Immunology and Plasmids Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of an antigen?

A

a foreign material typically a protein that elicits an immune response so we can have specific recognition

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2
Q

What is the first line of defense?

A

Innate; skin to prevent entry, mucous membranes and their secretions (e.g. lysozymes) to prevent colonization; normal microflora to act as competition for nutrients; all non-specific

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3
Q

What is the second line of defense?

A

Natural killer cells and phagocytes; inflammation; fever (creates non-optimal environment, also helps immune cells to divide faster); antimicrobial substances; still non-specific

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4
Q

What is the third line of defense?

A

Adaptive (acquired immunity); specialized lymphocytes (T cells and B cells); antibodies

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5
Q

Describe the general characteristics of antibodies

A

Y-shaped molecule where each “prong” bind single, identical epitopes; composed of a light chain and heavy chain (V and C components, where C is elongated in the heavy chain but the V components remain the same size)

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6
Q

What are the different kinds of antibodies?

A

IgM (antibody, secreted first during immune response; snowflake shaped), IgG (main antibody involved in the immune resposne; single Y-shape), IgA (secreted antibody, two Y’s attached at the Fc), IgD (“dispensible”–does not seem to be essential), and IgE (involved in the allergic reaction…“evil”)

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7
Q

What are the characteristics of IgG?

A

Monomer, therefore bivalent, most abundant Ab (~80%), recruits immune system, can also be secreted like IgA, is present in the lymph, blood, and intestine, can cross the placental barrier, enhances phagocytosis; neutralizes toxins and virsuses; protects the fetus and newborn; half life of 23 days;

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8
Q

Random deletions of V, D, and J genes in the light and heavy chains create unique antibodies–no change in the C chain?; subsequent mutations of the already-created antibodies refine the existing ones

A

meh

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9
Q

What is the B-cell clonal selection theory?

A

Test 1: if the cell makes self-antigen binding antibodies, kill it
Test 2: if the cell makes antibodies which are useful in fighting the infection, stimulate it to divide to proliferate the antibodies

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10
Q

What are the forms of B cells and where do they come form?

A

Plasma B cells (protein factory–pump out the antibodies into circulation) and memory B cells (divide slowly and do not make as many antibodies; useful for long-term immunity); they come from naive B cells that are activated to germinate upon antigen exposure

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11
Q

Remember that when you are first infected with an antigen, your body will produce IgM Ab in small amounts peaking at 10-11 days, but it will produce IgG antibodies in much larger amounts peaking at about 15 days; as infection is taken care of Ab titer decreases; when reinfected, body still makes new IgM Ab but memory cells are converted to plasma cells and a much larger IgG Ab titer is created (peaks within 7 days of the second infection, as does IgM)

A

ayyyy

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12
Q

What are the protective mechanisms of Ab joining to An in vivo?

A

Agglutination (antibodies bind the same antigen and clumps them together, reducing the number of infectious units to be dealt with); opsonization (coating An with Ab to enhance phagocytosis); neutralization (Ab blocks adhesion of virus and bacteria to mucosa and blocks the attachment/activity of toxins) ; activation of complement (builds pores into cell wall to causse cytoplasm to leak out); Ab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (used for fighting bigger antigens such as eukaryotes; Ab bind to target organisms and cause eosinohpils to release lytic enzymes to digest the organism)

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13
Q

What are secondary Ab?

A

Secondary antibodies bind to the primary antibody to assist in detection, sorting and purification of target antigens.

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14
Q

All mouse Ab specific for a certain Ag will have the same tail (crystallizable fragment, Fc) but will have different Ag binding sites due to random mutation

A

ye

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15
Q

How are Ab made in situ?

A

Lab animal (horse, hamster, mouse, rat, sheep, goat, chicken) are injected with a signle Ag (usually a protein, but may be a polysaccharide, hapten, etc) and will create Abs against it; serum is collected and Ab is purified; secondary Abs can be made from the Fc (secondary Abs specific for the Fc tail)

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16
Q

How are Abs collected from blood?

