Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are 2 clinical ethics analysis methods? They help you to look at what? Concept of connectivity and interdependence?

A

Seedhouse’s Ethical Grid
Four Quadrants Approach
Help you to look at things in a wider perspective
Behaviour of one individual may affect other or wider system

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2
Q

What is coevolution? What is being pushed away from equilibrium essential for?

A

Adaptation or changes by one organism altering other organisms i.e. doctor and patient
For survival and flourishing, pushing yourself away from the comfort zone, fundamental to learning and innovation, good for doctor-pt and GPR and trainer

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3
Q

Four inner sections of Seedhouse’s Ethical Grid? 4 sections of Four Quadrants Approach?

A

Respect persons equally, create autonomy, respect autonomy, serve needs first
Medical indications- beneficence and nonmalificence, patient preferences- respect for autonomy, quality of life- beneficence and nonmalificence, contextual features- loyalty and fairness

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4
Q

How does history affect the doctor and patient? Example of feedback on GPs?

A

Both the patient and doctor are influenced by their individual and collective histories, decision made in one consultation will affect those made in the next

Throwaway phrase by GP can have far reaching effects on patient

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5
Q

Features of self-organisation, emergence and creation of new order? What are conscientious objections of a patient? Core ethical beliefs?

A

Whole is more than sum of the parts, Gestalt principle, emergent properties arise from interaction of elements in the system
Moral claims thats based on an individual’s core beliefs, different from other kinds of objections in which persons may oppose certain acts but are willing to perform them anyway
Most important to person, constitute part of his/ her identity and are basis of his/ her moral integrity, also like refusal of healthcare professional to provide certain treatments

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6
Q

Healthcare professionals balance conscientious objections with what, respecting what also? 2 key requirements if refusing treatment?

A

Professional obligations, respect patient autonomy and informed consent
Advanced notification, public disclosure

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7
Q

What 3 things commonly develop atherosclerosis? Risk factors for atherosclerosis?

A

Circumflex, LAD and right coronary arteries

Age, tobacco smoking, high serum cholesterol, obesity, diabetes, hypertension, family history

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8
Q

Distribution of atherosclerotic plaques? Atherosclerotic plaque is a complex lesion consisting of what? Plaque will either do what or what?

A

Found within peripheral and coronary arteries, focal distribution along the artery length
Lipid, necrotic core, connective tissue, fibrous ‘cap’
Occlude the vessel lumen–> restriction of blood flow (angina) or may rupture (thrombus formation and subsequent death)

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9
Q

How do atherosclerotic plaques form? Inflammatory cytokines found in plaques?

A

Injury to endothelial cells–> endothelial dysfunction, chemoattractants released to attract leucocytes migrate into vessel wall, released from site of injury and conc-gradient produced
IL-1- key one, IL-6, IFN- gamma

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10
Q

Earliest lesion of atherosclerosis? Appear at what age? Consist of what?

A

Fatty streaks
Very early stage (less than 10)
Aggregations of lipid-laden macrophages and T lymphocytes within intimal layer of vessel wall

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11
Q

What are intermediate lesions composed of? Adhesion of what to vessel wall?

A

Lipid laden macrophages (foam cells- macrophages taken up lots of lipids), vascular smooth muscle cells, T lymphocytes
Platelets- aspirin inhibits this

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12
Q

Fibrous plaques/ advanced lesions do what and are prone to what? Covered by what may be what? Contain what and plaque filled with what?

A

Impeded blood flow, prone to rupture, covered by dense fibrous cap made of extracellular matrix proteins including collagen (strength) and elastin (flexibility) laid down by smooth muscle cells that overly lipid core and necrotic debris
Calcified
Smooth muscle, macrophages and foam cells, T lymphocytes, red cells
Fibrin

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13
Q

What needs to happen for fibrous cap to be maintained? When would the plaque rupture? What are within the plaque? What happens?

A

Needs to be resorbed and redeposited
If balance shifts i.e. in favour of inflammatory conditions, then cap becomes weak and plaque ruptures
Basement membrane, collagen and necrotic tissue exposure as well as haemorrhage of vessel
Thrombus formation and subsequent vessel occlusion

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14
Q

What can ECGs identify? 3 pacemakers of heart and intrinsic rate values?

A

Arrythmias, myocardial ischaemia and infarction, pericarditis, chamber hypertrophy, electrolyte disturbances i.e. hyperkalaemia or hypokalaemia, drug toxicity i.e. digoxin and drugs which prolong the QT interval

SA node= dominant- IR of 60-100bpm
AV node- back-up- IR of 40-60 bpm
Ventricular cells- back-up with intrinsic rate of 20-45bpm

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15
Q

Standard calibration values? Electrical impulse that travels towards the electrode produces what? P wave is what? Seen in every lead apart from what?

