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PRE BOARDS > CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY 2 > Flashcards

CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of drug-induced aplasia

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Chlorambucil
C. Busulfan
D. Nitrogen mustarda

A

A. Chloramphenicol

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2
Q

Anemia due to acute blood loss is usually:

A. Microcytic
B. Normocytic
C. Macrocytic
D. Hemolytic

A

B. Normocytic

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3
Q

Abnormally long and thin digits

A. Henoch scholein purpura
B. Osler-weber-rendu syndrome
C. Kasabach-meritt syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome

A

D. Marfan syndrome

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4
Q

Erythrocytic enzyme deficiency involving the EMP pathway is a deficiency of:

A. ATPase
B. G6PD
C. PK
D. LD

A

C. PK

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5
Q

Alkaline denaturation test detecs the presence of hemoglobin:

A. A1c
B. F
C. C
D. S

A

B. F

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6
Q

Episodes of PNH are usually associated with:

A. Cold temperature
B. Sleep
C. Hot temperature
D. Certain food or drugs

A

B. SLEEP

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7
Q

Sezary syndrome:

A. T cells
B. plasma cells
C. B cells
D. monocytes

A

A. T cells

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8
Q

Multiple myeloma is a disorder of:

A. T cells
B. plasma cells
C. MEG
D. RBCs

A

B. plasma cells

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9
Q

True for Philadelphia chromosome EXCEPT:

A. One arm in chr 22 is found to be translocated to chr 9
B. Occurs in erythroid, granulocytic, monocytic, and megakaryocytic cells
C. Patients with CML-Philadelphia chr negative usually have a good prognosis
D. found in patients with CML

A

C. Patients with CML-Philadelphia chr negative usually have a good prognosis

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10
Q

BM: >30% blasts + >10% granulocytic cells:

A. FAB M1
B. t(8:21)
C. t(1:22)
D. Acute myeloblastic leukemia poorly differentiated

A

B. t(8:21)

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11
Q

LAF rating: pale with a moderate amount of blue staining

A. 0
B. 1+
C. 2+
D. 3+
E. 4+

A

C. 2+

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12
Q

Impaired with RBC destruction EXCEPT:

A. megaloblastic anemia
B. aplastic anemia
C. anemia of blood loss
D. uremia

A

C. anemia of blood loss

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13
Q

Clinical features of IDA EXCEPT:

A. Strawberry tongue
B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
C. Immerslund syndrome
D. paresthesia
E. none of the above

A

C. Immerslund syndrome

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14
Q

Enzyme deficient in Variegate porphyria

A. Porphobilinogen deasiminase
B. Uroporphyrinogen l synthase
C. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

A

C. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

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15
Q

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency:

A. Acute intermittend porphyria
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
C. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
D. Hereditary coproporphyria

A

B. Porphyria cutanea tarda

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16
Q

Lysine replaces glutamic acid at 26th base beta chain:

A. Hb S
B. Hb E
C. Hb C
D. Hb O Arab

A

B. Hb E

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17
Q

Used to help in the diagnosis of DiGuglielmo’s syndrome:

A. Peroxidase
B. Sudan Black B
C. Acid Phosphatase
D. Periodic Acid-Schiff

A

D. Periodic Acid-Schiff

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18
Q

WBCs demonstrate a positive reaction in the tartaric acid-resistant acid phosphatase cytochemical stain are the lymophocytes seen in:

A. infectious lymphocytosis
B. ALL L1
C. malignant lymphoma
D. HCL

A

D. HCL

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19
Q

used to differentiate acute myelogenous and monocytic leukumias from ALL:

A. Peroxidase
B. Sudan Black B
C. Acid Phosphatase
D. Periodic Acid-Schiff

A

A. Peroxidase

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20
Q

Hereditary telangiectasia:

A. abnormal platelet adhesion to collagen
B. thrombocytosis
C. a deficiency of platelet dense bodies
D. dilated capillaries on mucous membranes that are likely to cause bleeding

A

D. dilated capillaries on mucous membranes that are likely to cause bleeding

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21
Q

Relative polycythemia may be found:

A. in pulmonary disorders
B. at high altitudes
C. with high oxygen affinity hemoglobin
D. in dehydration

A

D. in dehydration

22
Q

Donath-Landsteiner Test is positive in:

A. PNH
B. CHD
C. PCH
D. Warm AIHA

A

C. PCH

23
Q

RBC inclusion which cannot be stained and visualized with Romanowsky stains:

A. Pappenheimer bodies
B. Howell-Jolly bodies
C. Heinz bodies
D. Basophilic stippling

A

C. Heinz bodies

24
Q

Bite cells:

A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
B. PNH
C. G6PD deficiency
D. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

A

C. G6PD deficiency

25
Q

Severe IDA is characterized on PBS by:

A. microcytic hypochromic red cells
B. Pappenheimer bodies
C. macrocytic cells
D. normocytic normochromic red cells

A

A. microcytic hypochromic red cells

26
Q

Most characteristic of the peripheral blood picture in pure red cell aplasia:

