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Immunology Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 2 categories of immunology?

A
  1. Non-specific (Innate) 2. Specific (Adaptive)
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2
Q

Which immune response is antigen-independent?

A

Non-specific

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3
Q

How fast will non-specific and specific immune response work?

A

Non-specific is immediate and specific is slower with lag time.

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4
Q

Which type of immunology has immunologic memory?

A

Specific

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5
Q

What is the largest contributor to WBCs?

A

Neutrophils are 60-65%

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6
Q

What activates neutrophils and what do they do?

A

Activated by tumor necroses factor and they are rapidly phagocytic cells

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7
Q

What % of WBCs are basophils?

A

0.1-0.3%

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8
Q

What triggers basophils?

A

They are histamines triggered by IgE in allergic reactions.

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9
Q

What type of cell is similar to a basophil, and what makes it different?

A

Mast cells are basophils that are found in tissues.

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10
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

They are involved in destruction of parasites.

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11
Q

Where are monocytes found?

A

Circulate in blood

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12
Q

What do monocytes develop into once they enter tissue?

A

Macrophages or dendritic cells

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13
Q

What are the primary functions of macrophages?

A
  1. Phagocytosis

2. Antigen presentation

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14
Q

How are macrophages stimulated?

A

By cytokines

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15
Q

Which immune response are dendritic cells involved in?

A

Adaptive

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16
Q

Where are T lymphocytes differentiated and how long do they live?

A

Thymus

Long lived

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17
Q

What are the 3 types of T cells and their functions?

A
  1. T helper - coordinate entire immune response
  2. T cytotoxic - destroy infected self cells
  3. T regulatory - suppress immune response
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18
Q

What can B lymphocytes differentiate into?

A
  1. Plasma cells

2. Memory B cells

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19
Q

Which cells produce antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

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20
Q

How are memory B cells formed?

A

Specific to antigens during primary immune response

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21
Q

What type of cells are Natural Killer cells?

A

Cytotoxic lymphocytes

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22
Q

How do NK cells work?

A

Create holes in cell membrane

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23
Q

What do NK cells attack?

A

Cells that have been infected by microbes NOT microbes themselves

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24
Q

Which part of immune system are NK cells a part of?

A

Non-specific

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25
Q

What mediates activity and communication between WBCs?

A

Cytokines

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26
Q

What are the functions of cytokines?

A
  1. Induce other cells of immune system
  2. Stimulate antigen dependent and independent cells
  3. Induce chemotaxis and diapedesis
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27
Q

What are the 4 types of cytokines?

A

Lymphokines, interleukins, tumor necrosis factor, and interferons

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28
Q

What are peripheral lymphoid organs?

A

Sites where lymphocytes are gathered to contact antigens

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29
Q

What are primary lymphoid organs?

A

Where hematopoietic stem cells mature

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30
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

Store and circulate lymphocytes, remove particles from lymph

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31
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

Filter blood an destroy old RBCs

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32
Q

What is MALT?

A

Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue

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33
Q

What is SALT?

A

Skin associated lymphoid tissue

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34
Q

What is the thymus responsible for?

A

Immunogenesis in children, T lymphocytes maturation, thymic education, thymic selection

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35
Q

When does thymus reach peak size and peak activity?

A

Peak SIZE - puberty

Peak ACTIVITY - childhood

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36
Q

What is thymic education?

A

Differentiation of thymocytes

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37
Q

What do thymocytes differentiate into?

A

CD-4 (T helper) and CD-8 (cytotoxic)

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38
Q

What are the two types of CD 4 cells?

A

TH-1 (cell mediated response)

TH-2 (activate B cells)

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39
Q

What is positive selection vs negative selection?

A

Positive - thymus selects T cells that are functional to distribute to peripheral tissue
Negative - non-functional cells enter apoptosis

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40
Q

What are the first line defenses in non specific immunity?

A
  1. Skin
  2. Mucous membranes
  3. Antimicrobial substances
  4. Normal flora
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41
Q

What is the most difficult barrier for microbes to penetrate?

A

Skin

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42
Q

What antimicrobial substances are part of non-specific immunity?

A

Sweat, lysozymes, acid in stomach

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43
Q

What do lysozymes do?

A

Degrade peptidoglycan (unique to bacteria)

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44
Q

What are the sensor systems of the non-specific immune system?

