Immunotherapy and cancer II Flashcards

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1
Q

What are LAK cells?

A
  • lymphokine activates killers
  • PBMC taken from patients and cultures with IL-2 in vitro
  • heterogenous population produced
  • NK, NKT and T cells
  • higher than normal anti-tumour activity
  • can target NK resistant tumour cells
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2
Q

Describe NK cells

A
  • recognise lack of MHC I
  • majority are CD3-CD56+
  • subsets = CD56 bright, CD56 dim, CD16+/CD16-
  • primarily found in blood, BM, spleen and liver
  • main cell type in LAK population
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3
Q

Describe LAK cells

A
  • relatively easy to produce in large numbers
  • simple activation of a cells subset
  • limited specificity
  • localise to tumour sites
  • may need additional IL-2 to maintain activation
  • toxicity - capillary leak syndrome
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4
Q

Describe the first trial with LAK cells

A
  • Rosenberg trial 1993
  • used LAK cells and IL-2
  • 181 patients with advanced metastatic cancer
  • 10 complete responses in the LAK-1L-2 group compared with 4 in the IL-2 alone group
  • overall trend was towards inc survival with LAK
  • many toxic effects due to vascular permeability
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5
Q

Describe NK-T cells

A
  • subpopulation of T cells - found in thymus, liver and BM
  • expres biased T cell receptor repertoire
  • some inhibitory and activation receptors shared with NK cells
  • can kill tumour target cells in vitro - mainly through TCR and CD16
  • most important is their ability to produce cytokines to direct the immune response eg. IFN-gamma and IL-4
  • also express perforin and surface molecules - FasL
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6
Q

Describe NK-T cell recognition

A
  • NKT cells are mHC independent
  • NKT cell TCR recognises the MHC-1 like molecule = CD1d =
  • relatively nonpolymorphic
  • restricted dist. on cells of the hematopoietic lineage
  • present glycolipid
  • synthetic alphaGalCer used to study NKT cells
  • unknown whether tumours express glycolipid ligands that stimulate NKT cell activity
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7
Q

Describe NKT immunotherapy

A
  • alpha-galactosyl ceramide
  • used for in vitro expanded NKT based vaccines
  • used alpha-gal cer pulsed DCs
  • well tolerated
  • induce expansions of NKTs in vivo
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8
Q

What is the role of NK-T?

A
  • MOA unknown - may be linked to interferon gamma
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9
Q

What are gamma-delta T cells?

A
  • TCR structurally similar to alpha beta
  • may not need normal antigen presentation mechanisms
  • may not recognise peptides and therefore no need for protein processing
  • may detect stress or small organic molecules which signify infection
  • can respond to MICA and MICB expressed on stressed cells
  • thought to be ‘primitive’ t cells in mucosa
  • can directly target a range of tumour cells = TIL
  • suggested to target cancer stem cells
  • can directly target bacteria
  • thought to recognise endogenous pyrophosphonates
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10
Q

What is zometa?

A
  • amino bis-phosphate used in osteoporosis
  • blocks mevalonic acid pathway
  • allows build up of IPP (susceptible for killing)
  • has been used in prostate and breast cancer
  • look at effectors cells
  • reduced gamma-delta T cells in peripheral blood of patients receiving treatment
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11
Q

Describe gamma-delta T cell therapy

A
  • ex vivo activation trialled in RCC in combination with low dose of iL-2 = stable disease
  • in vivo activation, use of zometa or other lymphostimulatory regimes - breast and prostate cancer
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12
Q

What is a therapeutic vaccination?

