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HLA > Immunology II > Flashcards

Immunology II Flashcards

1
Q

CDC grade 1

A

0 - 10% cell death

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2
Q

CDC grade 2

A

11 - 20% cell death

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3
Q

CDC grade 4

A

21 - 50% cell death

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4
Q

CDC grade 6

A

51 - 80% cell death

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5
Q

CDC grade 8

A

81 - 100% cell death

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6
Q

CDC grade 0

A

Well is unreadable

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7
Q

Vital dyes stain

A

Dead cells (live cells actively pump dye out)

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8
Q

Supravital dyes stain

A

Live cells (leak out of dead cells)

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9
Q

NaOH does this to DNA

A

Denatures it

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10
Q

cDNA is derived from _______ and thus contains no ______.

A

RNA; introns

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11
Q

Positive and negative T selection occurs ________ TCR gene rearrrangement

A

After

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12
Q

Primers and probes bind to their targets through which kind of bonds?

A

hydrogen

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13
Q

cytokine that plays critical role in up-regulation of HLA-DR

A

INF gamma

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14
Q

What size probe would be expected to have a single target in the haploid genome of 3.3. x 10^9 bp?

A

16bp

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15
Q

dUTP can be used in place of ____ in PCRto prevent carryover from previous amplifications. This substitution results in uracil-containing PCR products that are suitable for most standard applications.

A

dTTP

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16
Q

The ___’ end accepts GTP in the presence of DNA polymerase and is the critical portion for determining the specificity of the primer

A

3

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17
Q

normality = molarity when in solution of ________.

A

glucose

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18
Q

Lymphocyte source with greatest number of B cells

A

spleen

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19
Q

PCR leads to ______ amplification

A

geometric aka exponential

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20
Q

Temperature at which denaturation occurs in PCR

A

92 - 95C

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21
Q

Temperature at which annealing occurs during PCR

A

45 - 60C

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22
Q

Temperature at which extension occurs during PCR

A

70 - 75C

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23
Q

Ideal pH for PCR

A

8.3 - 8.8

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24
Q

Caspases cleave proteins at _______ residues

A

aspartic acid

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25
Q

2 pathways that trigger caspases

A

Mitochondrial and death receptor

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26
Q

Mitochondria release ________ into cytoplasm where it joins ______ to activate ________.

A

cytocrhome c; apaf-1; caspase-9

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27
Q

Death receptor pathway is ________ induced and leads to cross linking of ______, which allows binding to ______ and subsequent activation of _______.

A

activation (extrinsic); Fas; FADD; caspase-8

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28
Q

Positive T-cell selection occurs in the medullary _____

A

cortex

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29
Q

Negative T-cell selection occurs in the medullary _____

A

medulla

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30
Q

_____ promotes the ectopic transcriptional activity of a large number of chromosomal locations, thereby enhancing the expression by medullary epithelial cells (MECs) of genes that would normally only be expressed in specific tissues.

A

Autoimmune regulator (Aire) gene

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31
Q

T-cell costimulator

A

CD28

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32
Q

CD28 engages _____(_____/______) on B-cells

A

B7 (CD80/CD86)

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33
Q

Engagement of TCR with MHC without costimulatory molecule activation leads to _______.

A

anergy

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34
Q

______ minds to CD80/CD86 with higher affinity than _____ and is inhibitory, leading to anergy

A

CTLA-4; CD28

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35
Q

Trees require ________, the ‘master regulator’ transcription factor

A

FoxP3

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36
Q

Tregs bind _____ via _____ which deprives conventional T-cells and leads to anergy. They also down regulate inflammatory markers such as _____ and _____

A

IL-2; CD25 receptor; IL-6; TNF

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37
Q

Tregs secrete immunosuppressive cytokines including _____, ______, and _____. ______ can induce B-cells to become regulatory cells

A

IL-10, TGF-b, IL-35; TGF-b

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38
Q

____ inhibits expression of costimulators and MHC class II molecules on Mφ and DC

A

IL-10

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39
Q

PD1 induces state of _______ by ______ T-cell function.

A

unresponsiveness; inhibit

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40
Q

NK cell liscencing: NK cells require signaling through ______ receptor to become activated and gain maximal effector functions.

A

inhibitory

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41
Q

Mast cell protease 6 (MCP6) depletes _____

A

IL-6

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42
Q

Tregs produce ______ which limits mast cell degranulation.

