Immunology II Flashcards
CDC grade 1
0 - 10% cell death
CDC grade 2
11 - 20% cell death
CDC grade 4
21 - 50% cell death
CDC grade 6
51 - 80% cell death
CDC grade 8
81 - 100% cell death
CDC grade 0
Well is unreadable
Vital dyes stain
Dead cells (live cells actively pump dye out)
Supravital dyes stain
Live cells (leak out of dead cells)
NaOH does this to DNA
Denatures it
cDNA is derived from _______ and thus contains no ______.
RNA; introns
Positive and negative T selection occurs ________ TCR gene rearrrangement
After
Primers and probes bind to their targets through which kind of bonds?
hydrogen
cytokine that plays critical role in up-regulation of HLA-DR
INF gamma
What size probe would be expected to have a single target in the haploid genome of 3.3. x 10^9 bp?
16bp
dUTP can be used in place of ____ in PCRto prevent carryover from previous amplifications. This substitution results in uracil-containing PCR products that are suitable for most standard applications.
dTTP
The ___’ end accepts GTP in the presence of DNA polymerase and is the critical portion for determining the specificity of the primer
3
normality = molarity when in solution of ________.
glucose
Lymphocyte source with greatest number of B cells
spleen
PCR leads to ______ amplification
geometric aka exponential
Temperature at which denaturation occurs in PCR
92 - 95C
Temperature at which annealing occurs during PCR
45 - 60C
Temperature at which extension occurs during PCR
70 - 75C
Ideal pH for PCR
8.3 - 8.8
Caspases cleave proteins at _______ residues
aspartic acid
2 pathways that trigger caspases
Mitochondrial and death receptor
Mitochondria release ________ into cytoplasm where it joins ______ to activate ________.
cytocrhome c; apaf-1; caspase-9
Death receptor pathway is ________ induced and leads to cross linking of ______, which allows binding to ______ and subsequent activation of _______.
activation (extrinsic); Fas; FADD; caspase-8
Positive T-cell selection occurs in the medullary _____
cortex
Negative T-cell selection occurs in the medullary _____
medulla
_____ promotes the ectopic transcriptional activity of a large number of chromosomal locations, thereby enhancing the expression by medullary epithelial cells (MECs) of genes that would normally only be expressed in specific tissues.
Autoimmune regulator (Aire) gene
T-cell costimulator
CD28
CD28 engages _____(_____/______) on B-cells
B7 (CD80/CD86)
Engagement of TCR with MHC without costimulatory molecule activation leads to _______.
anergy
______ minds to CD80/CD86 with higher affinity than _____ and is inhibitory, leading to anergy
CTLA-4; CD28
Trees require ________, the ‘master regulator’ transcription factor
FoxP3
Tregs bind _____ via _____ which deprives conventional T-cells and leads to anergy. They also down regulate inflammatory markers such as _____ and _____
IL-2; CD25 receptor; IL-6; TNF
Tregs secrete immunosuppressive cytokines including _____, ______, and _____. ______ can induce B-cells to become regulatory cells
IL-10, TGF-b, IL-35; TGF-b
____ inhibits expression of costimulators and MHC class II molecules on Mφ and DC
IL-10
PD1 induces state of _______ by ______ T-cell function.
unresponsiveness; inhibit
NK cell liscencing: NK cells require signaling through ______ receptor to become activated and gain maximal effector functions.
inhibitory
Mast cell protease 6 (MCP6) depletes _____
IL-6
Tregs produce ______ which limits mast cell degranulation.
IL-9
Chromosome on which H chain is located
14
Chromosome on which kappa chain is located
2
Chromosome on which lamda chain is located
22
Chromosome on which alpha chain is located
14
Chromosome on which beta chain is located
7
Chromosome on which gamma chain is located
7
Chromosome on which delta chain is located
11
Light chains have ____ and ____ gene segments but lack _____ genes
variable (v); joining (J); diversity (D)
Antigen recognition by T-cell induces expression of _____ ligand and cytokines by the Th2 cell, which activate the B-cell
CD40
Costimulatory molecule, ______, on naive T-cell, binds ____/______ on APC.
CD28; CD80/CD86 (B7)
Effector T-cells do not require ______ to recognize and kill target cells
co-stimulation
Th1 signature cytokines
INF-gamma, IL-2
Th1 immune reactions
Macrophage activation and IgG production
Th2 signature cytokines
IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
Th2 immune reactions
Mast cell and eosinophil activation, IgE production; “alternative” macrophage activation
Th17 signature cytokines
IL-17A, IL-17F, IL-22
Th17 immune reactions
Neutrophilic and monocytic inflammation
gamma-delta T-cells do not recognize _______ and are not ________
MHC-associated peptides; MHC restricted
_____ recognize ______ that are bound to class I MHC-like molecules called _____.
NKT; lipids: CD1
Indel in 3’UTR alters binding of miR-148a adn OCt1 binding site in transcription start site effect levels of ____ expression
HLA-C
A patient with ‘‘n’’ sibling has this chance of having one identical sibling.