A

25mm/s, 0.1mV/mm
An upright ‘positive deflection’
Atrial depolarisation- apart from aVR

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16
Q

PR interval is what? What is QRS complex? ST segment?

A

Time taken for atria to depolarise and electrical activation to get through AV node
Ventricular depolarisation
Interval between depolarisation and repolarisation

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17
Q

T wave? What is dextrocardia? One large box is how many seconds? Vertically one large box is what value mV? What do bipolar and unipolar leads have?

A

Ventricular depolarisation
Heart is on right side of chest instead of left
0.2s, 0.5mV
Bi= two different points on body, uni= one point on body and virtual reference with 0 electrical potential located in centre of heart

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18
Q

What are the 12 leads of an ECG? Where are standard limb leads put? QRS complex should not exceed what in augmented limb leads? Should be dominantly upright in what 2 leads? That and T waves tend to have?

A
3 standard limb leads, 3 augmented limb leads, 6 precordial leads
I= right to left arm 
II= right arm to left leg 
III= left arm to left leg 
110ms
Leads I and II 
Same general direction in limb leads
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19
Q

3 augmented limb leads? All waves negative in what lead? Degrees of standard limb leads? Of augmented limb leads?

A

aVR, aVL, aVF
aVR
I= 0, II= +60, III= + 120
aVF= 90, aVL=-30, aVR= -150

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20
Q

PR interval should be how long? Width of QRS complex should not exceed what? Should dominantly upright in what 2 leads?

A

120-200ms
110ms
Leads I and II

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21
Q

What 2 waves tend to have same general direction in limb leads? All waves negative in what lead? r wave must grow from where to at least what? S wave from where to where and disappear where?

A

QRS and T waves
Lead aVR
From V1 to at least V4
V1 to V3 and disappear in V6

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22
Q

ST segment should start isoelectric except in what 2 where it may be elevated? P waves should be upright in what leads?

A

V1 and V2

I, II and V2 to V6

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23
Q

Should be no Q wave or only small q less than 0.04 secs in width in what leads? T wave must be upright in what leads? P wave always positive in what 2 leads? Always negative in what lead?

A

I,II, V2 to V6
I, II, V2 to V6
Lead I and II, always negative in lead aVR, best seen in leads II

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24
Q

Right atrial enlargement shown by what? Left atrial enlargement? What indicates P pulmonale? Also?

A

Tall, pointed P waves
Notched/ bifid P wave in limb leads
Pointed P wave taller than 2.5mm in limb leads
P mitrale

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25
Q

Short PR interval indicates what syndrome? What allows early activation of the ventricle? Long PR interval?

A

WPW syndrome, Accessory pathway

First degree heart block

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26
Q

Non-path Q waves may be present in what leads? R wave in lead V6 smaller than in what? Depth of S wave should not exceed what?

A

I,III, aVL- smaller than V5

30mm

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27
Q

ST segment is what? Elevation/ depression by what or more? What is J junction?

A

Flat
By 1mm or more
Point between QRS and ST segment

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28
Q

Normal T wave what shape? Should what fraction of R wave amplitude? Abnormal T waves are what shape?

A

Asymmetrical- first half having gradual slope than second
At least 1/8 but less than 2/3 of amplitude of R
Symmetrical, tall, peaked, biphasic or inverted

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29
Q

QT interval measured in what lead as it does not have prominent U waves? Decreases when what increases? Should be what length? Should not be more than half of interval between what waves?

A

In lead aVL
Heart rate
0.35-0.45 seconds
Adjacent R waves

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30
Q

Features of U wave? 2 methods of measuring heart rate?

A

Small, round, symmetrical and positive in lead II, direction same as T wave, more prominent at slow heart rates
Rule of 300/1500
10 second rule

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31
Q

Rule of 300 method? 10 second rule?

A

Number of big boxes between 2 QRS complexes and divide this into 300 for regular rhythms
Number of beats on ECG x6 for irregular rhythms

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32
Q

QRS axis represents what? Abnormalities hint at what? Normal QRS axis? -30 to -90 referred to as what? +90 to +180 referred to as what?

A

Overall direction of heart’s electrical activity
Ventricular enlargement, conduction blocks
LAD
RAD

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33
Q

2 approaches to determining QRS axis? 2 types?

A

Quadrant and equiphasic approach

Predominantly positive, predominantly negative, equiphasic

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34
Q

3 steps of quadrant approach?

A

QRS complex in leads I and aVF
Determine if predominantly positive or negative
Combination should place axis into one of 4 quadrants

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35
Q

3 steps of equiphasic approach?

A

Most equiphasic QRS complex
Identified lead lies 90 degrees away from lead
QRS in this second lead is positive or negative

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36
Q

Values for tachycardia and bradycardia? ST segments raised in what leads for acute anterolateral MI? What about acute inferior MI?

