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PRE BOARDS > IMMUNOLOGY AND SEROLOGY > Flashcards

IMMUNOLOGY AND SEROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of B cells?

A. Phagocytic
B. Participate in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
C. Contain surface immunoglobulins
D. Secrete the CS component of complement

A

C. Contain surface immunoglobulins

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2
Q

A lymphokine is

A. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and affecting lymphocytes
B. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes
C. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells
D. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes

A

B. A soluble mediator produced by lhymphocytes

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3
Q

Cell-mediated immunity is primarily mediated by:

A. B cells
B. T helper cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Dendritic cells

A

B. T helper cells

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4
Q

HLA antigens are found on

A. All nucleated cells
B. Red blood cells only
C. Solid tissue only
D. White blood cells only

A

A. All nucleated cells

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5
Q

More likely to be diagnostic of an acute infection

A. A total acute antibody titer of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16
B. A total acute antibody titer of 80 followed by a convalescent titer of 40
C. A total antibody titer of 80
D. An IgG antibody titer of 80

A

A. A total acute antibody titer of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16

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6
Q

Predominant type of antibody found in the serum of neonates born after full-term gestation

A. Infant IgA
B. Infant IgG
C. Infant IgM
D. Maternal IgG

A

D. Maternal IgG

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7
Q

An important part of nonspecific immune response is (are)

A. B cells
B. Basophils
C. Complement cascade
D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

A

C. Complement cascade

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8
Q

The major immunoglobin found in adult human serum is

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

C. IgG

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9
Q

In bone marrow transplantation, immunocompetent cells in the donor marrow may recognize antigens in the recipient and respond to those antigens. This phenomenon is an example of

A. Acute rejection
B. Chronic rejection
C. Graft versus host disease
D. Hyperacute rejection

A

C. Graft versus host disease

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10
Q

Corneal tissue may be transplanted successfully from one patient to another because

A. The cornea is nonatigenic
B. Corneal antigens do not activate T cells
C. Anticorneal antibodies are easily suppressed
D. The cornea occupies a priveleged site not usually seen by the immune system

A

D. The cornea occupies a priveleged site not usually seen by the immune system

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11
Q

A kidney transplane tfrom one identical twin to another is an example of a(n)

A. Allograft
B. Autograft
C. Isograft
D. Xenograft

A

C. Isograft

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12
Q

Which cell is the principal source of interleukin 2?

A. B cell
B. T cell
C. Monocyte
D. Plasma cell

A

B. T cell

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13
Q

The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen is termed the

A. Affinity
B. Avidity
C. Reactivity
D. Valence

A

B. Avidity

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14
Q

How does the secondary humoral immune response differ from the primary response

A. The lag phase is longer in the secondary immune response.
B. IgM is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response
C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.
D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes play an important role in the secondary response.

A

C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.

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15
Q

The Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test for syphilis is classified as a(n)

A. Agglutination reaction
B. Flocculation reaction
C. Hemagglutination reaction
D. Precipitation reaction

A

B. Flocculation reaction

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16
Q

Identical antibodies produced from a single clone of plasma cells describes

A. Reagin
B. Cold agglutinins
C. Heterophile antibodies
D. Monoclonal antibodies

A

D. Monoclonal antibodies

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17
Q

Loss of self-tolerance results in

A. Autoimmune disease
B. Graft-versus-host disease
C. Immunodeficiency
D. Tumors

A

A. Autoimmune disease

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18
Q

Which of the following serologic tests is commonly performed by an immunofluorescence method

A. Anti-HBs
B. Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
C. Antistreptolysin O (ASO)
D. C-reactive protein (CRP)

A

B. Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

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19
Q

Elevated IgE levels are typically found in

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

A

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions

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20
Q

In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the visible reaction is due to a reaction between

A. Enzyme and antibody
B. Enzyme and substrate
C. Fluorescent dye and antigen
D. Latex particles and antibody

A

B. Enzyme and substrate

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21
Q

The Fab portion of an antibody

A. Binds T cell receptor
B. Consists of two light chains only
C. Consists of two heavy chains only
D. Contains the hypervariable region

A

D. Contains the hypervariable region

22
Q

Which of the following statements about immunoglobulin light chains is true

A. Each immunoglobulin monomer has either one kappa or one lambda chain
B. There are two types: kappa and lambda
C. They consist of constant regions only
D. They form part of the Fc fragment

A

B. There are two types: kappa and lambda

23
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are produced by

A. Cultured T cells
B. Human plasma cells
C. Mouse plasma cells
D. Hybridomas

A

D. Hybridomas

24
Q

The activity of natural killer (NK) cells

A. Does not require previous exposure to an antigen
B. Involves phagocytosis and killing of bacteria
C. Requires interaction with cytotoxic T cells
D. Requires interaction with B cells

A

A. Does not require previous exposure to an antigen

25
Q

The primary mechanism responsible for pathology in systemic lupus erythematosus is

A. Allergic reaction to foreign molecules
B. Antibodies directed against self-antigens
C. Polyclonal activation of cytotoxic T cells
D. Lack of intracellular killing after neutrophil phagocytosis of bacteria

A

B. Antibodies directed against self-antigens

26
Q

Which complement protein is present in the greatest concentration in human serum

A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4

A

C. C3

27
Q

A soluble antigen and soluble antibody reacting to form an insoluble product describes

A. Agglutination reactions
B. Heterophile reactions
C. Labeled reactions
D. Precipitation reactions

A

D. Precipitation reactions

28
Q

Which of the following is an example of a treponemal antigen test used for the diagnosis of syphilis

A. CRP
B. RPR
C. VDRL
D. FTA-ABS

A

D. FTA-ABS

29
Q

A serum sample is positive for HBsAg. This result indicates that the person from whom the serum was taken

