Immunology Exam 6: Infectious Agents Flashcards

1
Q

Non-treponemal testing methods for Syphilis

A

RPR, VDRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treponemal testing methods for Syphilis

A

FTA-ABS
TP-PA
T. pallidum Ab for ELISA
T. pallidum Ab by western blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the purpose of the RPR? How to interpret?

A

Cardiolipin reacts with Reagin (a non-treponemal antibody) to detect syphilis –> Flocculation assay with charcoal agglutination

Reactive = small tiny dots
Non-reactive = one condensed button that looks like a comet tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Primary stage of Syphilis

A

Development of a chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Secondary stage of Syphilis

A

Rashes on soles of feet and palms of hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Latent stage of Syphilis

A

Non-infectious state that occurs after untreated secondary syphilis, may last for years

More likely to develop into late-stage syphilis than spontaneous recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tertiary (late) syphilis

A

Appearance of gummas
Neurodegenerative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are signs of Congenital syphilis?

A

Hutchisonian Triad –> deafness, keratitis, hutchinson’s teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Early to latent infections are _____ antibody positive

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Late or chronic infections are _____ antibody positive

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Non-treponemal antibodies are a _____ test for syphilis

A

Screening (RH does this backwards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treponemal antibodies are a ______ test for syphilis

A

confirmatory (RH does this backwards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cardiolipin

A

Lipid made from damaged cells, cholesterol, and lecithin that reacts with Reagin (non-treponemal antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Limitations of TP-PA

A

Uses serum and CSF only, cannot differentiate between IgM or IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In what stages of Syphilis will the RPR/VDRL (non-treponemal tests) be positive?

A

Primary and secondary
*Starts to decline during latent stage and tertiary stage

*Untreated infections will be better detected than treated infections after latent stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In what stages of Syphilis will the Treponemal antibody tests be positive? (TP-PA, FTA-ABS, etc)

A

All stages of Syphilis, with more patients testing positive the later the stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Syphilis treated with?

A

Penicillin in early stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Etiology of Lyme’s disease

A

Transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi by Ixodes ticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diagnosis of Lyme’s disease

A

Bull’s eye rash,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What group of people may be at increased risk of Lyme disease induced arthritis?

A

People with HLA DRB104 and DRB102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Possible lab diagnosis of Lyme’s

A

May be grown using Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly medium
Testing includes serum, skin lesions, and CSF for antibody and PCR methodologies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the two-step process of Lyme’s disease diagnosis?

A

Step 1: positive result on EIA or an IFA

Step 2: if signs or symptoms persist for 30 or more days, perform IgG western blot. If signs or symptoms persist for 30 days or less, perform both IgM and IgG western blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain the diagnosis of Lyme’s disease and the western blot

A

(+) IgM –> must have 2 of 3 characteristic bands

(+) IgG –> must have 5 of 10 characteristic bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Reverse vs forward algorithm for Syphilis

