Immunopathology of sepsis Flashcards

ILO 1.14a: have knowledge of the causes of infection, mechanisms and routes of spread of infection and principles of treatment

1
Q

what is sepsis?

A
  • life-treatening organ dysfunction to a dysregulated host response to infection
  • can be due to infection spread throughout the body via the blood but is not an infection itself
  • cannot occur in the absence of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is sepsis shock?

A

sepsis in which the underlying circulatory and celular and/or metabolic abnormalities are marked enough to substantially increase mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is qSOFA? how does it work?

A

quick -Sequential Organ Failure Assessment
* tool to clinically characterise patients at risk of sepsis
* baseline qSOFA baseline is 0 unless the patient has pre-existing organ dysfunction BEFORE onset of infection (score of 1 per organ)
* altered respiratory rate greater than 22bpm - increased and shallow
* altered mentation (Glasgow coma scale <15)
* systolic blood pressure <= 100mmHg - low bp
* higher score = more at risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

who is more likely to get sepsis?

5

A
  • very young/old people
  • pregnant females
  • immunocompromised (transplant, HIV/AIDS)
  • pre-existing organ dysfunction (CKD, CVD, diabete, cirrhosis)
  • hospital patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the common organ systems that are affected by sepsis?

A
  • neurological (altered mental status)
  • pulmonary (hypoxemia)
  • cardiovascular (shock)
  • renal (oligouria - low urine output)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the immunopathogenesis of sepsis associated with the activation of?

5

A
  • innate immunity
  • complement system
  • vascular endothelium
  • coagulation system
  • adaptive immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe the pathophysiology of sepsis

A
  • PRRs on immune cells recognise DAMPs and PAMPs but there is excessive immune activation causing widespread inflammation and tissue damage
  • pro-inflammatory cytokines are released from activated macrophages and neutrophils which results in increased vascular permeability - hypotension and tissue oedema
  • tissue oedema leads to **reduced oxygen delivery ** and ischaemia and so organ dysfunction
  • multi-organ failure leads to septic shock and death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are PAMPs? give examples

A

pattern associated molecular patterns which are conserved exogenous (non-self) factors expressed by pathogens which activate inflammatory signalling pathways
* e.g. LPS, peptidoglycan, nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are DAMPs? give examples

A

damage associated molecular patterns which are endogenous (host) factors released following cell damage which activate inflammatory signalling pathways
* e.g. heat-shock proteins, nucleic acids

Cell-surface and intracellular receptors that are responsible for the recognition of microbial products and endogenous danger signals (alarmins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the role of TNFa in sepsis?

A
  • a pro-infammatory cytokine that co-ordinates local containment of infection but drives sepsis when released systemically
  • produced by macrophages, monocytes, dendritic cells and neutrophils when PRRs recognise PAMPs
  • initiate inflammation but can be harmful in excess

causes:
* systemic vasodilation
* increased vascular permeability
* loss of blood pressure
* systemic blood clotting of microvasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the role of TNFa?

A
  • produced by macrophages, monocytes, dendritic cells and neutrophils when PRRs recognise PAMPs
  • important for controlling local infections
  • increases immune cell activation and recruitment to infection sites
  • promotes phagocytosis of pathogens
  • stimulates the release of other inflammatory mediators (IL-6, IL-1)
  • stimulates expression of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells and proteins that trigger blood clotting
  • prevents pathogen spreading via blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is compliment involved in sepsis?

A
  • it is a hallmark of sepsis
  • it is activated immediately upon recognition of ‘pathogenic surfaces’
  • all three pathways (classical, mannose-binding lectin and alternative pathways) lead to the formation of C3 convertase which cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b
  • generates anaphylatoxins C3a and C5a which cause excessive immune activation - neutrophil overaction, cytokine release, vascular permeability, vasodilation and hypotension, organ failure, septic shock
  • activates leukocytes/endothelial cells/platelets and the coagulation system (C3b)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does sepsis result in hypercoagulation? what is it characterised by?

A
  • complement activates platelets and the coagulation system
  • TNFa and other inflammatory mediators stimulates expression of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells and proteins that trigger blood clotting

characterised by:
* microvascular thrombi (blocking of small vessels to prevent bacteria reaching systemic circulation via capillaries)
* haemorrhage (excessive bleeding due to consumption of clotting factors and platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you treat sepsis?

A
  • antibiotics (most important)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does dentistry relate to sepsis?

A
  • sepsis can be a serious complication of acute dental infections
  • abcesses and periodontitis can be potential sources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the red flag signs and symptoms of spreading dental infection?

6

A
  • temperature <36 or >38
  • elevated breathing rate (>20 breaths/min)
  • elevated or reduced heart rate
  • varying degrees of facial swelling
  • trismus
  • dehydration