A

Blood from a lab animal is spun to precipitate cells down to the bottom; yellowish serum (plasma) is passed through affinity chromatography which binds the Fc region of Abs; elution occurs by a low pH (glycine, pH=2.4) and then neutralized in fractionation tube; samples are tested by SDS-Page to determine peak fraction

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17
Q

What are polyclonal Abs?

A

Polyclonal: all IgG are from different B cells
• Each antibody from a different B cell may bind a different epitope
○ Good, because if one epitope mutates, there may be several other sites that different antibodies can still bind to;
Immune reactions are polyclonal, which is beneficial because if one epitope mutates so the Abs from a B-cell no longer recognize it, the other B-cell Abs will still recognize their epitope and can fight the infection

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18
Q

What are monoclonal Abs?

A

Monoclonal: all from one B-cell, only bind one epitope

• Start off with a B cell and makes it so that it never dies

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19
Q

Abs made from different B-cells may bind to the same antigen, but on a different site?

A

?? >->o

20
Q

How are monoclonal cells produced?

A

B-Cells, of which only a few make antibodies, are fused with immortal cancer cells through Polyehtylene glycol and sendai virus, which will fused two eukaryote cells together if they do not have a cell wall; then, only the resulting hybridomas will survive selective growth medium; then they will be further screened and clone to ascertain the hybridomas that react with antigens; every Ab will be the same because it came from the same B cell?–test for the specific antibody?

21
Q

What are the types of Ab labelling?

A

Isotope labelling (Iodine-125 or Sulfer-35 are attached to the protein; as they isotope decays, the electrons expose an X-ray film and the dark spots correspond to the presence of protein; enzyme labelling (common enzymes like HRP or alkaline phosphatase catalyze reactions that give a coloured product or chemluminesence); fluorescence labelling (a dye is attached to the protein that absorbs one colour and gives off another); may need to be visualized under UV light or may be visible on its own; heavy metals, which are good for electron microscopy

22
Q

Why does fluorescence detection need a filter?

A

to block out any emitted light below a certain wavelength to limit interference

23
Q

What are some western blot applications?

A

Detection and quanitification of potein in sample; if it was run on SDS-page, it can also give us information about the size; expression profiles of proteins in tissues (expression of diseased state vs normal state, eg); vrification of transgenic organisms; detect infections–see if antigens are present in the sample, OR anti-antigen antibodies are present

24
Q

What is the transgenic expession example we studied in class?

A

RPE65 is a gene involved in recycling Vit A, which converted retinal from it’s inactive to active form to help see moving pictures; those who lack this gene are blind (?); package the gene into a virus and insert it into the eye

25
Q

Describe an HIV test

A

ELISA western blot; nitrocellulose/nylon (?) sheet is covered with HIV proteins; the primary Ab are your own and will bind to HIV proteins; secondary Ab are goat-anti-human HRP (whcih will give off a coloured product); if two bands are present, you go to a moe specific test, because ELISAtest can show false positives

26
Q

ELISA tests are similar to Western blots but do not cotain the protein separation aspect (SDS

A

ye

27
Q

Describe the steps for an general ELISA test

A

Samples are placed into wells (microtiters) or blotted onto membranes; blocking proteins are added and washed away; primary (detection) Abs are added and washed away; secondary Abs linked to enzymes added, washed away; chromogenic reagents added, washed away

28
Q

How does a pregnancy test work?

A

Pee on the stick; the urine will then move the mobile enzyme-linked MONOCLONAL mouse anti-HCG Ab; if HCG is present, it will bind to an IMmobile, POLYclonal, mouse anti-HCG Ab; mobile Ab will then bind to HCG on the immobile Ab and the enzyme will catalyze the colour reagent to a coloured product; any unbound mobile enzymes will stick to the immobile polyclonal anti-mouse Ab

29
Q

Agglutination assay general description

A

Ab clump with Ag (precipitin reactio)–>confirms that both Ab and Ag are present; can test for the presence of: uknown cells using known Abs; OR known cells in an unknown serum (unknown Abs)

30
Q

What are the possible identities in an ouchterlony test?

