Immunology II Flashcards
1
Q
CDC grade 1
A
0 - 10% cell death
2
Q
CDC grade 2
A
11 - 20% cell death
3
Q
CDC grade 4
A
21 - 50% cell death
4
Q
CDC grade 6
A
51 - 80% cell death
5
Q
CDC grade 8
A
81 - 100% cell death
6
Q
CDC grade 0
A
Well is unreadable
7
Q
Vital dyes stain
A
Dead cells (live cells actively pump dye out)
8
Q
Supravital dyes stain
A
Live cells (leak out of dead cells)
9
Q
NaOH does this to DNA
A
Denatures it
10
Q
cDNA is derived from _______ and thus contains no ______.
A
RNA; introns
11
Q
Positive and negative T selection occurs ________ TCR gene rearrrangement
A
After
12
Q
Primers and probes bind to their targets through which kind of bonds?
A
hydrogen
13
Q
cytokine that plays critical role in up-regulation of HLA-DR
A
INF gamma
14
Q
What size probe would be expected to have a single target in the haploid genome of 3.3. x 10^9 bp?
A
16bp
15
Q
dUTP can be used in place of ____ in PCRto prevent carryover from previous amplifications. This substitution results in uracil-containing PCR products that are suitable for most standard applications.
A
dTTP
16
Q
The ___’ end accepts GTP in the presence of DNA polymerase and is the critical portion for determining the specificity of the primer
A
3
17
Q
normality = molarity when in solution of ________.
A
glucose
18
Q
Lymphocyte source with greatest number of B cells
A
spleen
19
Q
PCR leads to ______ amplification
A
geometric aka exponential
20
Q
Temperature at which denaturation occurs in PCR
A
92 - 95C
21
Q
Temperature at which annealing occurs during PCR
A
45 - 60C
22
Q
Temperature at which extension occurs during PCR
A
70 - 75C
23
Q
Ideal pH for PCR
A
8.3 - 8.8
24
Q
Caspases cleave proteins at _______ residues
A
aspartic acid
25
2 pathways that trigger caspases
Mitochondrial and death receptor
26
Mitochondria release ________ into cytoplasm where it joins ______ to activate ________.
cytocrhome c; apaf-1; caspase-9
27
Death receptor pathway is ________ induced and leads to cross linking of ______, which allows binding to ______ and subsequent activation of _______.
activation (extrinsic); Fas; FADD; caspase-8
28
Positive T-cell selection occurs in the medullary _____
cortex
29
Negative T-cell selection occurs in the medullary _____
medulla
30
_____ promotes the ectopic transcriptional activity of a large number of chromosomal locations, thereby enhancing the expression by medullary epithelial cells (MECs) of genes that would normally only be expressed in specific tissues.
Autoimmune regulator (Aire) gene
31
T-cell costimulator
CD28
32
CD28 engages _____(_____/______) on B-cells
B7 (CD80/CD86)
33
Engagement of TCR with MHC without costimulatory molecule activation leads to _______.
anergy
34
______ minds to CD80/CD86 with higher affinity than _____ and is inhibitory, leading to anergy
CTLA-4; CD28
35
Trees require ________, the ‘master regulator’ transcription factor
FoxP3
36
Tregs bind _____ via _____ which deprives conventional T-cells and leads to anergy. They also down regulate inflammatory markers such as _____ and _____
IL-2; CD25 receptor; IL-6; TNF
37
Tregs secrete immunosuppressive cytokines including _____, ______, and _____. ______ can induce B-cells to become regulatory cells
IL-10, TGF-b, IL-35; TGF-b
38
____ inhibits expression of costimulators and MHC class II molecules on Mφ and DC
IL-10
39
PD1 induces state of _______ by ______ T-cell function.
unresponsiveness; inhibit
40
NK cell liscencing: NK cells require signaling through ______ receptor to become activated and gain maximal effector functions.
inhibitory
41
Mast cell protease 6 (MCP6) depletes _____
IL-6
42
Tregs produce ______ which limits mast cell degranulation.
