Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Innate immunity relies on what 2 cell types? Response time? What 3 things produced by virally infected cells protect uninfected cells and activate macrophages and NK cells?

A

Phagocytes and natural killer cells (NK), non-specific instinctive rapid response, resistance not improved by repeat infection
Lysosomes, complement, interferon

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2
Q

Response time of adaptive immunity? Neutrophils take up what % of the blood? Lifespan? Important role in what? Has what 2 main intracellular granules? Contain what? Primary lysosomes combine with what? Have what 2 receptors? Kill microbes by secreting what?

A

Days-weeks, resistance improved by repeat infection
65%, 6 hours- 12 days
Innate immunity- phagocytosis
Primary lysosomes- myeloperoxidase, muramidase, acid hydrolysis and proteins (defensives), with phagosomes containing microbes to digest them
Secondary granules- lactoferrin and lysozyme
Fc and complement receptors
Can kill microbes by secreting toxic substances (superoxides)

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3
Q

Monocytes take up what % of blood? Lifespan? Play important role in what? Differentiate into what in the tissues? Main role is to what? Have what that can kill microbes? Have what receptors to bind to all kinds of microbes?

A

5%
Months
Innate and adaptive immunity
Macrophages
Remove anything foreign or dead
Lysosomes containing peroxidase that can kill microbes
Fc, complement, PRRs, Toll-like receptors, mannose receptors

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4
Q

Lifespan of macrophages? Examples? Important role in what? Most often do what? Main role? Have lysosomes containing what? Have what receptors? Present what to T-cells?

A

Months/ years
Kupffer cells (liver) and microglia (brain)
Innate and adaptive immunity
First line of non-self recognition
Remove foreign (microbes) and self (dead/ tumour cells)
Have lysosomes containing peroxidase (free radicals)
Fc, complement receptors, Toll-like receptors and mannose receptors- can bind to all kinds of microbes
Antigens

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5
Q

Eosinophil make up what % of blood? Lifespan? Granules stain for what dye type? Mainly associated with what infections?Granules contain what protein potent to what organism? What does MBP activate, induce and provoke?

A

5%
8-12 days
Acidic dyes e.g. eosin- red/ pink
Parasitic and allergic reactions
Major Basic Protein (MBP)- potent toxin for helminth worms
MBP activates neutrophils and induces histamine release from mast cells and provokes bronchospasm (allergy)

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6
Q

Basophils make up what % of blood? Lifespan? Granules stain for what dye type? Similar to what? Express what receptors? Binding of IgE results in what? Mainly involved in immunity to what? Difference compared to mast cells?

A

2%
2 days
Basic dyes e.g. haemotoxylin- blue/ violet
Mast cells
High affinity IgE receptors
De-granulation- release of histamine–> allergic reactions
Parasitic and allergic reactions
Mast cells= fixed in tissue, whereas basophils are able to circulate in blood around the body

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7
Q

Mast cell express what receptor? Only where? Binding of IgE receptor results in what? Mainly involved in what immunity?

A

High affinity IgE receptors
Tisses
De-granulation–> histamine release, main cause of allergic reactions
To parasitic and allergic reactions

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8
Q

T lymphocytes make up what % of blood? Lifespan? Major role in what? Originate and mature where? Recognise what cell type? Bind antigen through what? Produce what? Specifically kill what? 4 T lymphocyte types?

A
10% 
Hours- years 
Adaptive immunity 
Bone marrow and thymus 
APCs 
T cell receptors (TCRs) 
Cytokines 
Infected host cells 
Th1, Th2, cytotoxic and T reg cells
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9
Q

TH1 and TH2 cells do what and have what receptor? Cytotoxic T cells use what receptor to kill cells directly? T reg cells do what and are found where?