A. pancytopenia
B. granulocytopenia and thrombocytopenia
C. leukocytosis
D. anemia

A

C. leukocytosis

27
Q

In warm AIHA, the offending antibody is usually:

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. Mixture of IgG and IgM

A

A. IgG

28
Q

Disorder associated with RBCs that are thermally unstable and fragment when heated to 45 deg to 46 deg Celsius

A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Hereditary elliptocytes
C. PNH
D. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

A

D. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

29
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the presence of hemoglobin S

A. Dithionite solubility test
B. Hemoglobin electrophorosis
C. Heat instability test
D. Acid elution test

A

A. Dithionite solubility test

30
Q

RBCs that contain a marked decrease in spectrin would most likely cause:

A. an increase in membrane permeability
B. methamoglobinemia
C. an absence of MN antigens
D. decreased RBC membrane deformability

A

D. decreased RBC membrane deformability

31
Q

The principal test in the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis is:

A. autohemolysis test
B. Ham’s test
C. osmotic fragility test
D. thermal stability test

A

C. osmotic fragility test

32
Q

Hemolytic anemias caused by intrinsic RBC abnormalities include:

A. immune hemolytic anemia
B. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
C. thermal injury anemia
D. hereditary spherocytosis

A

D. hereditary spherocytosis

33
Q

Patients with beta thalassemia major may show increased amounts of:

A. Hb F
B. Hb C
C. Hb H
D. Hb A

A

A. Hb F

34
Q

The urine EPO level in patients with polycythemia vera compared with other kinds of polycythemia is:

A. increased
B. the same
C. variable
D. decreased

A

D. decreased

35
Q

Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate differentiates:

A. FAB ALLs
B. monoblasts from myeloblasts
C. granulocytic from moncytic cell lines
D. promyelocytes from myelocytes

A

C. granulocytic from moncytic cell lines

36
Q

Requisite blast percentage recommended by the World Health Organization for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia:

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%

A

B. 20%

37
Q

FAB M6 is characterized by:

A. promyelocytes and lysozyme activity
B. marrow megakaryocytes and thrombocytosis
C. marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells
D. marrow monoblasts and immature monocytes

A

C. marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells

38
Q

Key diagnostic for Hodgkin’s lymphoma:

A. bone marrow biopsy
B. lymph node biopsy
C. spinal tp
D. skin biopsy

A

B. lymph node biopsy

39
Q

What factors contribute to the sickling of RBCs in sickle cell anemia crisis

A. Sickling is spontaneous
B. Extremely hot weather
C. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood
D. Increase in blood pH and decrease in oxygen level

A

C. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood

40
Q

Which of the following is decreased in cases of intravascular hemolytic anemia

A. Bilirubin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Plasma hemoglobin
D. Urine hemosiderin

A

B. Haptoglobin

41
Q

Which of the following is not associated with hemolytic anemia

A. Decreased hemoglobin and PCV
B. Increased serum haptoglobin
C. Decreased RBC survival
D. Increased reticulocyte count

A

B. Increased serum haptoglobin

42
Q

Anemia associated with bone marrow infiltration and hyperproliferation by nonerythroid cells:

A. aplastic anemia
B. myelophthisic anemia
C. sideroblastic anemia
D. thalassemia

A

B. myelophthisic anemia

43
Q

Reflects decreased bone marrow production due to low tissue oxygen requirement and subsequent reduced EPO production:

A. anemia in liver disease
B. anemia of chronic disease
C. anemia of renal insufficiency
D. anemia in endocrine disease

A

D. anemia in endocrine disease

44
Q

The most concentrated coagulation factor in the blood is:

A. Fibrinogen
B. IX
C. X
D. XII

A

A. Fibrinogen

45
Q

Activated protein C together with its cofactor, protein S is an inhibitor of:

A. Plasmin
B. Plasminogen activators
C. Factors VIIIa and Va
D. Thrombin

A

C. Factors VIIIa and Va

46
Q

Congenital deficiency of factor IX EXCEPT:

A. Hemophilia B
B. Christmas disease
C. Sex-linked recessive trait
D. Autosomal recessive trait

A

B. Christmas disease

47
Q

All statements are true regarding Factor XI deficiency, EXCEPT

A. Rosenthal syndrome, hemophilia C.
B. Autosomal anatomic bleeding disorder
C. More than half of the cases have been described in Ashkenazi Jews
D. Prolonged PT and normal APTT

A

D. Prolonged PT and normal APTT

48
Q

A specimen is received for PT and APTT. The 5ml tube has 2.5ml of blood in it. Expected test results are:

A. PT and APTT both falsely short.
B. PT and APTT both falsely long.
C. PT and APTT both unaffected
D. PT unaffected, APTT falsely short

A

B. PT and APTT both falsely long.

49
Q

The urea solubility test is specific for detecting deficiencies of factor:

A. IX
B. X
C. XII
D. XIII

A

D. XIII

50
Q

The combination of prolonged mixing study procedures indicate the presence of:

A. Circulating inhibitor
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Excessive vitamin K
D. Anti-platelet antibodies

A

A. Circulating inhibitor

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