A

IL-9

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43
Q

Chromosome on which H chain is located

A

14

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44
Q

Chromosome on which kappa chain is located

A

2

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45
Q

Chromosome on which lamda chain is located

A

22

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46
Q

Chromosome on which alpha chain is located

A

14

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47
Q

Chromosome on which beta chain is located

A

7

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48
Q

Chromosome on which gamma chain is located

A

7

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49
Q

Chromosome on which delta chain is located

A

11

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50
Q

Light chains have ____ and ____ gene segments but lack _____ genes

A

variable (v); joining (J); diversity (D)

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51
Q

Antigen recognition by T-cell induces expression of _____ ligand and cytokines by the Th2 cell, which activate the B-cell

A

CD40

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52
Q

Costimulatory molecule, ______, on naive T-cell, binds ____/______ on APC.

A

CD28; CD80/CD86 (B7)

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53
Q

Effector T-cells do not require ______ to recognize and kill target cells

A

co-stimulation

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54
Q

Th1 signature cytokines

A

INF-gamma, IL-2

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55
Q

Th1 immune reactions

A

Macrophage activation and IgG production

56
Q

Th2 signature cytokines

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

57
Q

Th2 immune reactions

A

Mast cell and eosinophil activation, IgE production; “alternative” macrophage activation

58
Q

Th17 signature cytokines

A

IL-17A, IL-17F, IL-22

59
Q

Th17 immune reactions

A

Neutrophilic and monocytic inflammation

60
Q

gamma-delta T-cells do not recognize _______ and are not ________

A

MHC-associated peptides; MHC restricted

61
Q

_____ recognize ______ that are bound to class I MHC-like molecules called _____.

A

NKT; lipids: CD1

62
Q

Indel in 3’UTR alters binding of miR-148a adn OCt1 binding site in transcription start site effect levels of ____ expression

A

HLA-C

63
Q

A patient with ‘‘n’’ sibling has this chance of having one identical sibling.

A

1 - (.75)^n

64
Q

Frequency of genetic recombination between A and B loci

A

0.8

65
Q

Frequency of genetic recombination between B and DR loci

A

0.5

66
Q

Frequency of genetic recombination between A and C loci

A

0.06

67
Q

Frequency of genetic recombination between B and C loci

A

0.02

68
Q

Soluble HLA antigens ____ in infection, inflammation and transplant rejection; however, _____ in malignancies.

A

rise; decline

69
Q

Soluble HLA antigens in blood products are _______ to the number of residual leukocytes and the length of storage.

A

proportionate

70
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 4 antigens matched

A

A

71
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens detected in donor, all match

A

B1U

72
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens match, 1 cross-reactive

A

B1X

73
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 antigens detected in donor, both match

A

B2U

74
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens detected in donor, 2 match and 1 cross-reactive

A

B2UX

75
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 donor antigens match, 2 cross-reactive

A

B2X

76
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 1 donor mismatch

A

C

77
Q

Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 antigen mismatch

A

D

78
Q

TRALI can be caused by _____ HLA antibodies to _____ HLA antigens

A

donor; recipient

79
Q

Bg(a)

A

B7

80
Q

Bg(b)

A

B17

81
Q

Bg(c)

A

A28

82
Q

Hardy -Weinberg principle assumes…. (5)

A
  1. random mating
  2. low mutation rate
  3. no emigration or immigration
  4. No selection
  5. Large population
83
Q

Inflammasomes trigger caspase-1 activation to cause the secretion of these cytokines

A

IL-1 beta and IL-18 beta

84
Q

This IgG subclass can inhibit complement activation

A

IgG4

85
Q

A minimum of this number of IgG molecules required fro C1q binding

A

2

86
Q

Pronase treatment of lymphocytes generally is used to decrease background reactivity on XM, however, it can can actually cause false positive reactions in this setting.

A

HIV

87
Q

Antigen receptor for naive B lymphocytes

A

IgD

88
Q

Hardy Weinberg Equation

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2

89
Q

Odds ratio is used in _______ studies

A

Case-control (cases vs. controls)

90
Q

Relative risk is used in _______ studies

A

Cohort (allele vs. no allele)

91
Q

Class Ib molecules include

A

MICA, MICB, CD1, HFE, Neonatal Fc receptor

92
Q

MHC pseudogenes include

A

MICC, MICD, MICE

93
Q

symbol for number of alleles at locus

A

k

94
Q

allele frequency equation

A

Number of counted instances of allele x / 2n

95
Q

algorithm that estimates haplotype frequencies most likely to result in a set of observed genotypes at population level (not individual)