A

Help B cells make antibody, activate macrophages and NK cells, help develop cytotoxic T cells
CD4= help immune response for intracellular pathogens
CD8
Regulates immune response and acts to dampen them- blood, lymph nodes and spleen

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10
Q

B lymphocytes make up what % of the blood? Lifespan? Major role in what? Originate and mature where? Recognise what? Express what on cell surface? Differentiates into what to make antibodies? Found where?

A
15% 
Hours- years 
Adaptive immunity 
Bone marrow 
APCs 
Membrane bound antibody on cell surface 
Plasma cells that then make antibodies 
Blood, lymph nodes and spleen
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11
Q

NK cells account for what % of lymphocytes? Expresses what glycoprotein? Found where? Recognise and kill what 2 cells via apoptosis?

A

15%
CD56
Spleen and tissues
Virus infected and tumour cells

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12
Q

Dendritic cells are type of what? Only these cells can do what? They produce cytokines and other factors that promote what? Found in tissue that has contact with what?

A

APC
Induce primary immune response inactive or resting T lymphocytes
B cell activation and differentiation
Outside environment e.g. over skin (in Langerhans cells) and in linings of nose, lungs, stomach and intestines

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13
Q

What is complement? Derived from what and more than how many types? Many exist as what? Once activated may behave as what? Each precursor is cleaved into what? Major fragment ‘b’ has how many biologically active sites? Minor fragments ‘a’ have important biological properties in what phase?

A

Complex series of interacting plasma proteins which forms major effector system for antibody- mediated immune reactions
Liver, more than 30
Inactive precursors- enzyme which cleaves several molecules of next component in sequence
Into 2 or more fragments
2- one for binding to cell membranes/ triggering complex and the other for enzymatic cleavage of next complement component
Fluid phase

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14
Q

Control of complement activation involves what? Major purpose of complement pathway? 4 things that complement can do when coming into contact with pathogen?

A

Spontaneous decay of any exposed attachment sites and inactivation by specific inhibitors
To remove/ destroy antigen, either by direct lysis or by opsonisation
Lyse microbes directly (Membrane Attack Complex- group of proteins make hole causing inrush of fluids–> lysis)
Increase chemotaxis (C3a and C5a)
Enhance inflammation
Induce opsonisation (C3b)- antigen becomes coated with substances, more easily engulfed by phagocytic cells since macrophages

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15
Q

Clinical indications related to complement?

A

Recurrent infections in children (especially pulmonary)
Swelling in hands or face
Fatigue, butterfly-shaped rash on face, cold sensitivity in extremities
Fever, tachycardia after blood transfusion
Recurrent infections in end-stage liver disease (cirrhosis, hepatitis)
Morning urine colour

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16
Q

Complement activation occurs in what 2 sequential phases? The C3 is cleaved by what enzymes? Major fragment C3b mediates what vital biological activities? Minor fragment C3a acts to do what? Cleavage of C3 is achieved via what 3 main routes?

A

Activation of C3 component
Activation of the ‘attack’ or lytic pathway
C3 convertases
Opsonisation and lysis of pathogen–> membrane attack complex
Enhances inflammation
Classical, alternative and lectin pathways–> C3 convertases, in response to different stimuli

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17
Q

Activation is dependent on what? Activation can be antibody independent when what 3 things react directly with C1? Complement proteins involved? Antibody more efficient at activating C1q than IgG? Antibodies that don’t activate the classical pathway? What is the classical pathway C3 convertase?

A
Antibodies 
Polyanions (e.g. heparin, protamine, DNA and RNA from apoptotic cells,) gram-negative bacteria or bound C-reactive protein
C1, C2 and C4
IgM 
IgA, IgD and IgE 
C4bC2a= cleaves C3--> C3a and C3b
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18
Q

Alternative pathway consists of what 4 things? What is the central reaction in this pathway? It generates a C3 converts without the need for what? What are the most important activators? Alternative pathway= responsible for what? Active enzyme involved?