IL-9
43
Chromosome on which H chain is located
14
44
Chromosome on which kappa chain is located
2
45
Chromosome on which lamda chain is located
22
46
Chromosome on which alpha chain is located
14
47
Chromosome on which beta chain is located
7
48
Chromosome on which gamma chain is located
7
49
Chromosome on which delta chain is located
11
50
Light chains have ____ and ____ gene segments but lack _____ genes
variable (v); joining (J); diversity (D)
51
Antigen recognition by T-cell induces expression of _____ ligand and cytokines by the Th2 cell, which activate the B-cell
CD40
52
Costimulatory molecule, ______, on naive T-cell, binds ____/______ on APC.
CD28; CD80/CD86 (B7)
53
Effector T-cells do not require ______ to recognize and kill target cells
co-stimulation
54
Th1 signature cytokines
INF-gamma, IL-2
55
Th1 immune reactions
Macrophage activation and IgG production
56
Th2 signature cytokines
IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
57
Th2 immune reactions
Mast cell and eosinophil activation, IgE production; "alternative" macrophage activation
58
Th17 signature cytokines
IL-17A, IL-17F, IL-22
59
Th17 immune reactions
Neutrophilic and monocytic inflammation
60
gamma-delta T-cells do not recognize _______ and are not ________
MHC-associated peptides; MHC restricted
61
_____ recognize ______ that are bound to class I MHC-like molecules called _____.
NKT; lipids: CD1
62
Indel in 3'UTR alters binding of miR-148a adn OCt1 binding site in transcription start site effect levels of ____ expression
HLA-C
63
A patient with ''n'' sibling has this chance of having one identical sibling.
1 - (.75)^n
64
Frequency of genetic recombination between A and B loci
0.8
65
Frequency of genetic recombination between B and DR loci
0.5
66
Frequency of genetic recombination between A and C loci
0.06
67
Frequency of genetic recombination between B and C loci
0.02
68
Soluble HLA antigens ____ in infection, inflammation and transplant rejection; however, _____ in malignancies.
rise; decline
69
Soluble HLA antigens in blood products are _______ to the number of residual leukocytes and the length of storage.
proportionate
70
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 4 antigens matched
A
71
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens detected in donor, all match
B1U
72
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens match, 1 cross-reactive
B1X
73
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 antigens detected in donor, both match
B2U
74
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 3 antigens detected in donor, 2 match and 1 cross-reactive
B2UX
75
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 donor antigens match, 2 cross-reactive
B2X
76
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 1 donor mismatch
C
77
Degree of HLA matching for platelets: 2 antigen mismatch
D
78
TRALI can be caused by _____ HLA antibodies to _____ HLA antigens
donor; recipient
79
Bg(a)
B7
80
Bg(b)
B17
81
Bg(c)
A28
82
Hardy -Weinberg principle assumes.... (5)
1. random mating
2. low mutation rate
3. no emigration or immigration
4. No selection
5. Large population
83
Inflammasomes trigger caspase-1 activation to cause the secretion of these cytokines
IL-1 beta and IL-18 beta
84
This IgG subclass can inhibit complement activation
IgG4
85
A minimum of this number of IgG molecules required fro C1q binding
2
86
Pronase treatment of lymphocytes generally is used to decrease background reactivity on XM, however, it can can actually cause false positive reactions in this setting.