1 - (.75)^n
Frequency of genetic recombination between A and B loci
0.8
Frequency of genetic recombination between B and DR loci
0.5
Frequency of genetic recombination between A and C loci
0.06
Frequency of genetic recombination between B and C loci
0.02
Soluble HLA antigens ____ in infection, inflammation and transplant rejection; however, _____ in malignancies.
rise; decline
Soluble HLA antigens in blood products are _______ to the number of residual leukocytes and the length of storage.
proportionate
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 4 antigens matched
A
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens detected in donor, all match
B1U
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens match, 1 cross-reactive
B1X
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 antigens detected in donor, both match
B2U
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens detected in donor, 2 match and 1 cross-reactive
B2UX
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 donor antigens match, 2 cross-reactive
B2X
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 1 donor mismatch
C
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 antigen mismatch
D
TRALI can be caused by _____ HLA antibodies to _____ HLA antigens
donor; recipient
Bg(a)
B7
Bg(b)
B17
Bg(c)
A28
Hardy -Weinberg principle assumes…. (5)
- random mating
- low mutation rate
- no emigration or immigration
- No selection
- Large population
Inflammasomes trigger caspase-1 activation to cause the secretion of these cytokines
IL-1 beta and IL-18 beta
This IgG subclass can inhibit complement activation
IgG4
A minimum of this number of IgG molecules required fro C1q binding
2
Pronase treatment of lymphocytes generally is used to decrease background reactivity on XM, however, it can can actually cause false positive reactions in this setting.
HIV
Antigen receptor for naive B lymphocytes
IgD
Hardy Weinberg Equation
p^2 + 2pq + q^2
Odds ratio is used in _______ studies
Case-control (cases vs. controls)
Relative risk is used in _______ studies
Cohort (allele vs. no allele)
Class Ib molecules include
MICA, MICB, CD1, HFE, Neonatal Fc receptor
MHC pseudogenes include
MICC, MICD, MICE
symbol for number of alleles at locus
k
allele frequency equation
Number of counted instances of allele x / 2n
algorithm that estimates haplotype frequencies most likely to result in a set of observed genotypes at population level (not individual)
expectation-maximization(EM)
Linkage disequilibrium equation
D = f(haplotype AB) -f(A)*f(B)
If linkage disequilibrium equals ____ then alleles are in linkage _______
0; equilibrium
Natural selection theory in which alleles in a population gained (high freq) and lost (low freq) at random (mutation/genetic drift)
Neutral
Natural selection theory in which one or few alleles in a population are favored/advantageous
Directional (positive or negative)
Natural selection theory in which single allele does not predominate as diversity is advantageous in a population
Balancing
These equations test for departures from neutral expectations, however ______ equation considers nucleotide differences between alleles in addition to their population frequencies
Ewens-Watterson and Tajima; Tajima
This test measures the number of standard deviations by which an observed homozygosity value deviates from the expected neutral value (the null hypothesis).
Fnd
Compares homozygosity(F) under HWE for sample size n and k alleles to F expected under neutrality (equation)
Ewens-Watterson (F= sum pi^2)
Under balancing selection, Ewens-Watterson will be _____
low
Under directional selection, Ewens-Watterson will be ____
high
Tajima’s test: when neutral selection is present, D equals
0
Tajima’s test: when directional selection is present, D is _____
negative
Tajima’s test: when balancing selection is present, D is ____
positive
Equation that measures measures of genetic differentiation in heterozygosity between populations
FST= (HT–HS)/ HT
Describes the relationship between a dichotomous or binary dependent variable and a set of independent variables
Logistic regression analysis
Equation that tests the difference (independence) of frequency distributions for categorical variables between groups
Chi-square test
Chromosome which T-cell epsilon chain is on
11
CD-52 inhibitor
Alemtuzemab
Most common cause of renal allograft loss and death in renal transplant patients
infection
An eplet is a _______ epitope, which is made up of cluster of exposed AA within _______ radius
structural; 3 - 3.5 Angstroms
A structural epitope is ________ square Angstroms that is composed of ________ AA
700 - 900; 15 -22
CDR that is thought to determine the majority of binding specificity
H3
Codon for Aspartic acid
GAT, GAC
Molecule that functions to bind DAMPs/PAMPs intracellularly
NOD2
D40L is this CD antigen
CD154
Secondary immune response occurs within _______
1-3 days
T-cell independent B-cell antibody responses are done by ________
Marginal zone B-cells and B1 cells
T-cell dependent B-cell antibody responses are made by _________
Follicular B-cells
______ antigens are able to activate B cells without _______ help
Non-protein/T-cell
agarose gels are good for running amplicons of _____ to ______ bp
200 - 50,000
IFN-gamma is released by ________ and ______ cells
T and NK
Most important risk factor in renal patients for PTLD is ________
intensity of immunosuppressive therapy
Organ ischemia time is associated with _________
chronic rejection
T-cell depleted allogeneic stem cell transplant can _______ incidence of ______ but can lead to ________ incidence of ________
decrease/GVHD/increase/relapse
LMP encode _______ subunits that ________ protein into peptides in preparation for antigen prevention
proteosomal/degrade
Cytokine that is responsible for producing fever (aka endogenous pyrogen)
IL-1
_________ minor histocompatibility antigen that may explain the increased risk of _______ in male to female allograft transplants and the increased risk ______ in female to male stem cell transplants.
HY antigen/rejection/GVHD
Thymic selection leads to apoptosis of _______% of developing T cells
> 90
Steps in T-cell activation signaling pathway
- MHC/TCR engagement
- Costimulator engagement
- Tyrosine phosphorylation
- Calcium release
- Activation of cytokine (e.g., IL-2) genes
CD45 is this type of protein
tyrosine phosphoratase