A

Toll-like receptors, complement

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45
Q

Where are toll-like receptors located?

A

On a variety of immune cell types

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46
Q

What do toll-like receptors do?

A

Recognize compounds unique to microbes, allows cell to send cytokines to other systems

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47
Q

What is complement?

A

Series of proteins always present in blood that act in conjunction with adaptive immune responses

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48
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

Cells that specialize in engulfing and digesting microbes

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49
Q

What two classes of phagocytes participate in non specific immunity?

A

Macrophages and neutrophils

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50
Q

Where are macrophages found?

A

Always present in tissue

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51
Q

How do NK cells identify cells to kill?

A

Won’t kill cells identified by MHC1 surface proteins

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52
Q

What are the three parts of inflammation?

A
  1. Injury/invasion
  2. Dilation of blood vessels
  3. Fever
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53
Q

What are the characteristics of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. Specificity
  2. Self recognition
  3. Memory
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54
Q

What is the humoral response?

A

Eliminates antigens that are extra cellular (ex bacteria in bloodstream)

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55
Q

What is the cell-mediated response?

A

Deals with antigens residing within a host cell (ex virus infected cell)

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56
Q

What is the structure of antigens?

A

Large carrier molecule with epitopes projecting from surface

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57
Q

What are exogenous antigens?

A

Those that have entered body from outside

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58
Q

What are endogenous antigens?

A

Those that have been generated within the cell

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59
Q

What are super antigens?

A

Attach onto sides of binding site instead of MHC groove

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60
Q

What does it mean when antigens are cross reactive?

A

They elicit and bind to the same antibody

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61
Q

When is an individual tolerant to self antigens?

A

Before the immune system is fully mature

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62
Q

What happens when a superantigen binds to the MHC?

A

T cells go on an unregulated rampage, uncontrollably releasing regulatory molecules in toxic amounts

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63
Q

What is the major histocompatibility complex?

A

Surface protein found on surface of all nucleated cells and platelets

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64
Q

What does MHC do?

A

Display “self” molecules that will be ignored by T cells or “non self” molecules that will be recognized by T cells

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65
Q

What are the 2 classes of MHC proteins and what are their functions?

A
  1. MHC1 - present proteins/antigens from inside cell

2. MHC2 - present antigens from outside cell

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66
Q

Where are MHC1s found?

A

On all nucleated cells

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67
Q

Where are MHC2s found?

A

ONLY on antigen presenting cells

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68
Q

What do MHC1s display?

A

Ordinary surface proteins and “abnormal” proteins on surface of virus infected cells or tumor cells for inspection by cytotoxic T cells

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69
Q

What do MHC2s display?

A

“Non self” proteins to be recognized by helper T cells

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70
Q

Where are activated dendritic cells found?

A

In tissues that are in contact with environment

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71
Q

When do macrophages present antigens?

A

Early in infection

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72
Q

What activates macrophages?

A

Presence of antigen

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73
Q

What do activated macrophages produce?

A

Interleukin-1

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74
Q

How do macrophages process antigens?

A

Digest antigenic material, present antigenic epitopes on macrophages surface, presented antigen then recognized by helper T cells

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75
Q

When are activated B cells used?

A

Later in infection as APC

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76
Q

What must helper T cells recognize in order to produce lymphokines?

A

MHC2

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77
Q

What do activated helper T cells regulate?

A

Both cell mediated (t cell) AND humoral (b cell) immunity

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78
Q

What is required in order for B cells to produce antibodies?

A

Must interact with activated helper T cell

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79
Q

What mediates cell-mediated immunity?

A

T cells

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80
Q

Which type of MHCs are found on Antigen presenting cells?

A

Both

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81
Q

Where are activated dendritic cells found at?

A

In tissues that are in contact with the environment

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82
Q

What will activate a macrophage?

A

The presence of an antigen

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83
Q

Macrophages have increased numbers of what?

A

Lysosomes

84
Q

Macrophages produce a cytokine called interleukin-1 - what does it do?

A

Induce a fever and activate other cells

85
Q

After a macrophage digests an antigen, what will the macrophage do?

A

It will present the epitopes on the macrophage surface in combination with MHC proteins

86
Q

The epitope on the macrophage surface is recognized by what?

A

Helper T cells which activate helper T cells

87
Q

What do helper T cells need to do to produce lymphokines?