HIV
87
Antigen receptor for naive B lymphocytes
IgD
88
Hardy Weinberg Equation
p^2 + 2pq + q^2
89
Odds ratio is used in _______ studies
Case-control (cases vs. controls)
90
Relative risk is used in _______ studies
Cohort (allele vs. no allele)
91
Class Ib molecules include
MICA, MICB, CD1, HFE, Neonatal Fc receptor
92
MHC pseudogenes include
MICC, MICD, MICE
93
symbol for number of alleles at locus
k
94
allele frequency equation
Number of counted instances of allele x / 2n
95
algorithm that estimates haplotype frequencies most likely to result in a set of observed genotypes at population level (not individual)
expectation-maximization(EM)
96
Linkage disequilibrium equation
D = f(haplotype AB) -f(A)*f(B)
97
If linkage disequilibrium equals ____ then alleles are in linkage _______
0; equilibrium
98
Natural selection theory in which alleles in a population gained (high freq) and lost (low freq) at random (mutation/genetic drift)
Neutral
99
Natural selection theory in which one or few alleles in a population are favored/advantageous
Directional (positive or negative)
100
Natural selection theory in which single allele does not predominate as diversity is advantageous in a population
Balancing
101
These equations test for departures from neutral expectations, however ______ equation considers nucleotide differences between alleles in addition to their population frequencies
Ewens-Watterson and Tajima; Tajima
102
This test measures the number of standard deviations by which an observed homozygosity value deviates from the expected neutral value (the null hypothesis).
Fnd
103
Compares homozygosity(F) under HWE for sample size n and k alleles to F expected under neutrality (equation)
Ewens-Watterson (F= sum pi^2)
104
Under balancing selection, Ewens-Watterson will be _____
low
105
Under directional selection, Ewens-Watterson will be ____
high
106
Tajima’s test: when neutral selection is present, D equals
0
107
Tajima’s test: when directional selection is present, D is _____
negative
108
Tajima’s test: when balancing selection is present, D is ____
positive
109
Equation that measures measures of genetic differentiation in heterozygosity between populations
FST= (HT–HS)/ HT
110
Describes the relationship between a dichotomous or binary dependent variable and a set of independent variables
Logistic regression analysis
111
Equation that tests the difference (independence) of frequency distributions for categorical variables between groups
Chi-square test
112
Chromosome which T-cell epsilon chain is on
11
113
CD-52 inhibitor
Alemtuzemab
114
Most common cause of renal allograft loss and death in renal transplant patients
infection
115
An eplet is a _______ epitope, which is made up of cluster of exposed AA within _______ radius
structural; 3 - 3.5 Angstroms
116
A structural epitope is ________ square Angstroms that is composed of ________ AA
700 - 900; 15 -22
117
CDR that is thought to determine the majority of binding specificity
H3
118
Codon for Aspartic acid
GAT, GAC
119
Molecule that functions to bind DAMPs/PAMPs intracellularly
NOD2
120
D40L is this CD antigen
CD154
121
Secondary immune response occurs within _______
1-3 days
122
T-cell independent B-cell antibody responses are done by ________
Marginal zone B-cells and B1 cells
123
T-cell dependent B-cell antibody responses are made by _________
Follicular B-cells
124
______ antigens are able to activate B cells without _______ help
Non-protein/T-cell
125
agarose gels are good for running amplicons of _____ to ______ bp
200 - 50,000
126
IFN-gamma is released by ________ and ______ cells
T and NK
127
Most important risk factor in renal patients for PTLD is ________
intensity of immunosuppressive therapy
128
Organ ischemia time is associated with _________
chronic rejection
129
T-cell depleted allogeneic stem cell transplant can _______ incidence of ______ but can lead to ________ incidence of ________
decrease/GVHD/increase/relapse
130
LMP encode _______ subunits that ________ protein into peptides in preparation for antigen prevention
proteosomal/degrade
131
Cytokine that is responsible for producing fever (aka endogenous pyrogen)
IL-1
132
_________ minor histocompatibility antigen that may explain the increased risk of _______ in male to female allograft transplants and the increased risk ______ in female to male stem cell transplants.
HY antigen/rejection/GVHD
133
Thymic selection leads to apoptosis of _______% of developing T cells
>90
134
Steps in T-cell activation signaling pathway
1. MHC/TCR engagement
2. Costimulator engagement
3. Tyrosine phosphorylation
4. Calcium release
5. Activation of cytokine (e.g., IL-2) genes
135
CD45 is this type of protein
tyrosine phosphoratase