A

Tachy= above 100, Brady= below 60
Anterior (V3-V4) and lateral (V5-V6) leads
Inferior II, III, aVF leads

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37
Q

Normal systolic ejection fraction and weight of heart? Hypertrophic response triggered by what? Left-sided failure causes what? Right-sided? Diastolic? Hibernating myocardium?

A

60-65%, 300-400g
Angiotensin 2, ET-1 and insulin-like growth factor 1, TGF-Beta, activate mitogen-activated protein kinase
Pulmonary congestion and overload of right side
Venous congestion and hypertension
Stiffer heart
Vacuolated cardiac myocytes following injury (usually hypoxic) may enhance myocyte survival but poor contraction

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38
Q

Fetal embryogenesis of heart? Congenital heart disease results from what? E.g.? Multifactorial inheritance factors?

A

Single chamber until 5th week of gestation, divided by intra-ventricular and intra-atrial septa from endocardial cushions
Faulty embryonic development
VSD, ASD, PDA, Fallots
Single genes= trisomy 21= Downs, Turners, Di-George, infections- rubella, drugs, diabetes

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39
Q

Conditions with initial left-right shunt? Right-left shunt? No shunt?

A

VSD, ASD, PDA, trunks arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot, tricuspid atresia
Complete transposition of great vessels, coarctation, pulmonary stenosis, aortic stenosis, coronary artery origin from pulmonary artery, Ebstein malformation, endocardial fibroelastosis

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40
Q

Initial left to right shunting is fine, but progression to Eisenmenger’s complex involves what? Patent foramen oval eventually produces what?

A

Right side–> left side shunting associated with right cardiac failure and right site cardiac hypertrophy
Cardiac arrhythmia, pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy and cardiac failure, risk of infective endocarditis

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41
Q

Patent ductus arterioles (PDA) involves what shunting and therefore leads to what? Can be closed how?

A

Left to right shunting, meaning lung circulation is overloaded with pulmonary hypertension and right side cardiac failure
Risk of infective endocarditis
Surgically, by catheters or by prostaglandin inhibitors (indomethacin)

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42
Q

4 main features of tetralogy of Fallot? Shape on radiology and macroscopically? Result of pulmonary stenosis?

A

Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, dextraposition/ over-riding septal defect, right ventricle hypertrophy
Boot-shape
Right ventricle shunted into left heart—> cyanosis from birth
Surgical correction during first 2 years of life, progressive cardiac debility and risk of cerebral thrombosis

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43
Q

What is complete transposition of the great arteries (TGA)? Bias to who, survival only possible if there is what? Tx?

A

The aorta coming off the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk off the left ventricle
Male bias, particular associated with diabetes, only if there is communication between the circuits and virtually all have an atrial septal defect allowing blood mixing
Arterial switch with less than 10% overall mortality

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44
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta? More common in who? Results? Associated with what?

A

Narrowing of the aorta at, or just distal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus (distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery)
Narrowing just after arch, excessive blood flow through carotid and subclavian vessels into systemic vascular shunts
Decreased renal perfusion after surgical correction even
Turner’s syndrome and berry aneurysms of the brain

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45
Q

What is secondary endocardial fibroelastosis a frequent complication of? Primary may follow a what?

A

Congenital aortic stenosis and coarctation
Profound dense collagen and elastic tissues deposited don endocardial aspect of left ventricle–> stiffening of heart
A familial pattern, both= rare

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46
Q

Ischaemic heart disease gives rise to main clinical presentations? Core problems?

A

Stable angina, acute coronary syndromes, myocardial infarction
Cardiac arrest/ sudden death, chest pain, shortness of breath

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47
Q

Risk factors for ischaemic heart disease? Reasons for imperfect blood supply to the heart?

A

Systemic hypertension, cigarette smoking, diabetes mellitus, elevated cholesterol
Atherosclerosis, thrombosis/ thromboembolism, artery spasm, collateral blood vessels, BP/HR/CO abnormalities, arteritis

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48
Q

Pathological complications of ischaemic damage?

A

Arrhythmias- supra ventricular and ventricular, left ventricular failure- cardiogenic shock, extension of infarction, rupture of myocardium, cerebral infarction, carotid atheroma, aortic aneurysm, PVD, gangrene

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49
Q

Where does stable angina result from?

A

Mismatch of supply of oxygen- due to anaemia, hyperaemia, polycythaemia and demand of myocardium- due to HTN, tachycarrhythmia, valvular heart disease, hyperthyroidism, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Cold weather, heavy meals and emotional stress= exacerbating factors

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50
Q

3 types of angina?

A

Stable- induced by effort and relieved by rest
Unstable (crescendo)- of recent onset or deterioration in previously stable angina with symptoms frequently occurring at rest, increasing frequency/ severity, on minimal exertion/ at rest, form of acute coronary syndrome
Prinzmetal’s angina- caused by coronary artery spasm (rare)

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51
Q

Clinical presentation of angina?