A

They must recognize MHC2

88
Q

Activated helper T cells regulate what type of immunity?

A

Cell-mediated (and humoral)

89
Q

What do B cells need to do to produce antibodies?

A

They must interact with activated helper T cells

90
Q

When will T cells produce antibodies?

A

Never

91
Q

T cells never interact with what?

A

Free antigens

92
Q

Inactive T cells can or cannot migrate into tissues?

A

Cannot

93
Q

Activating T cells requires what 2 things?

A
  1. Must encounter antigen presented on cell in antigen-MHC complex 2. Must be concurrently stimulated by other molecules
94
Q

Activation of T cells leads to what?

A

Formation of specific effector T cell types

95
Q

What are the 3 roles of activated T Cells?

A
  1. Proliferate, develop into different effector cells. 2. Bring antigen to naïve T cells. 3. Release lymphokines
96
Q

What do lymphokines do?

A

They act to recruit other cell types particularly macrophages

97
Q

What are the 2 types of T cells?

A

CD4+ aka T helper cells, and CD8+ aka T cytotoxic cells

98
Q

What is the role of CD4+ (T helper) cells?

A

To judge the significance of antigen presented by APCs

99
Q

After a CD4+ recognized an antigen, what will it do?

A

Release cytokines that stimulate development of B cells and other T cells

100
Q

What are the two subsets of CD4+ cells?

A

TH1 and TH2

101
Q

TH1 and TH2 cells judge antigens presented by what?

A

TH1 - macrophages TH2 - B cells

102
Q

What will the TH1 cells do after recognizing the antigen?

A

Stimulate the macrophage

103
Q

What will TH2 cells do after recognizing the antigen?

A

They activate B cells to produce antibodies

104
Q

What is the most common T cell?

A

CD8+ aka cytotoxic cells

105
Q

What do CD8+ cells do?

A

They induce apoptosis in self cells infected with virus or other microbes

106
Q

How do CD8+ cells know what self cells to attack?

A

Those that present antigens on MHC1 molecules

107
Q

What do T suppressor cells do?

A

Block induction and activity of T helper cells and B cells

108
Q

What stimulates T suppressor cells?

A

Cytokine interleukin 2

109
Q

The type IV hypersensitive reaction occurs when?

A

When effector T cells regulate delayed allergic reactions

110
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

A balance between the 2 T lymphocyte populations and it is critical for immunocompetence

111
Q

What are lymphokines?

A

Cytokines released by lymphocytes that act as chemical messengers and activate other cell types

112
Q

What will macrophage activation factor MAF do?

A

Activates macrophages and allows them to act as cytotoxic cells that non-specifically kill tumor cells

113
Q

What will macrophage migration inhibitory factor MIF do?

A

Inhibits random migration of macrophages

114
Q

What are interleukins?

A

They are lymphokines and are proteins secreted by different types of leukocytes that are involved in cell-to-cell communication

115
Q

What are interferons?

A

A type of lymphokine that elicits a virus-nonspecific antiviral activity

116
Q

Humoral immunity is mediated by what?

A

B lymphocytes

117
Q

What do B cells do in response to an antigen?

A

Proliferate then differentiate into plasma cells and then they produce antibodies. Some B cells also form memory cells.

118
Q

Antibodies are produced by ____ cells and differentiated by ____

A

Plasma cells, B lymphocytes

119
Q

Where are antibodies found at?

A

In the blood serum, and the surface of B lymphocytes

120
Q

What will antibodies on the surface of B lymphocytes allow for?

A

Interaction with specific antigens

121
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Role of an antibody - causes cellular clumping

122
Q

What is precipitation?

A

Role of an antibody - non-cellular clumping

123
Q

What happens when an antibody joins with an antigen and forms an antigen/antibody complex?

A

Complex is recognized by phagocytic cells

124
Q

What is an antitoxin?

A

An antibody with ability to neutralize a specific toxin

125
Q

What is opsonin?

A

Any molecule that acts as binding enhancer for the process of phagocytosis

126
Q

An antibody is made of what type of chains?

A

A heavy chain and 2 light chains

127
Q

What joins the chains of antibodies?

A

Disulfide bonds

128
Q

What is the fragment binding portion of an antibody that binds to antigens called?

A

Fab

129
Q

What part of the antibody determines antibody class?

