Immunology Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Molecules that bind to antibodies

A

Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ability to react to antibodies

A

Antigenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Molecules that induce immune responses, (Humoral & Cell mediated responses).

A

Immunogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ability to induce immune response.

A

Immunogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In most cases, antigens are ___, & terms are used interchangeably.
But there are certain exceptions; ___ are important example.

A

Immunogens

Haptens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___ are small molecules that consist only of a determinant group & are too small by themselves to elicit an ___response.

A

Haptens

Immune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Many drugs, such as ___, are haptens

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Catechol in the plant oils that cause ___ and ___ are haptens.

A

Poison Oak

Poison Ivy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Haptens are not immunogenic, because they cannot activate ___.

A

Helper t cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Haptens are univalent & cannot activate ___ by themselves.

A

B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Haptens cannot stimulate a primary or secondary response by themselves; they can only do so when covalently bound to a ___ ___

A

Carrier Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Molecules recognized as ___ are not immunogenic

A

self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

: The most potent immunogens are proteins with high molecular weight; (above 100,000) ___ and ___ are the most potent immunogens (respectively).

A

proteins

polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Amino acids (___) are weaker immunogenic than ___ containing two or three different amino acids.

A

homopolymers

heteropolymers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Small chemical groups of the antigen molecules that can elicit & react with antibody.

A

Epitopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most antigens have many ___, & are ___.

A

epitopes

multivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

___ is the main criterion of antigenic specificity

A

Overall 3D structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dosage, Route, & Timing of Antigen/ Immunogen Administration can all affect __

A

Immunogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The ___ constitution of the host determines whether a molecule is immunogenic.

A

Genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

___ enhance the immune response to an immunogen.

A

Adjuvants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adjuvants are chemically unrelated to the immunogen & may act by ___ stimulating the ___ cells or by releasing the immunogen slowly.

A

nonspecifically

Immunoreactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

molecules on self tissues for which tolerance is inadequate.

A

Autoantigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cell surface marker of one individual that are antigens to another of that same species.

A

Alloantigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

-molecules from unrelated species that bear similar antigenic determinants.

