

Most potent powerful agglutinator
Most effective complement fixation
Opsonization
Neutralization of toxins

A

IgM

123
Q

a dimer joined by J chain

2 types:
[w/ its corresponding Ig subtype]

A

IgA

Serum IgA- IgA1
Secretory IgA- IgA2

124
Q

Found in serum, but # in MALT

A

IgA

125
Q

Cannot activate complement system since it is anti_______

A

IgA

inflammatory

126
Q

Patrol mucosal surfaces
First line of defense of natural immunity
Prevent adherence of organism on mucosal surfaces
Neutralizes toxins

A

IgA

127
Q

abundant on the membrane of many circulating naive b-markers or immunocompetent B lymphocytes & unstimulated B cells

A

IgD

128
Q

one of the heat-labile in Ig class

2 days half-life

A

IgD

129
Q

Cannot activate complement
Cannot transfer placenta
Cannot bind to neutro/acro

Second to appear after IgM on infection ONSET
Play a role in antigen-triggered lymphocyte differentiation/B-cell siurface initate immune response [B-MEMORY CELL activation/maturation/diff]

A

IgD

130
Q

MOST HEAT LABILE

2 days half-life too.
w/ LEAST ABUNDANT % Serum Ab: 0.0005%

A

IgE

131
Q

Cannot activate complement
Cannot transfer placenta

Cannot perform opsonization
Cannot perform agglutination

A

IgE

132
Q

Role in hypersensitivity/parasitic infections [large antigens]

A

IgE

133
Q

Certain cells has had specific surface receptors for antigen that were present before contact with antigen occurred.
○ Once antigens was introduced, it would select the cell with proper receptors, combination would take place and then receptors will break off & enter the circulation as ab molecules. New receptors will be formed in place of those broken off

A

Erlich’s Side Chain Theory

134
Q

Individual lymphocytes are gentically pre-programmed to produce one type of immunoglobulin, and that specific antigen finds or selects those particular cells capable of responding to it, causing these to proliferate

A

Clonal selection theory

135
Q

Clonal selection theory is proposed by

A

Niels Jerne
MacFarlane Burnet

136
Q

pioneering DNA experiments > discovered that CHROMOSOMES contain [x] intact Ig genes, ONLY BUILDING BLOCKS.

A

Susumu Tonegawa

137
Q

a technique to ab production arising from a single b cell> fuses an ACTIVATED B CELL + MYELOMA CELL that can be GROWN INDEFINITELY, which has revolutionized serological testing.

A

Hybridoma technology

138
Q

Year proposed and people behind Hybridoma technology

A

1975
Georges Kohler
Cesar Milstein

139
Q

Ig class w/ 7s sedimentation coefficient

A

IgG
Serum IgA
IgD

140
Q

Ig class w/ 8s sedimentation coefficient

A

IgE

141
Q

Ig class w/ 19s sedimentation coefficient

A

IgM