Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Pathology > immunopathology > Flashcards

immunopathology Flashcards

1
Q

Type I hypersensitivity mediator

A

IgE

mast cell and basophil degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type II hypersensitivity mediator

A

cytotoxic
IgG, IgM
cell lysis and necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what type of cells are normally affected by Type II

A

haemopoeitic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reaction mediator

A

immune complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type III associated disease

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

type IV hypersensitivity mediator

A

antigen specific T cell mediated cytotoxicity

CD4+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

type IV hypersensitivity reaction associated disease

A

contact dermatitis

Tuberculin skin test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is IgE produced

A

Th2 cell activates B cell

Th2 secretes IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the atopic triad

A

asthma, rhinitis, eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is rhinitis

A

hayfever

antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is asthma

A

inflammation and hyper-reactivity of small airways

damage to airways due to late phase response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is atopic dermatitis

A

eczema

intense itching/ blistering/ skin cracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diagnostic tests in allergic disease

A 
specific IgE 
skin prick test 
intra-dermal test 
oral challenge test 
basophil activation test 
complement resolved diagnostics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

gold standard of allergy diagnosis

A

oral challenge test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

treatment of allergies

A

antihistamines
steroids
adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

major food allergens

A 
milk 
egg
legumes - peanut, soybean, tree nuts 
fish 
crustaceans 
cereal grains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

adaptive immune mediated inflammation

A

T cells and B cells
slow response
response months - years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

innate immune mediated inflammation

A 
PRRs 
no memory 
fast 
short 
macrophages 
dendritic cells - present to T cells 
Neutrophils 
mast cells, basophils, eosinophils 
complement 
cytokines 
chemokines - attract other cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

autoinflammation

A

spontaneous attacks of systemic inflammation
no source of infection
absence of high auto-antibodies and T cells
no evidence of autoantigenic exposure
innate immunity
neutrophils and macrophages
therapy - anti-cytokine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

autoimmunity

A 
adaptive immune system recognises and targets the body's own molecules cells and tissues 
T-cells - recognise
B-cells - autoantibodies 
inflammation secondary to this action
adaptive immunity 
therapy - anti B and T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

example of autoinflammation

A

crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

example of autoimmunity

A

RA, SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

causes of autoimmune disease

A 
genes 
environment 
- sex 
- age
- sequestered antigens
- infection, trauma, smoking
immune regulation
changes in amount or nature of autoantigens e.g. citrullination in RA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

gene mutated in T1 diabetes, rheumatoid, autoimmune thyroid disease

A

PTPN22 - T cells activated more strongly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

organ specific autoimmune disease

A

single organ
autoantigens of that organ
e.g. autoimmune thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

systemic autoimmune disease

A

several organs at once
autoantigens in most cells of body
e.g. connective tissue diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

are autoimmune diseases more common in men or women

A

women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does Hashimoto’s thyroiditis cause

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does graves disease cause

A

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what happens in myosthenia gravis

A

autoantibodies block ACh receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is pernicious anaemia

A

antibodies block IF so B12 isn’t absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what happens in lupus

A

antibodies against antigens in nucleus combine with targets to form immune complexes in circulation
immune complexes deposit in any organ, activate complement and cause inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

non-specific diagnostic tests of autoimmune diseases

A 
inflammatory markers 
e.g. ESR
CRP
Ferritin
Fibrinogen 
Haptoglobin 
Albumin 
Complement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

disease specific diagnostic tests of autoimmune diseases

A

autoantibody testing

HLA typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

in which disease do you find autonuclear antibodies

A

lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is rheumatoid factor?

A

antibody directed against the Fc portion of IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which diseases are rheumatoid factor found in?

A

rheumatoid arthritis
chronic infections
vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which disease is ACPA used for

A

rheumatoid arthritis

more erosive and severe disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are ACPA

A

anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what antibody is found in primary biliary sclerosis

A

anti-mitochondrial Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what antibody is found in autoimmune hepatitis

A

anti smooth muscle and anti liver/kidney/ microsomal abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which autoantibodies are found in DM

A

islet cell antibodies
anti-GAD65 and 67
anti-insulinoma antigen 2
insulin autoantibodies IAA

43
Q

immunodeficiency

A

immune system is not effective enough to protect against infection

44
Q

primary immunodeficiency

A

inherent defect within immune system - genetic

45
Q

secondary immunodeficiency

A

immune system affected due to external causes

46
Q

phagocyte deficiency

A

chronic granulomatous disease

IRAK4 deficiency

47
Q

symptoms of chronic granulomatous disease

A

recurrent abcesses

staphylococcus, Klebsiella, serretia, aspergillus

48
Q

treatment of chronic granulomatous disease

A

haematopoeitic stem cell transplant

antobiotics

49
Q

complement function

A

lyse foreign cells if the foreign cells are covered in antibody

50
Q

C2, C4 deficiency

A

SLE, infections, myositis

51
Q

C5-C9 - membrane attack complex

A

repeated episodes of bacterial meningitis

52
Q

primary antibody deficiency

A

X linked agammaglobinaemia

53
Q

IgA deficiency

A

less serious

higher risk of autoimmune diseases

54
Q

secondary antibody deficiency due to drugs

A

RA - methotrexate and infliximab, rituximab, azathioprine, ciclosporin, prednisolone, cyclophosphamide