A. Had a hepatitis B infection in the past but overcame the infection
B. Has either active or chronice hepatitis B infection
C. Was immunized recently against the hepatitis B virus
D. Is not infectious for the hepatitis B virus

A

B. Has either active or chronice hepatitis B infection

30
Q

What is the indicator system used in the complement fixation test

A. Sensitized sheep red blood cells
B. Fluorescent-labeled antihuman globulin
C. Enzyme-labeled antihuman globulin
D. Guinea pig complement

A

A. Sensitized sheep red blood cells

31
Q

Hashimoto disease is an autoimmune disease primarily involving the

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Thyroid gland

A

D. Thyroid gland

32
Q

The first serologic marker to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus infection is

A.Anti-HB
B. Anti-HBc
C. Anti-HBs
D. HBsAg

A

D. HBsAg

33
Q

In competitive radioimmunosorbent test (RIST), what does a high signal suggest

A. The patient sample has a low concentration of IgE
B. The patient sample has a low concentration of IgM
C. The patient sample has a low concentration of IgE
D. The patient sample has a high concentration of total antibody

A

A. The patient sample has a low concentration of IgE

34
Q

A 28-year-old female complains to her family physician of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and low-grade fever, Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness and a low-grade fever. Her physician orders a hepatitis profile and obtains the results below.

Anti-HAV: Nonreactive
Anti-HBc: Reactive
Anti-HBs: Nonreactive
HBsAg: Reactive
HBeAg: Reactive
Anti-HCV: Nonreactive

Which of the following is the most likely conclusion?
A. Acute HAV infection
B. Acute HBV infection
C. Chronic HBV infection
D. Immunity to HBV due to past infection

A

B. Acute HBV infection

35
Q

A living donor is being sought for a child who requires a kidney transplant. The best odds of finding an MHC compatible donor occur between the child and

A. A sibling
B. An unrelated individual
C. The child’s father
D. The child’s mother

A

A. A sibling

36
Q

Incompatible blood transfusions are examples of

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

A

B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions

37
Q

Natural barriers of the immune system include all except which of the following

A. pH of secretions
B. Coughing
C. Hair follicles
D. Intestinal bacteria

A

C. Hair follicles

38
Q

The fundamental difference between primary and secondary organs of the lymphatic system is:

A. Antibody production occurs only in the primary lymph organs
B. Complement productions occur only in the primary lymph organs
C. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in the secondary organs, and activation occurs in primary organs
D. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in primary organs, and activation occurs in secondary organs.

A

D. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in primary organs, and activation occurs in secondary organs.

39
Q

A double-positive T cell would express which markers?

A. CD4 + CD8 + CD3 +
B. CD4 - CD8 + CD3 +
C. CD4 - CD8 - CD3 -
D. CD4 + CD8 - CD3 +

A

A. CD4 + CD8 + CD3 +

40
Q

Which cell is considered to be a bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems?

A. NK cell
B. Mast cell
C. Monocyte-macrophage
D. T cell

A

A. NK cell

41
Q

Antigens that make very good immunogens include which of the following?

A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B. Proteins

42
Q

When C3 is cleaved by C3 convertase, what is the result?

A. C3a is released
B. C3b is used as an opsonin
C. C3b is combined with other complement proteins to form C5 convertase
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

43
Q

A patient with a viral infection to the ABC virus is found to have a high antibody titer to the ABC virus’s RNA, or anti-ABCr. Which of the following is true

A. MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD4+ T cells
B. MHC class II molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells
C. MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells
D. MHC class II molecules presented antigen to CD4+ T cells

A

C. MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells

44
Q

What is the difference between agglutination and precipitation reactions?

A. Agglutination occurs between a soluble antigen and antibody
B. Agglutination occurs when the antigen is particulate
C. Precipitation occurs when the antigen is particulate
D. Precipitation occurs when both antigen and antibody are particulate

A

B. Agglutination occurs when the antigen is particulate

45
Q

In radial immunodiffusion test, the gel contains which of the following

A. The antigen to be tested
B. Antibody
C. Patient sample
D. The gel is the medium to which the antibody and antigen applied in equal portion.

A

B. Antibody

46
Q

Which statement is true regarding the radial immunodiffusion test

A. The area of the precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration of antibody in the sample
B. The area of the precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration of antibody in the sample
C. The area of the precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration antibody and antigen in the sample
D. The area of the precipitin ring indicates a partial identity to the antibody in the sample.

A

A. The area of the precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration of antibody in the sample

47
Q

The indirect antiglobulin test is for _________ whereas the direct antiglobulin test is for _______

A. Serum antigen; bound antigen
B. Serum antigen; bound antibody
C. Serum antibody; bound antigen
D. Serum antibody; bound antibody

A

D. Serum antibody; bound antibody

48
Q

What is the difference between nephelometry and turbidimetry

A. There is no difference between the two assays, only in name
B. Nephelometry is a newer example of turbidimetry
C. Nephelometry measures light transmitted through a solution, and turbidimetry measures light scattered in a solution
D. Nephelometry measures light scattered in a solution, and turbidimetry measures light transmitted through a solution

A

D. Nephelometry measures light scattered in a solution, and turbidimetry measures light transmitted through a solution

49
Q

In an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion, the line of precipitation between the antibody and the antigen wells forms an X. This reaction would be described as which of the following?

A. Nonidentity
B. Partial identity
C. Identity

A

A. Nonidentity

50
Q

An initial titer of 4 followed by a subsequent titer of 16 for the same patient, drawn 2 weeks later, is indicative of which of the following?

A. Infection
B. Convalescence
C. Past exposure
D. No exposure

A

A. Infection

51
Q
A

PRE BOARDS (2 decks)

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