Immunomodulatory agents Flashcards

1
Q

MOA apremilast:

A
  • Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor (PDE-4 inhibitor)

- Ricky bobby voice: “if you “4th (PDE-4)” you’re “last (apremilast)”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the Janus kinase inhibitors:

A
  • Tofacitinib
  • Ruxolitinib

JAK- RT, pronounce “JAKeRT”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tofacitinib MOA:

A
  • JAK 1 and 3 inhibitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ruxolitinib MOA:

A
  • JAK 1 and 2 inhibitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Azathioprine MOA:

A
  • inhibits purine metabolism and cell division (particularly in fast growing cells like lymphocytes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What converts azathioprine into inactive metabolites?

A
  • Xanthine oxidase and thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common AE of azathioprine?

A
  • GI upset (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AE’s of azathioprine:

A
  • immunosuppression
  • leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
  • SCC and lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Azathioprine is pregnancy category ____

A
  • D

- get pregnancy test before starting any woman of childbearing age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cyclosporine MOA:

A
  • inhibits calcineurin, which downstream will decrease IL-2 production—> decreased numbers of CD4 and CD8 cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AE’s of cyclosporine

A
  • nephrotoxicity and HTN are the two most notable AE’s and are dose dependent.
  • gingival hyperplasia
  • hypertrichosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cyclosporine should be _____ adjusted and should not be prescribed for more than ____ amount of time in a row

A
  • renally adjusted at it is nephrotoxic

- maximum of one year of continual treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Psoriasis patients on cyclosporine therapy for >2 years have increased risk of _____

A
  • NMSC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lab/vitals to check prior to cyclosporine administration:

A
  • kidney function (nephrotoxic)
  • Blood pressure (can cause HTN)
  • uric acid (can cause hyperuricemia/gout)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How often to recheck labs when on cyclosporine?

A
  • every 2 weeks for first 2 months, then once monthly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Methotrexate MOA:

A
  • inhibits dihydrofolate reductase–> decreased purine synthesis—> cell division)
17
Q

“Antidote” for Methotrexate overdose:

A
  • Leucovorin rescue
18
Q

______ decreases MTX AE’s

A
  • folic acid supplementation
19
Q

AE’s of MTX:

A
  • GI upset
  • pancytopenia
  • stomatitis
  • hepatic fibrosis
  • photosensitivity
20
Q

MTX is pregnancy category ____

A
  • X

- MT”X”

21
Q

Baseline labs for MTX:

A
  • CBC with diff (can cause agranulocytosis/myelosuppresion)
  • LFT’s (liver fibrosis)
  • BUN/Cr
  • viral hepatitis screen
22
Q

What to do when MTX causes myelosuppresion?

A
  • Leucovorin rescue
23
Q

Mycophenalate Mofetil MOA:

A
  • inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (which leads to decreased purine synthesis)
24
Q

Mycophenalate mofetil requires____ to get into its active form.

A
  • gastric acidity
25
Q

most common AE’s of mycophenalate mofetil:

A
  • GI upset (diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain)
26
Q

Baseline labs for mycophenalate mofetil:

A
  • CBC w/ diff
  • BMP
  • LFT’s
  • hep B, C panel
  • TB screen
  • pregnancy test
27
Q

Mycophenalate mofetil is pregnancy category ___

A
  • D