A

Factor D, factor B, properdin (factor p) and C3
Antibody, C1, C4 or C2
Microbial cell surfaces e.g. yeast walls, bacterial cell walls or endotoxin (found in gram-negative bacteria)
Innate defence
C3bBb- stabilised by properdin

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19
Q

Activation in lectin pathway is independent of what? Consists of what 5 things? Initiated when what binds to mannose on bacterial cell walls, yeast walls or viruses? C3 convertase involved?

A

Mannose-binding lectin (MBL), MASP-1, MASP-2, C4 and C2

Mannose-binding lectin (MBL)

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20
Q

C3a along with C5a acts to enhance what? By stimulating what? This increases what? C3b has what which is used to bind to the pathogen surface? Used in what process to coat the pathogen surface?

A

Inflammation
Mast cells to secrete histamine–> increased vascular permeability and attracts leucocytes
Thioester bond
Opsonisation

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21
Q

2 receptors on macrophages for complement proteins? Macrophage cannot engulf protein coated in what on its own? How can phagocytosis be performed?

A

CR1 and a C5a receptor
C3b
C5a–> C5a receptor, so C3b can bind via CR1 receptor to enable phagocytosis

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22
Q

C3b can also bind to what complex? Forms what is known as what? Can do either what or what? What forms the MAC?

A

C4bC2a complex–> C4bC2aC3b complex
C3/C5 convertase
Cleave C3–> C3a and C3b or C5 into C5a and C5b–> MAC formation
C5b together with other complement proteins–> lysis and pathogen destruction

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23
Q

Recurrent infections caused by what bacteria? 3 e.g.? Due to what? Common in young children why?

A

Encapsulated bacteria- mainly gram negative
Meningococci (Neisseria meningitis), haemophilus influenza b, strep. pneumonia
Due to gap between loss of maternal antibodies and antibody production

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24
Q

C5-C9 deficiency leads to what 2 infections? Deficiency of what leads to neisseria infection? C3 deficiency leads to what? C2 deficiency? Factor I deficiency? % of recurrent meningococcal infections have complement deficiency?

A

Neisseria and haemophilus influenza B infections
Factor B, D and properdin
Recurrent bacterial infections, wider immune problems
Strep infection (especially pneumoniae)
Upper UTIs and glomerulonephritis
30%

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25
Q

Symptoms and median survival or paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?

A

Fatigue, erectile dysfunction and abdominal pain- 10 years
Young adult onset
Excessive clotting- no control of complement activation, RBCs lysed–> clots

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26
Q

What causes atypical haemolytic uraemia syndrome (aHUS)? Leads to what? Inheritance?

A

Factor H, factor I, factor B, C3 autoantibodies or mutation
Abnormal clot formation in small blood vessels–> acute kidney failure–> end-stage kidney disease
Autosomal

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27
Q

What causes dense deposit disease (DDD)? Onset age? % develop end-stage renal disease? Causes what?

A

C3 and factor H polymorphisms, lipodystrophy (complete/ partial loss of adipose tissue)
5-15 years
50%
Uncontrolled activation of complement in certain tissues

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28
Q

What causes hereditary angiodema? Deficiency of what? C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to what? Inheritance? Depletion of what are diagnostic? Also inhibits what? What production?

A

Deficiency of complement control proteins
Excessive complement activation via classical pathway
Autosomal dominant
C2 and C4
Coagulation cascade
Bradykinin

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29
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)? Complement deficiencies in what cause predisposition for SLE? Results in what?

A

Autoimmune disease
C1q, C2 and C4
Impaired clearance of apoptotic cells and immune complexes
More prevalent in females

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30
Q

Major susceptibility gene for age-related macular degeneration? Damage of what causes complement activation? What is destroyed?

A

Factor H
Retinal cells
Centre of visual field

31
Q

High levels of complement products where in RA? Autoimmune damage to what? What is an antibody? Antigen? Epitope? Affinity?

