CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY 2 Flashcards
Most common cause of drug-induced aplasia
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Chlorambucil
C. Busulfan
D. Nitrogen mustarda
A. Chloramphenicol
Anemia due to acute blood loss is usually:
A. Microcytic
B. Normocytic
C. Macrocytic
D. Hemolytic
B. Normocytic
Abnormally long and thin digits
A. Henoch scholein purpura
B. Osler-weber-rendu syndrome
C. Kasabach-meritt syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome
Erythrocytic enzyme deficiency involving the EMP pathway is a deficiency of:
A. ATPase
B. G6PD
C. PK
D. LD
C. PK
Alkaline denaturation test detecs the presence of hemoglobin:
A. A1c
B. F
C. C
D. S
B. F
Episodes of PNH are usually associated with:
A. Cold temperature
B. Sleep
C. Hot temperature
D. Certain food or drugs
B. SLEEP
Sezary syndrome:
A. T cells
B. plasma cells
C. B cells
D. monocytes
A. T cells
Multiple myeloma is a disorder of:
A. T cells
B. plasma cells
C. MEG
D. RBCs
B. plasma cells
True for Philadelphia chromosome EXCEPT:
A. One arm in chr 22 is found to be translocated to chr 9
B. Occurs in erythroid, granulocytic, monocytic, and megakaryocytic cells
C. Patients with CML-Philadelphia chr negative usually have a good prognosis
D. found in patients with CML
C. Patients with CML-Philadelphia chr negative usually have a good prognosis
BM: >30% blasts + >10% granulocytic cells:
A. FAB M1
B. t(8:21)
C. t(1:22)
D. Acute myeloblastic leukemia poorly differentiated
B. t(8:21)
LAF rating: pale with a moderate amount of blue staining
A. 0
B. 1+
C. 2+
D. 3+
E. 4+
C. 2+
Impaired with RBC destruction EXCEPT:
A. megaloblastic anemia
B. aplastic anemia
C. anemia of blood loss
D. uremia
C. anemia of blood loss
Clinical features of IDA EXCEPT:
A. Strawberry tongue
B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
C. Immerslund syndrome
D. paresthesia
E. none of the above
C. Immerslund syndrome
Enzyme deficient in Variegate porphyria
A. Porphobilinogen deasiminase
B. Uroporphyrinogen l synthase
C. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
C. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency:
A. Acute intermittend porphyria
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
C. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
D. Hereditary coproporphyria
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Lysine replaces glutamic acid at 26th base beta chain:
A. Hb S
B. Hb E
C. Hb C
D. Hb O Arab
B. Hb E
Used to help in the diagnosis of DiGuglielmoβs syndrome:
A. Peroxidase
B. Sudan Black B
C. Acid Phosphatase
D. Periodic Acid-Schiff
D. Periodic Acid-Schiff
WBCs demonstrate a positive reaction in the tartaric acid-resistant acid phosphatase cytochemical stain are the lymophocytes seen in:
A. infectious lymphocytosis
B. ALL L1
C. malignant lymphoma
D. HCL
D. HCL
used to differentiate acute myelogenous and monocytic leukumias from ALL:
A. Peroxidase
B. Sudan Black B
C. Acid Phosphatase
D. Periodic Acid-Schiff
A. Peroxidase
Hereditary telangiectasia:
A. abnormal platelet adhesion to collagen
B. thrombocytosis
C. a deficiency of platelet dense bodies
D. dilated capillaries on mucous membranes that are likely to cause bleeding
D. dilated capillaries on mucous membranes that are likely to cause bleeding
Relative polycythemia may be found:
A. in pulmonary disorders
B. at high altitudes
C. with high oxygen affinity hemoglobin
D. in dehydration
D. in dehydration
Donath-Landsteiner Test is positive in:
A. PNH
B. CHD
C. PCH
D. Warm AIHA
C. PCH
RBC inclusion which cannot be stained and visualized with Romanowsky stains:
A. Pappenheimer bodies
B. Howell-Jolly bodies
C. Heinz bodies
D. Basophilic stippling
C. Heinz bodies
Bite cells:
A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
B. PNH
C. G6PD deficiency
D. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis
C. G6PD deficiency
Severe IDA is characterized on PBS by:
A. microcytic hypochromic red cells
B. Pappenheimer bodies
C. macrocytic cells
D. normocytic normochromic red cells
A. microcytic hypochromic red cells
Most characteristic of the peripheral blood picture in pure red cell aplasia:
A. pancytopenia
B. granulocytopenia and thrombocytopenia
C. leukocytosis
D. anemia
C. leukocytosis
In warm AIHA, the offending antibody is usually:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. Mixture of IgG and IgM
A. IgG
Disorder associated with RBCs that are thermally unstable and fragment when heated to 45 deg to 46 deg Celsius
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Hereditary elliptocytes
C. PNH
D. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis
D. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis
Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the presence of hemoglobin S
A. Dithionite solubility test
B. Hemoglobin electrophorosis
C. Heat instability test
D. Acid elution test
A. Dithionite solubility test
RBCs that contain a marked decrease in spectrin would most likely cause:
A. an increase in membrane permeability
B. methamoglobinemia
C. an absence of MN antigens
D. decreased RBC membrane deformability
D. decreased RBC membrane deformability
The principal test in the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis is:
A. autohemolysis test
B. Hamβs test
C. osmotic fragility test
D. thermal stability test
C. osmotic fragility test
Hemolytic anemias caused by intrinsic RBC abnormalities include:
A. immune hemolytic anemia
B. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
C. thermal injury anemia
D. hereditary spherocytosis
D. hereditary spherocytosis
Patients with beta thalassemia major may show increased amounts of:
A. Hb F
B. Hb C
C. Hb H
D. Hb A
A. Hb F
The urine EPO level in patients with polycythemia vera compared with other kinds of polycythemia is:
A. increased
B. the same
C. variable
D. decreased
D. decreased
Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate differentiates:
A. FAB ALLs
B. monoblasts from myeloblasts
C. granulocytic from moncytic cell lines
D. promyelocytes from myelocytes
C. granulocytic from moncytic cell lines
Requisite blast percentage recommended by the World Health Organization for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
B. 20%
FAB M6 is characterized by:
A. promyelocytes and lysozyme activity
B. marrow megakaryocytes and thrombocytosis
C. marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells
D. marrow monoblasts and immature monocytes
C. marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells
Key diagnostic for Hodgkinβs lymphoma:
A. bone marrow biopsy
B. lymph node biopsy
C. spinal tp
D. skin biopsy
B. lymph node biopsy
What factors contribute to the sickling of RBCs in sickle cell anemia crisis
A. Sickling is spontaneous
B. Extremely hot weather
C. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood
D. Increase in blood pH and decrease in oxygen level
C. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood
Which of the following is decreased in cases of intravascular hemolytic anemia
A. Bilirubin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Plasma hemoglobin
D. Urine hemosiderin
B. Haptoglobin
Which of the following is not associated with hemolytic anemia
A. Decreased hemoglobin and PCV
B. Increased serum haptoglobin
C. Decreased RBC survival
D. Increased reticulocyte count
B. Increased serum haptoglobin
Anemia associated with bone marrow infiltration and hyperproliferation by nonerythroid cells:
A. aplastic anemia
B. myelophthisic anemia
C. sideroblastic anemia
D. thalassemia
B. myelophthisic anemia
Reflects decreased bone marrow production due to low tissue oxygen requirement and subsequent reduced EPO production:
A. anemia in liver disease
B. anemia of chronic disease
C. anemia of renal insufficiency
D. anemia in endocrine disease
D. anemia in endocrine disease
The most concentrated coagulation factor in the blood is:
A. Fibrinogen
B. IX
C. X
D. XII
A. Fibrinogen
Activated protein C together with its cofactor, protein S is an inhibitor of:
A. Plasmin
B. Plasminogen activators
C. Factors VIIIa and Va
D. Thrombin
C. Factors VIIIa and Va
Congenital deficiency of factor IX EXCEPT:
A. Hemophilia B
B. Christmas disease
C. Sex-linked recessive trait
D. Autosomal recessive trait
B. Christmas disease
All statements are true regarding Factor XI deficiency, EXCEPT
A. Rosenthal syndrome, hemophilia C.
B. Autosomal anatomic bleeding disorder
C. More than half of the cases have been described in Ashkenazi Jews
D. Prolonged PT and normal APTT
D. Prolonged PT and normal APTT
A specimen is received for PT and APTT. The 5ml tube has 2.5ml of blood in it. Expected test results are:
A. PT and APTT both falsely short.
B. PT and APTT both falsely long.
C. PT and APTT both unaffected
D. PT unaffected, APTT falsely short
B. PT and APTT both falsely long.
The urea solubility test is specific for detecting deficiencies of factor:
A. IX
B. X
C. XII
D. XIII
D. XIII
The combination of prolonged mixing study procedures indicate the presence of:
A. Circulating inhibitor
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Excessive vitamin K
D. Anti-platelet antibodies
A. Circulating inhibitor