A

Fc

130
Q

What is the first and second class of antibodies to be produced in response to antigens?

A

First is IgM, second is IgG

131
Q

What does the Ig class of antibody stand for?

A

Immunoglobulin

132
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

133
Q

How will IgG antibody work?

A

Agglutinates, precipitates, and acts as antitoxin

134
Q

What happens when multiple IgGs bind to surface of an antigen?

A

A specific complement protein binds to the Fc region to begin complement cascade

135
Q

What immunoglobulin can pass the placental barrier and provide passive immunity to fetus?

A

IgG

136
Q

What is the shape of the IgG?

A

Monomer aka gamma globulin

137
Q

What immunoglobulin is largest?

A

IgM

138
Q

When will fetuses be able to produce IgM?

A

After 3 months

139
Q

How will the IgM work?

A

Agglutination, precipitation, and most effective at activating complement cascade

140
Q

Where are IgA antibodies found?

A

In body secretions like saliva, mucus, milk, tears

141
Q

How will IgA exist in blood?

A

As monomer with valence of 2 (2antigens can bind to it)

142
Q

How will IgA exist when secreted?

A

As a dimer with valence of 4 (4antigens can bind to it)

143
Q

What are IgE antibodies involved in?

A

Allergy

144
Q

How do IgEs work?

A

Bind to mast cells and release histamines

145
Q

How detectable are IgEs?

A

They are barely detectable in normal blood, most are bound via Fc region to mast cells and basophils

146
Q

What is the role of IgDs?

A

Unknown

147
Q

Where are IgDs found at?

A

In low levels in serum

148
Q

Where are complement proteins at and how long will it take to activate them?

A

They are always circulating and can be quickly activated

149
Q

What will complement proteins do when activated?

A

Attach to cell surface and form membrane attack complex (MAC)

150
Q

Complement binding can cause what 3 things to happen?

A
  1. Prepares cell for phagocytosis 2. Can release active substances 3. Can lyse cell
151
Q

What are the 2 complement pathways?

A
  1. Classical 2. Alternative
152
Q

What is necessary for classical and alternative complement pathways?

A

Classical = antibody IgG or IgM needs to bind to an antigen Alternative = No antibody binding to an antigen needed

153
Q

What type of immune responses are the complement pathways involved in?

A

Both specific and non-specific

154
Q

What happens if the complement system is not controlled?

A

Can lead to vascular damage and initiateion of coagulation

155
Q

How is the complement system slowed?

A

Serum proteins slow complement by binding to protein surfaces

156
Q

If complement activation is overwhelming what happens?

A

Serum proteins fail

157
Q

During the primary response to an antigen how long does it take for the adaptive immune system to respond?

A

1 week or more

158
Q

During the week it takes for the adaptive immune system to respond to a primary exposure to an antigen, what takes over?

A

Non-specific immunity

159
Q

What are the first and second antibodies that are produced during adaptive immune response?

A

1=IgM, 2=IgG

160
Q

What does it mean to have antibodies that are T cell independent or dependent?

A

Independent - do not require presentation, rather B cells respond diretly to antigen. Dependent - do require presentation to helper T cells

161
Q

What stimulates memory cells?

A

Secondary response to antigens

162
Q

What is the level of IgG antibody during a secondary response to an antigen?

A

Higher, longer lasting

163
Q

How much antigen is needed to elicit an immune system response with a secondary response to an antigen?

A

Less antigen is needed than with a primary response to an antigen

164
Q

What was the first vaccination given?

A

Edward Jenner in 1796 gave cowpox to pretect against smallpox

165
Q

Vacca is Latin for what?

A

Cow

166
Q

Immunity can be acquired in what 2 ways?

A

Naturally or artificially

167
Q

What are the 3 types of vaccines we can get?

A
  1. Inactivated or killed 2. Live attenuated 3. Subunit (fragments of the cell or virus)
168
Q

What is an inactivated or killed vaccine like?

A

Unable to replicate but retains immunogenicicty of infectious agent

169
Q

What is the advantage of inactivated vaccines?

A

It can’t revert to dangerous form

170
Q

What is a live attenuated vaccine like?

A

It is weak and unable to cause disease t replicates in recipient causing an immune reinfection with undetectable or mild disedase

171
Q

There are 4 types of hypersensitivity to the immune system - how many come from antibodies and how many from T cells?