A

Heterophilic Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
___ are bacterial toxins that are a potent stimuli for T-cells. Their presence in an infection activates T-cells at a rate __ times greater than ordinary antigens. The results can be an overwhelming release of ___ and ___.
Superantigens 100 cytokines cell death
26
toxic shock syndrome & certain autoimmune disease are associated with this class of antigens.
Superantigens
27
The capacity to induce specific immunological non-responsiveness in humoral /cell mediated response (the body recognizes it as foreign, but does not respond to do it).
Tollergenicity
28
___ will respond to any immunogen
B-cells
29
___ will only respond to the protein structure of a chain.
T-cells
30
Antibodies raised against a ___ antigen from one organism will cross-react with a similar or identical antigen from another source.
heterophilic
31
___ antigens may play a part in disease such as rheumatic fever & in false positive diagnostic tests (as occur in syphilis).
Heterophilic
32
Immunoglobins are ___ proteins on the surface of ___ that react specifically with the antigens
Globulin | B-cells
33
Antibodies (Immunoglobins) constitute __% of proteins in blood
20
34
Antibodies are secreted by ___ cells
plasma
35
Antibody is made up of __ and __ Polypeptide chains
Light (L) | Heavy (H)
36
__ regions in both chains are responsible for antigen binding
Variable (V)
37
Structure of Immunoglobins: __ shape w/ __ polypeptide chains (_L & _H) Held together by ___ bond
``` Y 4 2 2 disulfide ```
38
C region in __ chain is for various biologic functions (complement activation & binding to cell surface receptors).
H
39
C region in __ chain has no known biological function.
L
40
__ & __ regions are composed of three dimensionally folded, repeating segments called ___ Hinge region: ___ bond will be broken in response to enzyme such as ___.
``` V C Domains peptide papain ```
41
Antibody in treatment with papain enzyme produces two ___ fragments:
identical
42
___ carry the antigen binding sites, varies from one antibody to another and each has a unique shape for specific antigen.
Fab fragments
43
___ is involved for placental transfer, complement fixation, attachment to various cells type & other and biological activities
Fc fragment
44
Functions of Fab
Neutralize toxins Neutralize viruses Opsonize microbe Activate complement Prevent the attachment of microbes to mucosal surfaces Having a catalytic (enzymatic) capability Agglutination
45
___ contain an effector molecule that can bind to certain receptors on the membrane of cells, such as macrophages, neutrophils eosinophils, masT-cells, basophile & lymphocytes, which mediate inflammation & allergy.
Fc's
46
___ is 80 % of immunoglobulin in the blood
IgG
47
IgG structure is ___
monomeric
48
IgG activates ___
complement
49
Only immunoglobin that can pass through placenta (up to 3 months after birth)
IgG
50
IgG functions in ___ response
secondary
51
After 3 months, infants will start to make ___
IgG
52
IgM constitutes __% of immunoglobulin in the blood
5-10
53
IgM structure is ___
Pentomeric (5 units)
54
IgM has __ binding sites, held together by ___, which allows the molecules to pass through __.
10 J chains Mucous Membranes
55
__ has the highest activity
IgM
56
___ agglutinate/clump together 100-1000 time more particles than IgG.
IgM
57
The fetus will start to make IgM at __ months of ___.
5 | gestation
58
IgM functions in ___ response
primary
59
IgA is __% of circulating antibodies
10-15
60
Serum IgA with __ structure, present in ___ in very small amount, & function in absorption of ___
Dimeric serum B12
61
Secretory IgA has a ___ structure and is held together by ___
dimeric | J-chain
62
Secretory IgA is found in...
``` Tears Saliva Sweat Semen Mucous Breast Milk ```
63
Secretory IgA is associated with ___ cells and can pass through ___
MALT | Mucous Membrane
64
IgA has a special component called the ___ component, which prevent breakdown from the___ enzyme present in ___
secretory lytic mucous membranes
65
Secretory IgA in Breast milk protect the ___ of the child during the first months of life, & the extent that the maternal ___ remains in child system.
GI Tract | IgG
66
IgE is __% in circulation
0.05
67
__ portion of IgE has a high affinity to bind with ___ & ___ & is therefore removed from circulation.
Fc masT-cells Basophils
68
IgE has a ___ strucure
Monomeric
69
Increased concentration of IgE indicates ___ infection or ___ reaction.
Parasitic | Hypersensitivity
70
IgD is __% in circulation
0.2
71
IgD has affinity to bind with ___
B-cell
72
IgD is a trigger for ___ B-cells to become active ___ cells
memory | active
73
Complement factor consists of 25-30 blood proteins that work to destroy bacteria & certain viruses by facilitating ___ or ___ in the cell membrane of bacteria
phagocytosis | digesting holes
74
Complement factor causes ___ responses
inflammatory
75
Blood proteins that originate from liver
Hepatocytes Lymphocytes Monocytes
76
Complement functions as a ___ reaction
cascade
77
Anaphylatoxins cause:
Increased vessel permeability Increased leukocyte adhesion Chemotaxic actvity Stimulate phagocytosis
78
Function of Opsonins
Helps bind pathogen to phagocyte and facilitates phagocytosis
79
As a result of activation, complement functions as an ___. Activated __ that is produced during complement activation is the most important opsonin for activation of ___ cells.
opsonin C3 Phagocytic
80
IgG can also function as opsonin by binding to __ receptor of phagocytic cells. Because of the lack of Fc receptor on phagocytic cells, ___ cannot function as opsonin & complement-mediated opsonization is important during a primary antibody response.
Fc | IgM
81
Activated C3 initiates the activation of complement components ___ through cascade reaction, & creates a huge ring shaped protein, termed ___.
C5-C9 | Membrane attack complex
82
. Deficiency in the early lectin & classical pathways (C1, C2, & C4) cause type __ hypersensitivity (immune complex disease). Immune complex remains insoluble & would not be removed from the system.
III
83
Deficiency in early components can cause the autoimmune disease ___. Deficiency or low level C1, C2, C4 & C3 can cause ___
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) | Recurrent Bacterial Infection
84
Deficiency of the MAC (C5-9) results in higher risk of ___ infection
Neisseria
85
MHC
Major Histocompatibility Complex (
86
This receptor complex plays a major role in recognition of self by the immune system & in rejection of foreign tissue.
Major Histocompatibility Complex (
87
The genes are located in on the sixth chromosome, clustered in a multigene complex of three subgroups called class I, class II, class & class III
Major Histocompatibility Complex (
88
This gene complex gives rise to a series of glycoproteins (called MHC antigens) found on all enucleated cells.
Major Histocompatibility Complex (
89
genes code allows for recognition of self - molecules & regulation of immune reactions. This is required for certain T-cells.
Class I MHC
90
3 sub- types for Class 1 MHC
1. Type A with T-Suppressor cell 2. Type B with T-Cytotoxic cell 3. Type C with T- Memory cell