A

Synovium
Joints
A protein produced in response to antigen- only bind with antigen that induced its formation i.e. specificity
Molecule that reacts with preformed antibody and specific receptors on T and B cells
Part of antigen that binds to antibody/ receptor binding site
Measure of binding strength between an epitope and antibody binding site

32
Q

What region of antibodies bind different antigens specifically? Region binds to complement, Fc receptors on phagocytes and NK cells? Has a what chain structure? How many types of heavy and light chain? What do the heavy chains determine?

A

Fab regions
Fc region
Four-chain= two identical heavy (H) chains and two identical light (L) chains
5 types of heavy and 2 types of light chain
The class (isotope) of the antibody and physiological function of the antibody molecule

33
Q

Variable regions differ between antibodies with different what? Constant (C) regions are the same for antibodies of a given what class/ chain type? Variable and constant regions are encoded by separate what? What can recombine and mutate during B cell differentiation to give different antibody specificities?

A

Specificities
Given H chain class or L chain type
Separate exons
Multiple V region exons in the genome

34
Q

Immunoglobulins are what 3 things? What 5 different classes? IgG form what % of Igs? Penetrates what easily? Only one that crosses what?

A

Soluble, bound to B cells as part of B-cell antigen receptor, secreted
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
70-75%
Tissues
Placenta to provide immune protection to the neonate

35
Q

IgA accounts for what % of Igs? It is the predominant Ig in what? IgM= what % of Igs? Mainly found in what? Involved in what? What is its major function? It having multiple complement-binding sites results in what?

A

15%
Mucous secretions such as: saliva, colostrum, milk, bronchiolar and genitourinary secretions
10%
The blood- quite large, cannot cross endothelium
Primary response
Intravascular neutralisation of organisms- especially viruses
Excellent complement activation and lysis of the organism/ removal of antigen-antibody-complement complexes by complement receptors on phagocytic cells

36
Q

What 2 cells express IgE-specific receptor with high affinity? What triggers release of histamine? IgD expressed on what cells and act as what? What are cytokines? Cytokine between cells of immune system? Those that induce chemotaxis of leucocytes?

A
Basophils and mast cells
Binding antigen  
Naive B cells- B-cell antigen receptor 
Soluble proteins secreted by lymphocytes or macrophages/ monocytes that act as stimulatory or inhibitory signals between cells 
Interleukins
Chemokines
37
Q

3 shared common features of cytokines? What do interferons do? IFN-alpha and beta is produced by what? IFN-gamma is released by what?

A
Short half-lives 
Rapid degradation
May affect multiple organs in the body
Induce a stare of antiviral resistance in uninfected cells and limit the spread of viral infection 
Activated TH1 cells
38
Q

Interleukins produced by what cells? Can be what or what? Can cause what?

A

By many cells, over 30 types
Can be pro-inflammatory (IL1) or anti-inflammatory (IL-10)
Cells to divide, differentiate and to secrete factors

39
Q

Colony stimulating factors (CSF) are involved in what? What do tumour necrosis factors (TNF-alpha and beta) mediate?

A

Directing the division and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells- precursors of leucocytes
Inflammation and cytotoxic reactions

40
Q

What are chemokines? What does CXCL direct? CCL? CX3CL? XCL?

A

Group of around 40 proteins that direct the movement of leukocytes from the bloodstream into the tissues or lymph nodes by binding to specific receptors on cells
Mainly neutrophils (but also B and T lymphocytes)
Monocytes, lymphocytes, eosinophils and basophils
Mainly T lymphocytes and NK cells
Mainly T lymphocytes

41
Q

Features of innate immunity? What does it include? 3 forms of anatomical barriers?

A

Barrier to antigen, present from birth, slow response, no memory, integrates with adaptive response, effective but limited, can be evaded, supplements and augments adaptive immunity
Physical and chemical barriers
Skin- dermis and epidermis, sebum- skin secretions, pH 3-5, intact skin- prevents penetration and growth (low pH)

42
Q

Features of mucous membranes? Physiological barrier of innate immunity? Chemical barrier?