A

Non-identity–both wells contain different Ag that still ppt with the Ab; results in two lines that cross
Partial identity–both well contain the same antigen, but one well contains a second Ag which results in a spur pointing away from the sample containing the extra Ag
identity–shared, singular Ag in both samples which causes the ppt line to curve in a parabolic shape

31
Q

How is an immunofluorescent stain carried out?

A

Cultured cells or tissues are fixed onto slides by paraformaldehyde/methanol/acetone, which will kill the cells; rinse; cells are permeabilizaed by treating with dilute detergents (which will open the cell membrane); cells are blocked to reduce non-specific binding (proteins stick to the blocking reagents and are rinsed away); primary Ab is added and rinsed away; secondary fluorescent Ab is added and rinsed;

32
Q

What are the types of fluorescence microscopy and what are the pros and conns?

A

Standard FM: whole image is illuminated, out-of-focus light makes in-focus image fuzzy; Pros: cheap; Cons: fuzziness and photodamage
Confocal FM: whole image is illuminated and out-of-focus light is blocked; Pros: very good resolution; Cons: photodamage
Two-photon FM: Less energetic light is used (IR light) and two photons must hit the dye simultaneously to excite it; Pros: lower photodamage, better tissue penetration; Cons: costliest, less resolution than CFM

33
Q

Regular agglutination requires cells to exhibit visible clumping, but ouchtrlony can showing clumping with proteins

A

wao

34
Q

why do we not want to use polyclonal mobile Ab in the ELISA pregnancy tests?

A

Polyclonal would saturate all epitopes
• We could not get it to stop at the first trap position
• More HCG would be need to see a positive result
• Result in a loss of sensitivity

35
Q

What is a conjugative plasmid?

A

Transmitted during conjugation; carry a variety of info

36
Q

What is a resistance plasmid?

A

Protects against environmental factors; MDR (multiple drug resistance) plasmids

37
Q

What is a colicinogenic plasmid?

A

Codes for proteins that kills other microbes (allows for availability of more nutrients)

38
Q

What are degradative plasmids?

A

Contain genes for novel catabolic enzymes?

39
Q

What is a virulence plasmid?

A

Increases the pathogenicity of an organisms (e.g. codes for toxins)

40
Q

What is an F plasmid?

A

F+ or F-
• Allows cell to distribute daughter nuclei properply
• Also allows to make the sex pilus which allows for transfer to another bacteria (makes an F- cell itno a F+ cell)
• Whole genome is not being transferred
• Not in all bacterial species
• Selfish plasmid
○ Doesn’t really do anything for the cell,it just wants to transfer itself

41
Q

Bacteriaa may contains hundreds of copies of a single plasmid to allow for rapid duplication and expression at high levels of genes conferring an advantage to them

A

ya

42
Q

What are the typical components of a plasmid?

A

Independent ORI; capable of accepting the inserted gene; positive selection gene (only cells with the vector survive); Insert differentiation gene (cells with the insert look different than cells without); cloning sites (places to insert the DNA)

43
Q

What is the procedure for western blot?

A

A polyacrylamide gel is first run (SDS, native, or 2D); the bands from the gel are transferred to a sheet of nylon or nitrocellulose (which have high affinities for protein); can transfer through two ways: capillary transfer, which is running liquid over the sheets, or electrophoretic transfer which is pulling proteins onto sheet through electrical current; since the sheets have high affinity for protein, blocking proteins (such as BSA or skim milk powder) must be added so the Abs only bind to the proteins of interest; the primary Ab is added and then the secondary Ab is added to detect the presence of the primary Ab; no specified type of Ab labelling

44
Q

What is the reaction for HRP to make chemiluminsence?

A

HRP+hydrogen peroxide+luminol=unstable intermediate which gives off light (3-aminophthalate +N2 +light–425-510nm)

45
Q

What kind of antibodies are involved in ouchterlony tests?

A

polyclonal antibodies