A

3 from antibodies and 1 fro T cells

172
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity is the fastest - what does it come from?

A

Allergic reactions

173
Q

Allergic reactions bind to what?

A

IgE which are on mast cells

174
Q

What happens the 2nd time an individual is exposed to an allergen?

A

The sensitized mast cell degranulates releasing histamine and other vasoactive substances

175
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity is cytotoxic reactions - the antigen and which antibody bind where?

A

Antigen and IgG antibody bind on cell surfaces

176
Q

What happens to cells with the antigen and IgG bound to them?

A

They are destroyed by phagocytosis or complement

177
Q

Type 2 or cytotoxic diseases are mostly due to what?

A

Blood transfusions with wrong blood type

178
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity is aka immune complex reactions - what is happening?

A

Antigen-antibody complexes from in the blood and are not completely removed by macrophages and these complexes get lodged in capillaries and this leads to vasodilation and it attracts leukocytes and this leads to inflammation and tissue death

179
Q

What makes type 4 hypersensitivity different than the first 3?

A

It is cell mediated (T cell) not antibody mediated

180
Q

How does type 4 hypersensitivity work?

A

T cell interacts with the presented antigen and proliferates and secretes lymphokines and macrophages are attracted and host cell is destroyed

181
Q

What is tolerance?

A

An immune system state associated with self-recognition where the immune system will not respond to self antigens

182
Q

Tolerance to self antigens is developed when?

A

During fetal development

183
Q

Can people become tolerized to other antigens later in life?

A

Yes

184
Q

Give an example of how someone can become tolerized to a self antigen later in life?

A

Oral tolerization

185
Q

What is autoimmunity?

A

When the immune system reacts to self antigens

186
Q

Autoimmunity is characterized by what?

A

The production of autoantibodies

187
Q

Name 5 triggers of an autoimmune response

A
  1. Infection 2. Response to drugs 3. Cross reactivity with bacterial antigens 4. hormones 5. breakdown in immune responses
188
Q

Many autoimmunity mechanisms have been identified but how will they interact with the immune network?

A

This is not yet known

189
Q

What is serology?

A

The use of serum antibodies to detect and measure antigens, or conversely the use of antigens to detect serum antibodies

190
Q

What is a titer?

A

Can give information regarding amount of antibody present following disease, can give important information regarding a person’s current immunity to diseases

191
Q

What is agglutination test?

A

The interaction between antibody and antigen results in cross-linking o cells

192
Q

What is precipitation test?

A

Interaction between antibody and a soluble antigen in aqueous solution forms a lattice that develops into a visible precipitate

193
Q

What is immunodiffusion test?

A

As antibody and antigen diffuse toward one another a visible line will form in agar

194
Q

What is complement fixation test?

A

Indicator system is RBCs from sheep. In the presence of hemolysins and complement the RBCs lyse. If an antibody-antigen complex is present, the antibody will bind complement and no lysis will occur

195
Q

Capsular swelling is aka?

A

Quellung reaction

196
Q

What is the capsular swelling test?

A

Swelling of the capsule surrounding a microorganism after reaction with an antibody

197
Q

What is the neutralization test?

A

Specific antibodies (antitoxins) present will neutralize effect of toxin

198
Q

What type of antibodies are used in ELISA test?

A

Two: 1 is specific to antigen and 2 is coupled to an enzyme

199
Q

What are the steps in an ELISA test?

A

Coat wall with antigen. Add patient’s serum. Then add anti-human antibody wth an enzyme attached to it. Then add substrate to enzyme

200
Q

What happens in ELISA test?

A

If the patient has the antibody to the antigen they will bind to the wall and the antihuman antibody with the enzyme will bind to the antibody, and when the substrate to the enzyme is added a color change will happen. No color change if the serum has no antibody to the antigen

201
Q

What is “in vivo” serology?

A

Testing for antibodies in the body

202
Q

What part of the body is tested for schick test?

A

Intracutaneous skin

203
Q

What will Schick test scan for?

A

Diphtheria toxin

204
Q

What will a reaction and no reaction to Schicks test mean?

A

Reaction indicates patient has no antibodies and no reaction indicates the patient has antibodies

205
Q

What type of test is the tuberculin skin test?

A

Not antibody mediated, this is a cell-mediated response, specifically type 4 hypersensitivity

Microbiology (3 decks)

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