A

Saliva, tears, mucous secretions, result in microbe entrapment, cilia- beating removes microbes, commensal colonies
Temperature (pyrexia)- chickens have high body temp, so Anthrax resistant, fever response inhibits micro-organism growth
pH: gastric acidity helps to kill microbes, neonates= less acidic stomach and thus more susceptible to infection, phagocytic cells- neutrophils and macrophages, serum proteins- complement

43
Q

What are PAMPs and an example? What are PRRs? Activation of what 2 things drives cytokine production?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns- general molecular features common to many types of pathogen e.g. lipopolysaccharide
Pattern recognition receptors- family of proteins which recognise and bind to a variety of pathogen ligands, can be secreted and circulating or cell-associated PRRs- TLR and PRR activation–> cytokine production by APCs that increase likelihood of successful T cell activation

44
Q

3 forms of secreted and circulating PRRs? 2x e.g. of antimicrobial peptides secreted in lining fluids? What do defensins and cathelicidin disrupt? Function of lectins and collectins? What do pentraxins do?

A

Antimicrobial peptides in lining fluids, from epithelia and phagocytes
Lectins and collectins
Pentraxins
Defensins and cathelicidin
Positively charged peptides made by neutrophils that disrupt bacterial membranes
Disrupts microbial membranes
Carb-containing proteins that bind carbs or lipids in microbe walls, activate complement and improve phagocytosis
Proteins like C-reactive protein, which: have some antimicrobial actions, can react with C protein of pneumococci, activate complement, promote phagocytosis

45
Q

3 forms of cell-associated PRRs? What are TLRs found on? They are proteins that bind to what? What are generated within the immune cell to lead to secretion of IL-1, IL-12 and TNF- alpha? What do these activate?

A

Toll-like receptors, nod-like receptors and rig-like helicase receptors (RLRs)
Macrophages, dendritic cells and neutrophils
PAMPs- include lipopolysaccharide, viral and bacterial nucleic acids and protein found in flagellum of many bacteria
Second messengers
Cells in innate immune response but also those in adaptive response too

46
Q

TLRs are also adapted to recognise what? Appearance of what can activate TLRs? TLR signalling by cellular damage products activates what?

A

Range of endogenous damage molecule, which may share characteristics of hydrophobicity
Appearance of host molecules in unfamiliar contexts
Immunity to initiate tissue repair and perhaps enhance local antimicrobial signalling

47
Q

Nod-like receptors detect what? 3 best known e.g.? NOD2 expression? Recognises what? Activates what? E.g. of non-functioning mutations? Can activate what?

A

Intracellular microbial pathogens; peptidoglycan, muramyl dipeptide
NOD1, NOD2, NLPR3
Widespread expression
Muramyl dipeptide (MDP)- breakdown product of peptidoglycan
Inflammatory signalling pathways
Crohn’s disease
Anti-viralling signalling

48
Q

2 best known rig-like helicase receptors? Roles? They couple effectively to activate what enabling what?

A

RIG-I and MDA5
Detect intracellular double stranded viral RNA and DNA
Activate interferon production, enabling antiviral response

49
Q

2 killing pathways present in macrophages and neutrophil polymorphs? Substance involved in O2 dependent? Superoxides converted to what then what? What does nitric oxide do? Substances involved in O2 independent?

A
O2 dependent and O2 independent 
Reactive oxygen intermediates (ROI)
H2O2 then OH radical
Vasodilator that increases extravasation, also directly anti-microbial 
Enzymes- defensins, lysozyme, pH, TNF
50
Q

Features of adaptive immunity?

A

Specific, memory to specific antigen, quicker response, requires lymphocytes
T cells for intracellular microbes
B cells for extracellular microbes

51
Q

3 reasons for needing adaptive immunity?

A

Microbes evade innate immunity, intracellular viruses and bacteria ‘hide’ from innate
Need memory to specific antigen so faster response

52
Q

Cell-mediated immunity is interlay between what cells? 2 reasons for requiring intimate cell to cell contact? Also requires what?