A

Central chest tightness or heaviness, provoked by exertion, provoked by exertion, especially after meal or in cold windy weather or by anger/ excitement
Relieved by rest/ GTN spray, pain may radiate to one/ both arms, neck, jaw or teeth
May be dyspnoea, nausea, sweatiness and faintness

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52
Q

Scoring of angina?

A
  1. Have central, tight, radiation to arms, jaw and neck
  2. Precipitated by exertion
  3. Relieved by rest or spray GTN
    3/3= typical angina, 2/3= atypical, 1/3= non-anginal pain
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53
Q

Physics of stable angina?

A

Pouiseuille: as radius falls, pressure increases and so volume decreases- after radius falls below 75% it becomes noticeable- pt will not experience any symptoms until artery falls below 75%

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54
Q

Pain of angina (OPQRST)? Differential diagnosis of angina?

A

Onset, position, quality- nature/ character, relationship, radiation, relieving factors, severity, timing, treatment
Pericarditis, pulmonary embolism, chest infection, aorta dissection, gastro-oesophageal, musculoskeletal, psychological

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55
Q

ECG of someone with stable angina? Other forms of diagnosing?

A

May be normal/ show ST depression, flat/ inverted T waves, look for signs of past MI
ECG on patient, then make them run on treadmill uphill, monitor length of exercise, ST segment depression= sign of late-stage ischaemia, may patients= unsuitable
CT scan calciums scoring- CT heart, atherosclerosis- calcium= white
SPECT/ myoview- radio-labelled tracer injected into patient, taken up by coronary arteries where there is good blood supply- this will light up, no light after exercise= myocardial ischaemia

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56
Q

Lifestyle Tx of angina? Pharmacological?

A

Stop smoking, encourage exercise, weight loss, treat underlying conditions
Aspirin- anti platelet effect, COX inhibitor
Statins- HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
Beta blockers- reduce heart contraction, B1 activation–> Gs–> cAMP to ATP–> contraction
GTN spray
Ca2+ channel blocker
Revascularisation- increase flow reserve: PCI and CABG

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57
Q

What is PCI? Pros and cons?

A

Dilating coronary atheromatous obstructions by inflating balloon within it, insert balloon and remove it, stent persists and keeps artery patent, expanding plaque= make artery bigger
Pros= less invasive, convenient, short recovery and repeatable
Cons= risk of stent thrombosis, not good for complex disease

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58
Q

What is CABG? Pros and cons?

A

Left internal mammary artery (LIMA) used to bypass proximal stenosis (narrowing) in LAD coronary artery
Pros: good prognosis, deals
with complex disease
Cons: invasive, risk of stroke/ bleeding, one time treatment, need to stay in hospital- long recovery

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59
Q

What do betablockers reduce? Side effects? Do not give in what conditions?

A

HR (negatively chronotropic,) left ventricle contractility (negatively inotropic,) cardiac output
Tiredness, nightmares, bradycardia, erectile dysfunction and cold hands and feet
Asthma, heart failure/ heart block, hypotension and bradyarrhythmias

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60
Q

What does GTN spray do and reduce? Side effect?

A

Venodilator- nitrate
Dilates systemic veins thereby reducing venous return to right heart
Reduces preload, work of heart and O2 demand, also dilates coronary arteries
Profuse headache immediatly after use

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61
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do and reduce?

A

Primary arterodilators
Dilates systemic arteries resulting in BP drop, reduces afterload on heart, less energy to produce same CO
Less work on heart and O2 demand e.g. verapamil

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62
Q

Acute coronary syndromes umbrella that includes what things? With a STEMI you develop what? Usually diagnosed with what? Produce what some time after MI?

A

STEMI, NSTEMI (acute myocardial infarction) and unstable angina
Complete occlusion of a major coronary artery, causes full thickness damage of heart muscle
Diagnosed on ECG at presentation–> Q wave some time after MI so also known as Q-wave infarction

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63
Q

What is unstable angina? When does an NSTEMI occur?

A

Angina of recent onset (less than 24 hours,) or cardiac chest pain with crescendo pattern, deterioration in previously stable angina, with symptoms frequently occurring at rest
Angina of increasing frequency or severity, on minimal exertion or even at rest

When developing a complete occlusion of a minor or partial occlusion of a major coronary artery previously affected by atherosclerosis
Causes partial thickness damage of heart muscle
Diagnosis after troponin results and sometimes other investigation results available
Also known as non-Q wave infarction–> myocardial necrosis and rise in serum troponin/ creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)

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64
Q

5 types of MI?