91
code for immune regulatory receptors, but for the receptors that recognize & react with foreign antigens.Located on macrophages - B-cells & is involved in presenting antigens to T- helper cells during cooperative immune reactions.
Class II MHC
92
It codes for molecules for certain secreted complement component Such as C2 & C4.
Class III MHC:
93
Although humans are genetically the same species, the cells of each individual express molecules that are foreign (antigenic) to other humans, which is now the term Histo-(tissue) compatibility (acceptance) originated.
Histocompatibility Antigen:
94
In most immune reactions, the antigen must be formally presented to lymphocytes by special cells (Macrophages, dendritic cells, & B-cells) called ______ These cells display peptide-MHC complex for recognition to T lymphocyte cells.
Antigen Presenting Cells (APC’s):
95
Peptides from ____ ____ antigens are 8-10 amino acids long & are derived from host or viral proteins synthesized in the cytosol. These peptides are presented on the cell surface complex with _____ _____ molecules.
endogenous processed, class I MHC
96
Peptides from processed exogenous antigens are presented on the cell surface in the groove of MHC class II molecules. These peptides are derived from proteins containing antigens that enter the cell by a process called endocytosis.
Exogenous antigen processing:
97
``` These cells are nucleated & express MHC class I molecules, as well as MHC class II molecules. They can therefore present both endogenous & exogenous antigens. ```
- B lymphocytes - Macrophages & monocytes - Langerhans cells. - Some epithelial cells - Dendritic cells
98
_____ _____ _____, usually protein based, require recognition steps between the macrophage, antigen & lymphocyte
T-cell-dependent antigens
99
The first T-cells on the scene to assist the macrophage in activating B-cells, & other T-cells are a special class of _____
helper T-cells (TH)
100
Once identification has occurred, a cytokine, ________ produced by macrophage, activates the T helper cells (mature, & proliferate)
iterleukin-1
101
______ stimulates a general increase in the activity of committed B-cells & T-cells.
interleukin-2
102
______ are usually simple molecules such as carbohydrates, LPS, polysaccharides, of capsules that can trigger a response from B-cells without the cooperation of macrophages or T helper cells.
T -cell independent antigens
103
______ such as bacterial membranes & viral particles require a macrophage & a T-helper cell to activate other lymphocytes.
Particulate antigens
104
_____ Antigens, such as toxins & venoms, through receptor mediated endocytosis will be internalized in B-cells & be presented as B-cell class __ MHC protein (B-cell can function as its own APC). T-cells cannot internalize antigens & cannot function as their own APCs.
Soluble, II
105
The function of Plasma cells is to secrete _____ with the same specificity as the original receptor
antibodies
106
Antibody & memory B-cells generate _____ immunity.
Humoral
107
Each______ is initially sensitized when antigen is bound to its receptor
T-cell
108
The subset T-cells (T- helper, T-suppressor, T-cytotoxic, & T-delayed hypersensitivity) & memory T-cells generate _____ _____ Immunity
cell mediated
109
most long lived blood cells
memory T-cells
110
4 phases of Primary response
Latent period Exponential period Steady period Decline Period
111
The earliest part of the response that is marked by lack of antibodies against exposed antigen (7-10 days).
Latent Period
112
The antibody titer in serum increases to a certain plateau.
exponential period
113
The antibody titer remains constant for a short period of time when the production & degradation of antibody is balanced.
Steady period
114
``` The antibody titer tapers off to a low level over a few weeks or months. Early in the primary response, most of the antibodies are the IgM type, which is the first class to be secreted by secreted by naive plasma cells. Later, the class of antibody is switched to IgG ```
Decline Period
115
When the immune system is exposed to the same immunogen within weeks, months, or even years, a _____ response occurs
secondary
116
In a secondary response the rate of antibody production, the peak titer & the length of antibody persistence are greatly increased over the _____ response (exponential period).
primary
117
The rapidity & amplification seen in the Secondary response are related to the _______cells (IgG production) that were formed during primary response.
memory B- forms the basis for vaccinations
118
Is genetically based, & individuals are born with it (species, racial & individual).
Native state of immunity
119
Acquired during life after birth (natural & artificial).
active state of immunity
120
: When immunity is transferred from one individual to another by transferring immune cells or serum from an immunized individual to an un-immunized individual
Passive state of immunity
121
Immune response to antigens may sometimes be excessive, causing harm or inconvenience to the host. The host is said to be ________
hypersensitive
122
Antigens that would usually pose no danger to the host were it not for the hypersensitivity, these antigens called _______
allergens
123
There are __ major type of hypersensitivity
4
124
Type I: (Allergic) reactions: Mediated by IgE antibodies IgE binds with ______ or _______ in the tissue, which will be the trigger on second exposure to release substances from their granules. Reactions are rapid, occurring within 2-30 minutes (Immediate type)
basophils, masT-cells
125
Type II: (Cytotoxic) reactions: IgG or IgM antibodies are directed against antigen on the surface of cells. This may lead to cytotoxic action by ____ or activate the ______ cascade, which initiates the destruction of the cells.
K-cells, complement
126
Type III: (Immune Complex) reactions: IgG or IgM antibodies bind to antigens, form a complex & accumulate in the circulation or tissue, then activate the complement cascade. Granulocytes are attracted to the site of activation, & damage results from the release of ____ enzymes from their granules. Reaction occurs within hours of exposure to the _____.
lytic, antigen
127
Type IV: (Delayed) Cell mediated Immunity reactions: (Tuberculin test reaction). Antigen sensitized T-cells release _______ following a secondary contact with the same antigen. Lymphokines induce inflammatory reactions, activate & attract _______, which release mediators.
lymphokines, macrophages
128
Most clear examples for type ___ reactions are seen in the response to red blood cells. These may occur following incompatible _____ transfusions.
II,blood
129
In general, persons with blood types __,__&___ inherit a gene for the enzyme that adds a certain terminal sugar to the RBC receptor. Type-__ persons do not have such enzyme & lack the terminal sugar. (figure)
A, B, & AB | O
130
mismatched transfusion eg type A blood given to type O person will result in ________ via by hemolysis, opsonization & increased phagocytosis
Hemoglobinuria
131
_______ can clog up the filtering mechanism of the kidney & lead to tubular necrosis which may result in kidney failure.
Hemoglobinuria