A
  • idea is to induce long lasting response against tumour
  • stimulated the adaptive arm of the immune response
  • use professional APC such as dendritic cells
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13
Q

Describe the principle of DC vaccination

A
  • take monocyte from patient
  • monocytes can be used to generate immature DCs - using il-4
  • also isolate tumour cells from patient and lyse them
  • combine lysed tumour cells with immature DCs = DCs take up tumour then give a maturation signal = stops them being endocytic cell turns them into antigen presenting cell
  • APC DC which are loaded with tumour material
  • injected back into patient as vaccine
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14
Q

Describe antigen loading

A
  • defined tumour antigens - peptides = at least 4 diff peptide targets needed
  • undefined tumour antigens = DC tumour cell hybrids, tumour cell lysates, necrotic/apoptotic tumour cells
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15
Q

Describe DC maturation

A
  • used to be non-matured
  • TNFs
  • complex cytokine cocktails including TLR agonists :
    poly I: C used clinically, aldara, R848
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16
Q

Describe the clinical results with ex-vivo DCs

A
  • sipuleucel-T first FDA approved DC treatment for metastatic prostate cancer
  • PBMC treated with GM-CFS prostatic acid phosphastase
  • phase III trial showed 4 month extension of survival
17
Q

How will ‘virtual virally infected’ tumour cells work?

A
  • took a tumour cell and cultured it with dsRNA (ligand for TLR3,7,8 , PKR, RIG-1) -infection monitoring pathways
  • causes the death by apoptosis of tumour cells
  • tumour cell blebs off parts of its material = apoptotic blebs with danger signals with activate the immune response
  • danger signals mature DC which are recruited to site
  • DC take up apoptotic blebs and process tumour = helper T cells activated and kill other tumour cells
18
Q

Why are TILs important?

A
  • tumour infiltrating lymphocytes
  • presence of lymphocytes has prognostic significance
  • large numbers of TILs in many tumours
  • high number of CD8+ cells also has prognostic significance
  • high CD8+/Treg ratio
19
Q

Describe adoptive cell therapy with TILs

A
  • assumes that TILs have knowledge of tumour antigens
  • method =
  • tumour biopsy
  • in vitro polyclonal stimulation (IL-2 and anti-CD3 ab)
  • lymphodepletion of patient
  • stimulated T cells reintroduced into the patient
20
Q

What are the results with adoptive cells therapy with TILs?

A
  • cytotoxicity against tumour cells in culture
  • homing of transferred T cells to tumour in vivo
  • best results are pre-treated with peripheral lymphodepletion regimen of total body irradiation
21
Q

What are the disadvantages of TIL therapy?

A
  • no enough tumour to generate sufficient CTLs
  • TILs may be refectory to stimulation
  • time consuming and labour intensive = requires infrastructure
  • culture time may be too long
  • culture time may influence quality of T cells
  • high failure rate of culture
22
Q

Describe adoptive cell therapy (ACT) using peripheral blood derived T cells

A
  • clonal expansion against a known antigen
  • advatage of east availabiity of large numbers of T cells
  • peripheral blood contains many precursors with TAA reactivity
    method =
  • isolate peripheral blood PBMC
  • stimulated in vitro with autologous DC and antigen
  • grow out tumour reactive clones/polyclonal pool
  • used extensively for treatment of post-transplant
23
Q

Describe high affinity TCR transduction

A
  • TCR reactive to TAAs
  • alpha and beta chains of TCR are engineered into retroviral vector
  • patients CD8+ t cells from peripheral blood are removed and transduced with TCR-virus
  • adoptive transfer back into patients
    PROBLEMS
  • initial results 2/15 patients with clinical response
  • T cells remain in peripheral blood for up to one year
  • epitopes need to be characterised and matched to HLA
  • must be present in tumour
  • patient specific therapy
24
Q

What are CARs?

A
  • chimeric antigen receptors
  • similar in nature to TCR transgenics, not MHC restricted
    COMPOSED OF:
  • antibody recognition domains
  • cytoplasmic tail with multiple signalling domains that activate T cells
  • advantages of specificity and high affinity
  • not yet extensively studied
25
Q

Describe peripheral/non-myeloblative lymphodelpletion

A
  • there is no relationship between the degree of lymphodepletion and clinical outcome
  • achieved with drugs such as fludoarabine and cyclophosphamide
  • removes T cells that compete for homeostatic cytokines (IL-7, IL-15)
    = inc proliferation and acquisition of effector functions for infused cells
  • inc expression of serum IL-7 and IL-15
  • MAY enhance APC function
  • reduces number of circulating regulatory cells
26
Q

What is the best T cell for ACT?

A
  • CD4 or CD8
  • TCM (central memory, CD62L+)
  • TEM
  • still unknown