A

Type 1= spontaneous MI with ischaemia due to primary coronary event e.g. plaque erosion/ rupture, fissuring or dissection
Type II= MI secondary to ischaemia due to increased O2 demand/ decreased supply such as in coronary spasm, coronary embolism, anaemia, arrythmias, hypertension or hypotension
Type 3,4,5: MI due to sudden cardiac death, related to PCI and related to CABG respectively

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65
Q

Risk factors of ACS? Pathophysiology?

A

Age, male, family history of IHD, smoking, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidaemia, obesity and sedentary lifestyle

Rupture/ erosion of fibrous cap of coronary artery plaque–> platelet aggregation and adhesion, localised thrombosis, vasoconstriction and distal thrombus embolisation
Platelets release serotonin and thromboxane A2–> myocardial ischaemia

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66
Q

Plaque and occlusion in unstable angina? In myocardial infarction?

A

Necrotic centre and ulcerated cap–> partial occlusion

Necrotic centre–> total occlusion

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67
Q

Clinical presentation of unstable angina?

A

Chest pain; new onset, at rest with crescendo pattern, breathlessness, pleuritic pain, indigestion, new onset angina
Recent destabilisation of pre-existing angina with moderate or severe limitations of daily activities
Acute central chest pain, lasting more than 20 minutes, associated with:
sweating, nausea and vomiting, dyspnoea, fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations
May present without chest pain e.g. in elderly/ diabetics
Distress and anxiety, pallor, increased pulse and reduced BP, reduced 4th heart sound, may be signs of heart failure, tachy/ bradycardia, peripheral oedema

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68
Q

Differential diagnosis of unstable angina? ACS on ECG?

A

Angina, pericarditis, myocarditis, aortic dissection, pulmonary embolism, oesophageal reflux/ spasm
Can be normal, ST depression and T-wave inversion, hyperacute T waves
STEMI–> persistent ST-elevation, hyperacute T waves or new LBBB pattern, may see pathological Q waves few days after MI

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69
Q

Troponin T and I levels in ACS?

A

Most sensitive and specific markers of myocardial necrosis
Serum levels increase within 3-12 hours from onset of chest pain and peak at 24-48 hours, fall back to normal over 5-14 days
Prognostic indicator to determine mortality risk and define which patients may benefit from aggressive medical therapy and early coronary revascularisation

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70
Q

CK-MB can be used as marker for what? Low accuracy why? Can be used to determine what? Myoglobin elevated when? Look for what on CXR?

A

Myocyte death- low accuracy= present in serum of normal individuals and in patients with significant skeletal muscle damage
Re-infarction as levels drop back to normal after 36-72 hours
Very early in MI, test= poor specificity since myoglobin present in skeletal muscle
Cardiomegaly, pulmonary oedema or widened mediastinum (aortic rupture)

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71
Q

Pain relief in ACS? Oxygen sats? Groups of anti-platelet therapy and method of taking?

A

Aspirin(oral)
P2Y12 inhibitors (oral)- inhibit ADP-dependent activation of IIb/IIIa glycoproteins, preventing amplification response of platelet aggregation, alongside aspirin in dual anti-platelet
Glycoprotein IIb/ IIIa antagonists- only IV
Beta blockers(IV and oral)
Statins (oral)- HMG- CoA reductase inhibitors
ACE inhibitors

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72
Q

Non-pharm treatment of ACS?

A

PCI and CABG
Risk factor modification- stop smoking, lose weight and exercise daily, healthy diet, treat hypertension and diabetes, low fat diet with statins

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73
Q

What is an acute MI and two types? Most common medical emergency? Risk factors?

A

Necrosis of cardiac tissue due to prolonged myocardial ischaemia due to complete occlusion of artery by thrombus
STEMI- complete occlusion of major coronary artery, full thickness damage, diagnosed on ECG at presentation, tall T waves, ST elevation, pathological Q wave
NSTEMI- complete occlusion of minor/ partial occlusion of major coronary artery, partial thickness damage, retrospective diagnosis after troponin results, ST depression/ T wave inversion
STEMI
Age, male, history of prem coronary heart disease, premature menopause, diabetes mellitus, smoking, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, obesity and sedentary lifestyle, family history of IHD

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74
Q

Pathophysiology of acute MI?

A

Rupture/ erosion of vulnerable fibrous cap of coronary artery atheromatous plaque–> platelet aggregation, adhesion, local thrombosis, vasoconstriction and distal thrombus embolisation–> prolonged complete arterial occlusion–> myocardial necrossi within 15-30 minutes in STEMI
STEMI= sub-endocardial myocardium initially affected but continuted ischaemia, infarct zone extends through sub-epicardial myocardium–> transmural Q wave MI, early reperfusion may salvage regions

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75
Q

Clinical presentation of acute MI?