A

APCs and T cells
Control antibody responses via contact with B cells
Directly recognise and kill viral infected cells
MHC- major histocompatibility complex

53
Q

MHC encoded by MHC complex on what chromosome? Also known as what? Major role in initiating what responses? Present what to T cells? Antigen- specific receptor of individual T cell will only recognise what?

A
Chromosome 6 
HLA molecules
T cell responses 
Antigenic peptides 
Antigen as part of complex of antigenic peptide and individual's MHC
54
Q

2 types of MHC? Focus on what? Found where? What T cells require antigen to be associated with them before they act?

A
MHC I and MHC II 
MHC I= intracellular, on surface of virtually all cells except erythrocytes, CD8 require antigen to be associated with class I MHC proteins before killing the cell 
MHC II= extracellular i.e. phagocytosis, mainly on surface of macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells, CD4 cells require class II MHC proteins before they help B cells to make antibodies to extracellular pathogen
55
Q

What do T cells recognise? T cells that recognise self are killed where as they mature? TCR structure is similar to what of an immunoglobulin?

A

‘Cell associated’ processed antigen, only intracellular ‘presented antigens’ via MHC
Fab region

56
Q

10 steps of CD4 activation?

A

APC internalises and breaks down foreign material
Peptides bind to MHC II in endosomes–> displayed on surface of APC
APC present antigen with MHC II to naive CD4 T cell
Stimulation with high levels of IL-12 activates naive cells to TH1 cells
TH1 cells go to secondary lymphoid tissue (spleen and lymph nodes)
TH1 cells proliferate= clonal expansion
Help B cells to make antibody
Cytokines also activate other leucocytes
TH1 recognises antigen on infected cells via T cell receptors with MHC II via T cell receptors
TH1 secretes interferon gamma- stops virus spread and causes apoptosis killing intracellular pathogens

57
Q

3 things produced by TH1 cells? Do what? Help CD8 cells develop into what to do what?

A

IL-2, gamma-interferon and TNF beta
Activate macrophages triggering inflammation
Effector cells to kill virally-infected target cells and activate macrophages infected with intracellular pathogens e.g. mycobacterium and chlamydia
Induce B cells to make IgG antibodies

58
Q

TH2 cells produce what ILs? They activate what 2 cells? Important in what infections? Induce B cells to make what and release what? Release of what ILs stimulate B cells?

A

IL-4, 5, 6, 10 and 13
Eosinophils and mast cells
Helminth infections and allergies
IgE- inflammatory mediators e.g. histamine from mast cells
IL-4, 5 and 10- antibodies of some IgG subclasses and especially IgE, protect against free-living extracellular microorganisms

59
Q

T killer cells also known as what? Virus-infected cell contains what that are broken down in the cytosol? These peptides are transported where to bind to what on the cell surface? What are activated by antigens presented via MHC class I molecules from microorganisms in the cytosol such as viruses and some intracellular bacteria that escape the phagosome e.g. listeria spp on surface of infected cell?

A

CTLs
Viral proteins
Endoplasmic reticulum- MHC I on cell surface
Naive CD8 T cells

60
Q

Effector CD8 T cells provide protection by releasing what? CD8 can also induce what?

A

Pro inflammatory and macrophage-activating cytokines and killing infected host cells via perforins and granulysin from proteolytic granules–> cell death by forming holes/ pores in cell membrane
CD8 can also induce apoptosis

61
Q

B cells express what membrane bound immunoglobulin monomers? B cells that recognise self are killed where? Naive B cells present antigen on surface via what MHC? Release of what IL from APCs results in B cell activation? Naive Th cells which has been presented same antigen by another APC results in what?

A
IgM or IgD 
Bone marrow 
MHC class II 
IL-1 
Naive T cell turning into Th2 cell
62
Q

B cell presents the antigen to what cell? It binds via what receptor? When this occurs, the TH2 cell releases what IL? This induces B cell to do what? Occurs where? These B cells then differentiate into what cells types?