A

Forward: start with non-treponemal Ab, then go to treponemal to confirm

Reverse (what RH does): start with treponemal Ab, then do RPR to confirm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the 3 stages of Lyme's?
1. Localized bulls eye rash 2. Early Dissemination 3. Late dissemination with arthritis involvement if untreated
26
What type of virus is EBV? How is it transmitted? What spectrum of diseases does it cause?
DNA herpes virus transmitted through intimate contact with salivary secretions Causes infectious mononucleosis, lymphoproliferative disorders, and certain malignancies (Burkitt Lymphoma)
27
Lab findings with EBV
20% or more atypical lymphocytes, absolute lymphocytosis, heterophile antibodies
28
Paul-Bunnell test
Old method of detection for heterophile antibody titer to diagnose IM/EBV
29
Early antigens for EBV infections
EA-D: found in nucleus/cytoplasm EA-R: restricted to cytoplasm only
30
Late antigens for EBV infections
VCA (viral capsid antigens)
31
Latent-phase antigens for EBV infections
EBV nuclear antigens (EBNA)
32
When does Anti-EBNA appear in EBV?
During convalescent mononucleosis
33
When does IgM anti-VCA vs IgG anti-VCA appear in EBV?
IgM anti-VCA: acute IM IgG anti-VCA: acute or past IM
34
When does Anti-EA-D appear in EBV?
acute IM
35
What virus uses the viral escape mechanism, latency?
VZV remaining latent in nerve cells
36
What virus uses the viral escape mechanism, altering immune function?
EBV stimulating polyclonal B cell activation
37
What virus uses the viral escape mechanism, suppression of immune response?
CMV reducing MHC I expression
38
What virus uses the viral escape mechanism, blocking action of immune system components?
HCV binding C3b
39
What virus uses the viral escape mechanism, mutations resulting in production of new viral antigens?
Influenza
40
What hepatitis viruses are transmitted by fecal-oral route?
A and E
41
What hepatitis viruses are transmitted via parenteral route?
B, D, C
42
RNA hepatitis's
A, C, D, E
43
DNA hepatitis
B
44
What is the HBV marker for active infection?
HBsAg
45
What is the only HBV marker that will be present if vaccinated?
Anti-HBs (surface antibody)
46
What is the HBV marker for active viral replication and indicates a high degree of infectivity?
HBe Antigen
47
What does presence of Anti-HBe in HBV indicate?
Recovery from Hep B
48
Chronic vs Acute exposure to HBV (what markers will be present)
Chronic: Only have anti-HBc, antigens will persist Acute: Antigens will go away over time, will have Anti-HBe, Anti-HBs, Anti-HBc
49
How to detect CMV
Viral culture incubated with human fibroblast cell lines and presence of CPEs Molecular tests for DNA, CMV antigens Serology
50
Rubella standout features
- German Measles - Can cause congenital abnormalities, miscarriage, stillbirth - Prevented by MMR vaccine
51
Rubeola standout features
- Measles - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis - Prevented by MMR
52
Mumps standout features
- RNA virus transmitted through respiratory droplets - Causes parotitis - Prevented by MMR
53
Which HIV is the cause of most HIV infections worldwide?
HIV-1, subtype C
54
Which HIV is the cause of most HIV infections in the US?
HIV-1, subtype B
55
HIV-2
originated in west africa, less prevalent
56
What does pol gene in HIV code for?
Viral enzymes Includes p51: reverse transcriptase enzyme
57
What does gag gene in HIV code for?
Nucleocapsid and core proteins Includes p24
58
What does env gene in HIV code for?
Viral envelope proteins Includes gp41 and gp120: attachment to host cell (envelope)
59
What is the main target of HIV?
CD4 receptor, uses gp120 to bind
60
What is the criteria for AIDS diagnosis from HIV?
<200 cells/uL of CD4
61
Treatment for HIV
CART (combined antiretroviral therapy)
62
Current testing algorithm to diagnose HIV
Perform screening for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and p24 antigen Confirm positive antibody results to differentiate 1 and 2 If the differentiation immunoassay is negative, perform PCR. If PCR is then positive, it is acute HIV infection
63
What does this indicate for HIV: p24 positive, but HIV-1/2 negative
Acute/active infection
64
What does this indicate for HIV: p24 negative, but HIV-1/2 positive
Chronic or past infection
65
What does this indicate for HIV: p24 and HIV-1/2 positive
Positive, immune system keeping it in check
66
What is a GOOD result for HIV monitoring?
>200 CD4 cells/uL <500 RNA copies/mL
67
Quantitative viral load assay for HIV
Uses qPCR to measure amount of HIV RNA circulating in patient plasma; primers target gag or pol genes
68
What does a significant increase in HIV viral load indicate?
A need for drug resistance testing and a possible change in CART
69
Infectivity
Organism's ability to establish an infection
70
Pathogenicity
Ability of an organism to cause disease
71
Virulence
Extent of pathology caused by an organism when it infects a host
72
What does Group A strep pyogenes cause?
Pharyngitis (Strep Throat)
73
What does Group B strep pyogenes cause?
Pyoderma
74
What does Group C strep pyogenes cause?
Scarlet Fever
75
What are the clinical manifestations of acute group A streptococcal infection?
Toxic shock syndrome Necrotizing fasciitis Post streptococcal glomerularnephritis Acute rheumatic fever
76
What is Strep pyogenes M antigen associated with?
Hyaluronic capsule for virulence
77
Streptolysin O vs Streptolysin S
Streptolysin O = antigenic, oxygen labile Streptolysin S = non-antigenic, oxygen stable
78
Hyaluronidase
Helps break down host connective tissue
79
Streptokinase
Enzyme to dissolve clots by activating plasmin
80
Group B strep
S. agalactiae
81
What does S. agalactiae cause?
Pneumonia and meningitis in neonates
82
What does S. dysgalactiae cause?
Pharyngitis and pyogenic infections in humans
83
What is Group C strep?
S. equii S. dysgalactiae
84
What bacteria is associated with gastric/duodenal ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
85
Which bacteria is rapidly urease positive?
H. pylori
86
Three life cycle stages of T. gondii What is the definitive host?
Definitive host = cats Tachyzoite (seen in humans and cats) Bradyzoite (seen in tissue biopsy) Sporozoite (found in oocysts in feces)
87
What is Cryptococcus neoformans associated with? How to diagnose?
Pigeon poop India Ink stain
88
What is Histoplasma capsulatum associated with?
Cave dwellers, bird/bat poop Ohio River/Mississippi River valley regions Infects mononuclear phagocytes