A

Severe chest pain for more than 20 minutes
Pain radiate to left arm, jaw, neck
Does not usually response to sublingual GTN spray- opiate analgesia required
Pain described as substernal pressure, squeezing, aching, burning or sharp pain, with sweating, nausea, vomiting, dyspnoea, fatigue and/ or palpitations
Breathlessness, fatigue, distress and anxiety, pale, clammy and marked sweating, significant hypotension, bradycardia or tachycardia

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76
Q

Differential diagnosis of acute MI? Diagnosis of STEMI and NSTEMI?

A

Stable angina, unstable angina, NSTMI, pneumonia, pneumothorax, oesophageal spasm, GORD, acute gastritis, pancreatitis, MSK chest pain
On presentation, ST elevation, tall T waves, LBBB, T wave inversion and pathological Q waves
NSTEMI= retrospective diagnosis, ST depression and T wave inversion

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77
Q

Infarct site anteriorly, leadings showing change? Inferior? Lateral? Posterior? Subendocardial?

A
ST elevation V1-V3
ST elevation II, III, AVF 
I, AVL, V5-V6
ST depression V1-V3, dominant R wave, ST elevation V5-V6 
Any
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78
Q

Treatment of MI pre-hospital? In hospital? Coronary revascularisation?

A

Aspirin 300mg chewable, GTN (sublingual,) morphine
IV morphine, oxygen if their sats are below 95%/ breathless, beta-blocker- atenolol, P2Y12 inhibitor- clopidogrel
PCI: presented to all patients who present with acute STEMI who can be transferred–> primary PCI centre within 120mins of first medical contact, not possible- give fibrinolysis and transfer to PCI centre after infusion
CABG- fibrinolysis enhance breakdown of occlusive thromboses by activating plasminogen–> plasmin

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79
Q

Risk factor modification following MI? Secondary prevention?

A

Stop smoking, lose weight and exercise daily, healthy diet, treat hypertension and diabetes, low fat diet with statins
Statins, aspirin long term, warfarin if large MI, B blockers and ACE inhibitors

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80
Q

Complications of MI?

A

Sudden death- often due to VF, arrhythmias- in first few days, persistent pain- 12 hours to few days after due to necrosis
Heart failure- ventricular dysfunction and necrosis
Mitral incompetence- first few days or later
Pericarditis- transmural infarct–> inflammation of pericardium, more common in STEMI
Cardiac rupture- early= from shearing between mobile and immobile myocardium
Late= due to weakening of wall following muscle necrosis and acute inflammation
Ventricular aneurysm- due to stretching of newly formed collagenous scar tissue

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81
Q

What is type A coronary prone behaviour pattern described as? Methods of assessing behaviour?

A

Friedman and Rosenman- competitive, hostile, impatient
Questionnaires- MMPI, Jenkins Activity survey and Bortner Rating Scale, self-report= poorer predictors, structured clinical interview

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82
Q

Depression/ anxiety could share common what? Measurement instruments?

A

Antecedents e.g. social deprivation

MMPI, Beck depression inventory (BDI,) general health questionnaire, Spielbergers’ State anxiety inventory

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83
Q

Significant associations between MI and what? Research supports role of what in relation to stress and adverse coronary health outcomes? Association between social relationships and morbidity/ mortality?

A

Psychosocial job characteristics
Psychological demands, control and social support
Quantity and quality found to be related- helps coping with life events, motivation to engage in healthy behaviours

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84
Q

What can doctors do to improve psychosocial factors influencing CHD?

A

Observe/ explore behaviour patterns
Identify signs of depression/ anxiety, ask questions from assessment tools, ask patients about their job/occupation, available support and liaise with relevant services

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85
Q

What is race? Ethnicity/ ethnic group?

A

Classification based on physical characteristics into which humankind was divided- separate biological races no longer accepted as scientifically valid/ ethically useable, ethnic group= preferable
Group of people whose members identify with each other through common heritage- common language, culture of ideology which stresses common ancestry, superseded biological idea of ‘race’

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86
Q

3 forms of socioeconomic position and circumstance? What does vulnerable mean? Social exclusion?

A

Income, class- ownership of assets, status- hierarchy/ prestige
Indicates inability to cope with hostile environment, not lucky enough to have coping mechanisms needed for everyday living
Inability of individual group/ community to participate effectively in economic, political and cultural life: alienation and distance from mainstream society e.g. travellers, asylum seekers, refugees, from BME groups

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87
Q

Ethnic differences in health? Men in Caribbean risk of stroke and CHD? % White British in UK?

A

Genetic/ biological factors, individual behaviour/ cultural factors, material/ structural factors, migration and racism, inequalities in access to healthcare, artefact
50% more likely to die from stroke, but lower mortality from CHD
87%

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88
Q

Psychosis how many times in Afro-Caribbean than in White British? TB tends to impact heavily on who? Overall cancer rates lower in who? Lung cancer lower in who compared to who?