A

expectation-maximization(EM)

96
Q

Linkage disequilibrium equation

A

D = f(haplotype AB) -f(A)*f(B)

97
Q

If linkage disequilibrium equals ____ then alleles are in linkage _______

A

0; equilibrium

98
Q

Natural selection theory in which alleles in a population gained (high freq) and lost (low freq) at random (mutation/genetic drift)

A

Neutral

99
Q

Natural selection theory in which one or few alleles in a population are favored/advantageous

A

Directional (positive or negative)

100
Q

Natural selection theory in which single allele does not predominate as diversity is advantageous in a population

A

Balancing

101
Q

These equations test for departures from neutral expectations, however ______ equation considers nucleotide differences between alleles in addition to their population frequencies

A

Ewens-Watterson and Tajima; Tajima

102
Q

This test measures the number of standard deviations by which an observed homozygosity value deviates from the expected neutral value (the null hypothesis).

A

Fnd

103
Q

Compares homozygosity(F) under HWE for sample size n and k alleles to F expected under neutrality (equation)

A

Ewens-Watterson (F= sum pi^2)

104
Q

Under balancing selection, Ewens-Watterson will be _____

A

low

105
Q

Under directional selection, Ewens-Watterson will be ____

A

high

106
Q

Tajima’s test: when neutral selection is present, D equals

A

0

107
Q

Tajima’s test: when directional selection is present, D is _____

A

negative

108
Q

Tajima’s test: when balancing selection is present, D is ____

A

positive

109
Q

Equation that measures measures of genetic differentiation in heterozygosity between populations

A

FST= (HT–HS)/ HT

110
Q

Describes the relationship between a dichotomous or binary dependent variable and a set of independent variables

A

Logistic regression analysis

111
Q

Equation that tests the difference (independence) of frequency distributions for categorical variables between groups

A

Chi-square test

112
Q

Chromosome which T-cell epsilon chain is on

A

11

113
Q

CD-52 inhibitor

A

Alemtuzemab

114
Q

Most common cause of renal allograft loss and death in renal transplant patients

A

infection

115
Q

An eplet is a _______ epitope, which is made up of cluster of exposed AA within _______ radius

A

structural; 3 - 3.5 Angstroms

116
Q

A structural epitope is ________ square Angstroms that is composed of ________ AA

A

700 - 900; 15 -22

117
Q

CDR that is thought to determine the majority of binding specificity

A

H3

118
Q

Codon for Aspartic acid

A

GAT, GAC

119
Q

Molecule that functions to bind DAMPs/PAMPs intracellularly

A

NOD2

120
Q

D40L is this CD antigen

A

CD154

121
Q

Secondary immune response occurs within _______

A

1-3 days

122
Q

T-cell independent B-cell antibody responses are done by ________

A

Marginal zone B-cells and B1 cells

123
Q

T-cell dependent B-cell antibody responses are made by _________

A

Follicular B-cells

124
Q

______ antigens are able to activate B cells without _______ help

A

Non-protein/T-cell

125
Q

agarose gels are good for running amplicons of _____ to ______ bp

A

200 - 50,000

126
Q

IFN-gamma is released by ________ and ______ cells

A

T and NK

127
Q

Most important risk factor in renal patients for PTLD is ________

A

intensity of immunosuppressive therapy

128
Q

Organ ischemia time is associated with _________

A

chronic rejection

129
Q

T-cell depleted allogeneic stem cell transplant can _______ incidence of ______ but can lead to ________ incidence of ________

A

decrease/GVHD/increase/relapse

130
Q

LMP encode _______ subunits that ________ protein into peptides in preparation for antigen prevention

A

proteosomal/degrade

131
Q

Cytokine that is responsible for producing fever (aka endogenous pyrogen)

A

IL-1

132
Q

_________ minor histocompatibility antigen that may explain the increased risk of _______ in male to female allograft transplants and the increased risk ______ in female to male stem cell transplants.

A

HY antigen/rejection/GVHD

133
Q

Thymic selection leads to apoptosis of _______% of developing T cells

A

> 90

134
Q

Steps in T-cell activation signaling pathway

A
  1. MHC/TCR engagement
  2. Costimulator engagement
  3. Tyrosine phosphorylation
  4. Calcium release
  5. Activation of cytokine (e.g., IL-2) genes
135
Q

CD45 is this type of protein

A

tyrosine phosphoratase

HLA (11 decks)

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