A
TH2 cell
To MHC II via its TCR 
IL-4, IL-5, IL-10 and IL-13 
Divide- clonal expansion 
Lymph nodes 
Plasma and memory cells
63
Q

What is active immunity? 5 main types of vaccine?

A

Cell-mediated, antibody-mediated, stimulates immune response and memory to specific antigen/ infection
Inactivated (killed), attenuated (live,) secreted products, constituents of cell walls/ subunits, recombinant components- experimental

64
Q

E.g. of inactivated vaccine? Attenuated live? Secreted products? Constituents of cell walls? Recombinant components?

A
Pertussis and inactivated polio
Yellow fever, MMR, polio, BCG
Tetanus and diphtheria toxins 
Hep B 
Experimental
65
Q

Cons of polysaccharide vaccines? Cons of live attenuated vaccine?

A

Not as immunogenic as protein antigens- protein results in stronger response
Protection is not long-lasting
Response in infants and young children often poor

Must replicated in vaccinated individual to produce response, takes days/ weeks, may cause milk form of disease, avoid giving to immunocompromised since they are at risk of infection, need to refrigerated for stable storage, issue in remote areas of world

66
Q

Most common form of passive immunity? Con? Start immunising against pertussis from how many months?

A

Cross-placental transfer of antibodies from mother– child e.g. measles, pertussis
Transfusion of blood/ products including Ig e.g. Hep B
Protection= temporary, protection within few days but only lasts few weeks
2 months- helps to bridge gap

67
Q

HNIG (human normal immunoglobulin) derived from where? Used to protect immunocompromised children exposed to what? Specific Igs for what?

A

Pooled plasma of donors and contains antibodies to infectious agents that currently prevalent in general populations
Measles and of individuals after exposure to hep A
Tetanus, hep B, rabies and varicella zoster (chicken pox)

68
Q

What is primary vaccine failure? Secondary?

A

Person doesn’t develop immunity from vaccine

Initially responds but protection wades over time

69
Q

Features of influenza? Days for polio to establish infection? Lag provides opportunity for what?

A

Rapid onset- infection before memory activated
Infection of tissues blocked by antibody- important to maintain high antibodies by repeated immunisation
Regular boosts, annual escape variants require generation of new vaccines

3 days- for memory to be activated and production of neutralising antibodies

70
Q

E.g.s of live vaccine? Pros of live vaccine? E.g.s of killed vaccine? Pros and cons?

A

TB, polio, typhoid, mumps
Sets up transient infection, activate full immune response, prolonged contact with immune system, stimulates memory in B and T cells, often only single needed

Anthrax, cholera, hep A
No risk of infection, storage less critical

Tend to activate just humoral response, lack of T cell involvement, can be weak response, boosters needed- patient compliance issue

71
Q

Pros and cons of using recombinant proteins?

A

Theoretically safer than handling live or inactivated pathogens, no risk of infection, easier to store and preserve
Response less powerful than live vaccines, repeats needed and adjuvants

72
Q

What is an adjuvant? Can include what substances?

A

Any substance that is added to a vaccine to stimulate the immune system. Ensures powerful immune response
Whole killed organisms, toxoids, proteins, chemicals- aluminium salts to extend half life to slowly release vaccine

73
Q

What do DNA vaccines aim to do? Pros and cons?

A

Transiently express genes from pathogens in host cells, generates immune response similar to natural infection leading to T and B cell memory
Don’t need complex storage, delivery can be simple and adaptable to widespread organisms- no refrigeration
No transient infection, likely to produce mild immune response and will require subsequent boosting

74
Q

What do recombinant vector vaccines aim to do? Pros and cons?

A

Imitate effect of transient infection with pathogen but using non-pathogenic organism- genes for pathogen into non-pathogenic microorganism and introduced into host
Produce memory, safe relative to live vaccine
Requires refrigeration for transport, immune response to virus can negate effectiveness