A

x7
Poorest and most marginalised groups including migrant communities- latent can be missed and extrapulmonary TB misunderstood, unstable living conditions can interfere with treatment and recovery
Lower in BME, lower in S Asia, Caribbean and Africa than Ireland and Scotland- smoking?

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89
Q

Thrombosis occurs in what 2 systems? Pressures and rich in what? Can cause what?

A

Arterial- high pressure: platelet rich, can lead to stroke/ MI, venous= low pressure, fibrin rich, cause PE/ DVT

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90
Q

Arterial thrombosis in coronary, cerebral and peripheral circulations can lead to what? Risk factors?

A

Coronary–> MI, cerebral–> CVA/ stroke, peripheral–> peripheral vascular disease (claudication, rest pain, gangrene)

Smoking, hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, obesity/ sedentary lifestyle, stress/ type A personality

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91
Q

How is arterial thrombosis diagnosed?

A

If MI–> history, ECG, cardiac enzymes, if CVA–> history and examination, CT scan/ MRI, peripheral vascular disease–> history and examination, ultrasound, angiogram

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92
Q

Treatment for AT if coronary circulation/ MI? If cerebral circulation/ stroke?

A

Aspirin, thrombolytic therapy- streptokinase tissue plasminogen activator, degrades fibrin
Aspirin, clopidogrel, fibrinolytics IV (streptokinase, alteplase)
Treat risk factors- during window of opportunity

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93
Q

2 main forms of venous thrombosis? Causes?

A

Pulmonary embolism and DVT
Surgery, immobilisation, oestrogens, malignancy, long haul flights, inherited thrombophilia, acquired- anti-phospholipid syndrome, Lupus anticoagulant, hyperhomocysteinaemia

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94
Q

Prevention of VT?

A

Mechanical- hydration, early mobilisation, compression stockings, chemical- LMWH, lower dose, thromboprophylaxis: low risk= <40 yrs, high risk= hip, knee, pelvis surgery, malignancy, increased risk factors, prolonged immobility

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95
Q

Diagnosis of DVT?

A

1) D-dimer- negative= normal, positive= also in pregnancy, infection, malignancy and post-op
2) Compression ultrasound of proximal veins- can’t squash= DVT in femoral and popliteal veins

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96
Q

Treatment of DVT?

A

a) Anticoagulants- SC/IV e.g. heparin, Fondaparinux, enoxaparin, Dalteparin, LMWH for min 5 days
b) Warfarin- oral= prevent recurrence, short term, lifelong for mechanical valve replacement
Compression stockings, treat underlying cause
Spontaneous= more likely to recur than provoked

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97
Q

Symptoms of DVT?

A

Typically around calf and ankle, unilateral, difficulty walking, warmth, non-specific, diagnosis= unreliable, pain, swelling, signs= tenderness, swelling, warmth, discolouration

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98
Q

Formation of pulmonary embolism? Symptoms? Signs?

A

Clot starts in leg–> IVC into right side of heart–> pulmonary heart, big= blocks both, obstructs–> pulmonary hypertension, tachycardia, cyanosis, R heart strain, close to death

Breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain(could be infection, MSK, pneumothorax,) signs/ symptoms of DVT, no other likely diagnosis (could be asthma, COPD, pneumonia, MI, HF)
Tachycardia, tachypnoea, pleural rub

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99
Q

Diagnosis of PE?

A

CXR usually normal in PE, look for pneumonia, ECG- sinus tachy, exclude cardiac cause, mainly to exclude alternative causes
D-dimer- excludes diagnosis, ventilation/ perfusion scan- mismatch defects, better for pregnant- less radiation, CTPA spiral CT with contrast- visualise major segmental thrombi

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100
Q

Treatment for PE?

A

As for DVT- ensure normal Hb, platelets, renal function, baseline clotting, LMW heparin adjusted for 5 days, oral warfarin INR for 6 months
Treat cause if possible, IVC filter if cannot anticoagulate using unaffected groin

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101
Q

Structure of pericardium? What is within pericardium?

A

2 layers- visceral single cell layer adherent to epicardium, fibrous parietal layer 2mm thick, collagen and elastin fibres, 50ml serous fluid
Great vessels
Left atrium= mainly outside pericardium, parietal layer= fibrous attachments to fix heart to thorax

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102
Q

Function of pericardium?

A

Restrains filling volume of heart, stiff at higher tension, small reserve volume, if volume exceeded- pressure translated to cardiac chambers, small amount added to space has dramatic effect on filling but so does removal of small amount= tamponade physiology

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103
Q

What is acute pericarditis? Causes?

A

Inflammation of pericardium
Viral-flu, Epstein-Barr, varicella, HIV, bacterial- pneumonia- rheumatic fever, TB, staphs, streps, MAI in HIV
Fungi, autoimmune- Sjogrens syndrome, scleroderma, systemic vasculitides, neoplastic- secondary metastatic tumours, metabolic- uraemia, myxodema

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104
Q

Clinical features of pericarditis?