55
Q

defects in T cells

A

SCID

56
Q

SCID

A

b cell need T cell help
no T cells
recurrent infection with opportunistic infections, bacteria, viruses, candida, pneumocystis

57
Q

treatment of SCID

A

antbiotics, antivirals, antifungals

haematopoetic stem cell transplant

58
Q

immunomodulation

A

manipulating immune system using immunomodulatory drugs to achieve desired immune response

59
Q

immunostimulation

A

immunization
replacement therapies
immune stimulants

60
Q

passive immunization

A

specific high titre antibody from donor to recipient

61
Q

uses of passive immunization

A 
Hep B prophlaxis and treatment 
botulism 
VZV pregnancy 
diptheria 
snake bites
62
Q

active immunization

A

stimulate development of a protective immune response and immunological memory

63
Q

pooled human immunoglobulin use

A

treatment of antibody deficient states

64
Q

G-CSF/GM-CSF

A

increase production of mature neutrophils

65
Q

alpha-interferon

A

hep C

66
Q

B-interferon

A

MS

67
Q

immunosuppression agents

A 
corticosteroids
cytotoxic/ agents 
anti-proliferative/ activation agents
DMARD's 
biologic DMARDs
68
Q

corticosteroids action

A 
decreased neutrophil margination
reduced cytokines 
inhibition phospholipase A2 
lymphopenia 
decreased T cell proliferation 
reduced immunoglobulins production
69
Q

side effects of steroids

A 
diabetes 
hyperlipaemia 
poor wound healing 
osteoporosis 
glaucoma and cataracts 
psychiatric complications
70
Q

uses of steroids

A

CTD, vasculitis, RA
crohn’s, polymyalgia rheumatica
lymphoma
allograft rejection

71
Q

Drugs targeting lymphocytes

A

antimetabolites
calcineurin inhibitors
M-TOR inhibitors
IL-2 receptor mABs

72
Q

calcineurin/m-TOR use

A

transplantation

autoimmune diseases

73
Q

mechanism of action of methotrexate

A

folate antagonists

74
Q

side effects of methotrexate

A

all - BM supression, GI upset, hepatitis, infections

MTX - pneumonitis

75
Q

anti-cytokines

A

Anti-TNF
Anti-IL-6
Anti- IL-1

76
Q

what is rituximab

A

chimeric mAb against CD20 B cell surface

lymphomas, leukaemias, transplant rejection, autoimmune disorders

77
Q

adoptive immunptherapy

A

BMT

SCT

78
Q

uses of BMT, SCT

A

SCID
lymphomas and leukaemias
inherited metabolic disorders
autoimmune diseases

79
Q

when is allergen specific immunotherapy used?

A

allergic rhinoconjunctivitis

anaphylaxis to insect venoms

80
Q

deficiency in normal gut flora e.g. by antibiotics

A

C.Diff

candida

81
Q

qualitative neutrophil defects

A

lose ability to kill or chemotaxis

82
Q

quantitative neutrophil defects

A

less in number

cancer treatment, bm malignancy, aplastic anaemia, drugs

83
Q

qualitative chemotaxis

A

rare, congenital

84
Q

qualitative killing power

A

chronic granulomatous disease - risk of s. aureus infections

85
Q

quantitative neutrophil defect infections

A

high mortality
empirical therapy
pseudomonal infections

86
Q

neutropenic patients

A

bacterial - e. coli, s. aureus, coag neg staph

fungal - candida, aspergillus

87
Q

treatment of neutropenic patient infection

A

broad spectrum antibiotics
antipseudomonal penicillin +/- gentamicin
2nd line treatment - a carbapenem

88
Q

T-cell deficiencies

A

congenital - T helper dysfunction
acquired - drugs e.g. ciclosporin after transplantation
acquired - viruses e.g. HIV

89
Q

T-cell deficiency diseases - what type of infections?

A

opportunistic pathogens

90
Q

bacterial pathogens in T cell deficiencies

A

listeria monocytogenes, mycobacteria

91
Q

Viral pathogens in T cell deficiencies

A

HSV, CMV, VZV

92
Q

treatment of viral infections in T cell deficiencies

A

aciclovir and ganciclovir

93
Q

fungal infections in T cell deficiencies

A

candida

cryptococcus

94
Q

T cell deficiencies protozoan and parasitic infections -

A

cryptosporidium parvum - diarrhoea
over 3 wk illness
symptomatic treatment

Toxoplasma gonadii - cats

95
Q

what is hypogammaglobinaemias

A

antibody deficiencies

96
Q

hypergammaglobaemias

A

congenital - X-linked agammaglobinaemia

aquired - multiple myeloma and burns

97
Q

bacterial infection in antibody deficiency

A

encapsulated bacteria e.g. s. pneumoniae

98
Q

parasitic infection in antibody deficiency

A

giardia lamblia

99
Q

complement deficiency infections

A

frequent, serious S.Pneumoniae infections

N. meningitidis

100
Q

what are biologics

A

antibodies or other peptides

101
Q

what do biologics do

A

inhibit inflammatory cytokine signals e.g. TNF

102
Q

where are biologics used

A

severe rheumatoid arthritis

103
Q

risks of infection when using biologics

A

TB, HZV, legionella, pneumophilia, listeria monocytogenes

Clinical Pathology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions