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Elle Flashcards - Immunology > Immunology Exam 1 > Flashcards

Immunology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur?
a. Discovery of opsonins
b. Observation of phagocytosis
c. First attenuated vaccines
d. Theory of humoral immunity

A

c. First attenuated vaccines

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2
Q

Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues?
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte

A

d. Monocyte

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3
Q

The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon?
a. Innate immunity
b. Adaptive immunity
c. Humoral immunity
d. Specific immunity

A

a. Innate immunity

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4
Q

Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made?
a. Bone marrow
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Lymph nodes

A

a. Bone marrow

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is true of NK cells?
a. They rely upon memory for antigen recognition.
b. They have the same CD groups as B cells.
c. They are found mainly in lymph nodes.
d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to
them.

A

d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to
them.

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6
Q

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue?
a. Neutrophil
b. Dendritic cell
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil

A

b. Dendritic cell

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7
Q

The ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions is called
a. innate immunity.
b. humoral immunity.
c. adaptive immunity.
d. cross-immunity.

A

a. innate immunity.

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8
Q

A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 μm, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n)
a. eosinophil.
b. monocyte.
c. basophil.
d. neutrophil.

A

d. neutrophil.

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9
Q

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
a. Lymph node
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. MALT

A

c. Thymus

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10
Q

What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?
a. Unstimulated B cells
b. Germinal centers
c. Plasma cells
d. Memory cells

A

a. Unstimulated B cells

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11
Q

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of B cells?
a. Act as helper cells
b. Presence of surface antibody
c. Able to kill target cells without prior exposure
d. Active in phagocytosis

A

b. Presence of surface antibody

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12
Q

Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens?
a. Secondary lymphoid organs
b. Bloodstream
c. Bone marrow
d. Thymus

A

a. Secondary lymphoid organs

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13
Q

Which of the following is found on the T cell subset known as helpers?
a. CD19
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD56

A

b. CD4

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14
Q

Which of the following statements best characterizes adaptive immunity?
a. Relies on normally present body functions
b. Response is similar for each exposure
c. Specificity for each individual pathogen
d. Involves only cellular immunity

A

c. Specificity for each individual pathogen

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15
Q

The main function of T cells in the immune response is to
a. produce cytokines that
regulate both innate and
adaptive immunity.
b. produce antibodies.
c. participate actively in
phagocytosis.
d. respond to target cells
without prior exposure.

A

a. produce cytokines that
regulate both innate and
adaptive immunity.

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16
Q

Which of the following is a part of humoral immunity?
a. Cells involved in phagocytosis
b. Neutralization of toxins by serum
c. Macrophages and mast cells in the tissue
d. T and B cells in lymph nodes

A

b. Neutralization of toxins by serum

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17
Q

Immunity can be defined as
a. the study of medicines used to treat diseases.
b. a specific population at risk for a disease.
c. the condition of being resistant to disease.
d. the study of the noncellular portion of the blood.

A

c. the condition of being resistant to disease.

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18
Q

A blood cell that has reddish staining granules and is able to kill large parasites describes
a. basophils.
b. monocytes.
c. neutrophils.
d. eosinophils.

A

d. eosinophils.

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19
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a lymph node?
a. It is considered a primary lymphoid organ.
b. It removes old RBCs.
c. It collects fluid from the tissues.
d. It is where B cells mature.

A

c. It collects fluid from the tissues.

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20
Q

Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes
a. cytokines.
b. clusters of differentiation (CD).
c. neutrophilic granules.
d. opsonins.

A

b. clusters of differentiation (CD).

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21
Q

All of the following are characteristics of an effective immunogen except
a. internal complexity.
b. large molecular weight.
c. the presence of numerous epitopes.
d. found on host cells.

A

d. found on host cells.

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes a hapten?
a. Cannot react with antibody
b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
c. Has multiple determinant sites
d. A large chemically complex molecule

A

b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier

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23
Q

Which would be the most effective immunogen?
a. Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000
b. Nylon polymer with a molecular weight of 250,000
c. Polysaccharide with a molecular weight of 220,000
d. Protein with a molecular weight of 175,000

A

a. Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000

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24
Q

Which of the following individuals would likely respond most strongly to a bacterial infection?
a. An adult who is 75 years of age
b. A malnourished 40-year-old
c. A weightlifter who is 35 years old
d. A newborn baby

A

c. A weightlifter who is 35 years old

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25
Q

Which best describes an epitope?
a. A peptide that must be at least 10,000 MW
b. An area of an immunogen recognized only by T cells
c. A segment of sequential amino acids only
d. A key portion of the immunogen

A

d. A key portion of the immunogen

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26
Q

Adjuvants act by which of the following methods?
a. Protects antigen from being degraded
b. Facilitates rapid escape from the tissues
c. Limits the area of the immune response
d. Decreases number of APCs

A

a. Protects antigen from being degraded

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27
Q

A heterophile antigen is one that
a. is a self-antigen.
b. exists in unrelated plants or animals.
c. has been used previously to stimulate antibody
response.
d. is from the same species but is different from
the host.

A

b. exists in unrelated plants or animals.

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28
Q

Which of the following is true of class II MHC (HLA) antigens?
a. They are found on B cells and macrophages.
b. They are found on all nucleated cells.
c. They all originate at one locus.
d. They are coded for on chromosome 9.

A

a. They are found on B cells and macrophages.

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29
Q

Class II MHC molecules are recognized by which of the following?
a. CD4+ T cells
b. CD8+ T cells
c. Natural killer cells
d. Neutrophils

A

a. CD4+ T cells

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30
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of TAP?
a. They bind to class II molecules to help block the antigen-binding site.
b. They bind to class I proteins in proteasomes.
c. They transport peptides into the lumen of the
endoplasmic reticulum.
d. They help cleave peptides for transport to
endosomes.

A

c. They transport peptides into the lumen of the
endoplasmic reticulum.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of the invariant chain in antigen processing associated with class II MHC molecules?
a. Helps transport peptides to the binding site
b. Blocks binding of endogenous peptides
c. Binds to CD8+ T cells
d. Cleaves peptides into the proper size for binding

A

b. Blocks binding of endogenous peptides

32
Q

An individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium. Which of the following statements is true of this situation?
a. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD8+ T cells.
b. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells.
c. Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells.
d. B cells have recognized bacterial antigen without help from T cells.

A

c. Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells.

33
Q

In relation to a human, alloantigens would need to be considered in which of the following events?
a. Transplantation of a kidney from one individual to another
b. Vaccination with the polysaccharide coat of a bacterial cell
c. Oral administration of a live but heat-killed virus particle
d. Grafting skin from one area of the body to another

A

a. Transplantation of a kidney from one individual to another

34
Q

Which is characteristic of class I MHC molecules?
a. Consists of one α and one β chain
b. Binds peptides made within the cell
c. Able to bind whole proteins
d. Coded for by DR, DP, and DQ genes

A

b. Binds peptides made within the cell

35
Q

Class I MHC antigens E and G serve which function?
a. Enhance the response by macrophages
b. Transport antigen for recognition by CD4+ T cells
c. Bind to A, B, and C antigens to protect the
binding site
d. Protect fetal tissue from destruction by NK cells

A

d. Protect fetal tissue from destruction by NK cells

36
Q

Which best explains the difference between immunogens and antigens?
a. Only antigens are large enough to be recognized by T cells.
b. Only immunogens can react with antibody.
c. Only immunogens can trigger an immune response.
d. Only antigens are recognized as foreign.

A

c. Only immunogens can trigger an immune response.

37
Q

When a child inherits one set of six HLA genes together from one parent, this is called a(n)
a. genotype.
b. haplotype.
c. phenotype.
d. allotype.

A

b. haplotype.

38
Q

HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

a. Class I

39
Q

The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is
a. opsonization.
b. agglutination.
c. solubilization.
d. chemotaxis.

A

a. opsonization.

40
Q

Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism?
a. Phagocytosis
b. C-reactive protein
c. Lysozyme
d. Complement

A

c. Lysozyme

41
Q

The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except
a. increased blood supply to the area.
b. migration of WBCs.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
d. appearance of acute-phase reactants.

A

c. decreased capillary permeability.

42
Q

Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?
a. Innate
b. Cross
c. Adaptive
d. Auto

A

a. Innate

43
Q

The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed mate- rial and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a
a. phagosome.
b. lysosome.
c. vacuole.
d. phagolysosome

A

d. phagolysosome

44
Q

The presence of human microbiota (normal flora) acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following methods?
a. Maintaining an acid environment
b. Competing with potential pathogens
c. Keeping phagocytes in the area
d. Coating mucosal surfaces

A

b. Competing with potential pathogens

45
Q

Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except
a. monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents.
b. tracking the progress of an organ transplant.
c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.
d. determining active phases of rheumatoid
arthritis.

A

c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.

46
Q

Pathogen recognition receptors act by
a. recognizing molecules common to both host cells and pathogens.
b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens.
c. helping to spread infection because they are found
on pathogens.
d. all recognizing the same pathogens.

A

b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens. c. helping to spread infection because they are found
on pathogens.

47
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of acute-phase reactants?
a. Rapid increase following infection
b. Enhancement of phagocytosis
c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

48
Q

Which is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the elimination of microorganisms?
a. Proteolytic enzymes
b. Hydrogen ions
c. Hypochlorite ions
d. Superoxides

A

c. Hypochlorite ions d. Superoxides

49
Q

Which acute-phase reactant helps to prevent formation of peroxides and free radicals that may damage tissues?
a. Haptoglobin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Ceruloplasmin
d. Serum amyloid A

A

a. Haptoglobin

50
Q

Which statement best describes Toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
a. They protect adult flies from infection.
b. They are found on all host cells.
c. They only play a role in adaptive immunity.
d. They enhance phagocytosis.

A

d. They enhance phagocytosis.

51
Q

The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody because
a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.
b. only the antibody triggers the complement cascade.
c. binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent.
d. only CRP acts as an opsonin

A

a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.

52
Q

How does innate immunity differ from adaptive immunity?
a. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to a pathogen.
b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions.
c. Innate immunity develops later than adaptive immunity.
d. Innate immunity is more specific than adaptive immunity.

A

b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions.

53
Q

A 40-year-old male who is a smoker develops symp- toms of premature emphysema. The symptoms may be caused by a deficiency of which of the following acute-phase reactants?
a. Haptoglobin
b. Alpha1-antitrypsin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Ceruloplasmin

A

b. Alpha1-antitrypsin

54
Q

Which statement best describes NK cells?
a. Their response against pathogens is very specific.
b. They only react when an abundance of MHC
antigens is present.
c. They react when both an inhibitory and activating
signal is triggered.
d. They are able to kill target cells without previous
exposure to them.

A

d. They are able to kill target cells without previous
exposure to them.

55
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of variable domains of immunoglobulins?
a. They occur on both the H and L chains.
b. They represent the complement-binding site.
c. They are at the carboxy-terminal ends of the
molecules.
d. They are found only on H chains.

A

a. They occur on both the H and L chains.

56
Q

All of the following are true of IgM except that it
a. can cross the placenta.
b. fixes complement.
c. has a J chain.
d. is a primary response antibody

A

a. can cross the placenta.

57
Q

How does the structure of IgE differ from that of IgG?
a. IgG has a secretory component and IgE does not.
b. IgE has one more constant region than IgG.
c. IgG has more antigen-binding sites than IgE.
d. IgG has more light chains than IgE.

A

b. IgE has one more constant region than IgG.

58
Q

How many antigen-binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have?
a. 2
b.4
c.6
d. 10

A

d. 10

59
Q

Bence Jones proteins are identical to which of the following?
a. H chains
b. L chains
c. IgM molecules
d. IgG molecules

A

b. L chains

60
Q

A Fab fragment consists of
a. two H chains.
b. two L chains.
c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain.
d. one L chain and an entire H chain.

A

c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain.

61
Q

Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgM

A

a. IgA

62
Q

Which of the following pairs represents two different immunoglobulin allotypes?
a. IgM and IgG
b. IgM1 and IgM2
c. Anti-human IgM and anti-human IgG
d. IgG1m3 and IgG1m17

A

d. IgG1m3 and IgG1m17

63
Q

The structure of a typical immunoglobulin consists of which of the following?
a. 2L and 2H chains
b. 4L and 2H chains
c. 4L and 4H chains
d.2Land4Hchains

A

a. 2L and 2H chains

64
Q

Which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules?
a. Kappa
b. Gamma
c. Mu
d. Alpha

A

a. Kappa

65
Q

If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the following is a likely possibility?
a. Normal response to active infection
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Immunodeficiency disorder
d. Monoclonal gammopathy

A

c. Immunodeficiency disorder

66
Q

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in
a. the type of L chain.
b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds.
c. the ability to act as opsonins.
d. molecular weight.

A

b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds.

67
Q

Which best describes the role of the secretory compo- nent of IgA?
a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells
b. A means of joining two IgA monomers together
c. An aid to trapping antigen
d. Enhancement of complement fixation by the
classical pathway

A

a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells

68
Q

Which represents the main function of IgD?
a. Protection of the mucous membranes
b. Removal of antigens by complement fixation
c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells
d. Destruction of parasitic worms

A

c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells

69
Q

Which antibody is best at agglutination and comple- ment fixation?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgM

A

d. IgM

70
Q

Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal selection hypothesis of antibody formation?
a. Plasma cells make generalized antibody.
b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody
synthesis.
c. Proteins can alter their shape to conform to antigen.
d. Cell receptors break off and become circulating
antibody.

A

b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody
synthesis.

71
Q

All of the following are true of IgE except that it
a. fails to fix complement.
b. is heat stable.
c. attaches to tissue mast cells.
d. is found in the serum of allergic persons.

A

b. is heat stable.

72
Q

Which best describes coding for immunoglobulin molecules?
a. All genes are located on the same chromosome.
b. L chain rearrangement occurs before H chain
rearrangement.
c. Four different regions are involved in coding of
H chains.
d. Lambda rearrangement occurs before kappa
rearrangement.

A

c. Four different regions are involved in coding of
H chains.

73
Q

What is the purpose of HAT medium in the prepara- tion of monoclonal antibody?
a. Fusion of the two cell types
b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells
c. Restricting the growth of spleen cells
d. Restricting antibody production to the IgM class

A

b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells

74
Q

Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following?
a. 2 Fab’ and 1 Fc’ fragment
b. F(ab’)2 and 1 Fc’ fragment
c. 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments
d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

A

d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

75
Q

Which antibody provides protection to the growing fetus because it is able to cross the placenta?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

A

a. IgG

76
Q

Which best characterizes the secondary response?
a. Equal amounts of IgM and IgG are produced.
b. There is an increase in IgM only.
c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM.
d. The lag phase is the same as in the primary
response.

A

c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM.

Elle Flashcards - Immunology (4 decks)

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