A

Central chest pain worse on inspiration or lying flat plus/ minus relief by sitting forward, friction rub may be heart, evidence of cardiac tamponade/ pericardial effusion, fever

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105
Q

Investigation of pericarditis?

A

ECG classically concave- saddle-shaped, ST segment elevation
Blood test- FBC, ESR, U and E, cardiac enzymes- troponin may be raised, viral serology, blood cultures
CXR- cardiomegaly
ECHO- if suspected pericardial effusion

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106
Q

Treatment of pericarditis?

A

Analgesia- ibuprofen, treat the cause, consider colchicine before steroids/ immunosuppressants if relapse or continuing symptoms occur

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107
Q

Differential diagnosis of pericarditis? Signs of constrictive pericarditis?

A

Pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, chosochondritis, gastro- oesophageal reflux, myocardial ischaemia/ infarction, aortic dissection, pneumothorax, pancreatitis, peritonitis, herpes zoster
Mainly of right heart failure w/JVP, Kussmaul’s sign, soft diffuse apex beat, quiet heart sounds, S3, diastolic pericardial knock, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites and oedema

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108
Q

Tests for constrictive pericarditis? Management?

A

CXR- small heart and/ not with pericardial calcification-if not, CT/MRI helps distinguish from other cardiomyopathies, ECHO–> cardiac catheterisation
Management: surgical excision

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109
Q

What is pericardial effusion? Causes? Clinical features?

A

Accumulation of fluid in pericardial sac
Any cause of pericarditis
Dyspnoea, raised JVP, bronchial breathing at left base, signs of cardiac tymponade

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110
Q

Diagnosis and management of pericardial effusion?

A

CXR- enlarged, globular heart
ECG- low-voltage QRS complex and alternating QRS morphologies, ECHO- echo-free zone surrounding heart

Treat cause, pericardiocentesis may be diagnostic (suspected bacterial pericarditis) or therapeutic (cardiac tamponade)
Send fluid for culture, ZN stain/ TB culture and cytology

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111
Q

What is cardiac tamponade? Causes? Signs?

A

Accumulation of pericardial fluid- raises intrapericardial pressure, hence poor ventricular filling and fall in CO

Any pericarditis, aortic dissection, haemodialysis, warfarin, trans-septal puncture at cardiac catheterisation, post cardiac biopsy
Pulse, BP, pulsus paradoxus, JVP, Kussmaul’s sign, muffled S1 and S2

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112
Q

Diagnosis and management of cardiac tamponade?

A

Beck’s triad- falling BP, rising JVP, muffled heart sounds
CXR- big globular heart
ECG- low voltage QRS and or electrical alternans
ECHO= diagnostic

Seek expert help, effusion needs urgent drainage, send fluid for culture, ZN stain/ TB culture and cytology

113
Q

What is cardiomyopathy? Diagnosis? 3 types?

A

Primary heart muscle disease of the myocardium–> affect the mechanical or electrical function of the heart
Echo and cardiac MR
Hypertrophic, dilated, primary restrictive, arrythmogenic right ventricular

114
Q

What HCM involve? Cause? Epidemiology?

A

Thickening of ventricular muscle wall
Cause= autosomal dominant- familial
Very common- most common cause of suddent cardiac death in young

115
Q

Pathophysiology of HCM? Signs and complications?

A

Sarcomeric protein gene mutations (troponin T and B-myosin)- affects mechanical and electrical function
SV reduced, fibrotic tissues throughout–> arrhythmias, rhythm and conduction= affected as fibrosis= electrical insulator

Angina, dyspnea, palpitations, dizzy spells or syncope
Sudden death, atrial/ ventricular arrhythmias, thromboembolism, infective endocarditis, heart failure
B-myosin mutation= hypertrophy and dysrhythmia, troponin T mutation= risk of sudden death

116
Q

Diagnostic tests for HCM? Treatment

A

ECG- abnormal, pattern of LVH, cardiac imaging–> ventricular hypertrophy on ECHO and MR
Genetic analysis can confirm as most cases= autosomal dominant and familial
Amiodarone IV
If high risk- implantable cardiac defibrillator

117
Q

Causes and pathophysiology of DCM?

A

Dilated LV which contracts poorly/ thin muscle- affects young people
Autosomal dominant- familial
Cytoskeletal gene mutations–> LV/RV or all 4 chambers dilatation and dysfunction, poorly generated contractile force–> progressive dilation of heart w/ some diffuse interstitial fibrosis

118
Q

Clinical presentations, diagnostic tests and treatment of DCM?

A

SOB at first, less often embolism/ arrhythmia, presents w/HF symptoms as can’t contract
CXR= cardiac enlargement, ECG= abnormal changes- T wave flattening, cardiac imaging- dilated ventricles
Tx: HF and AF treated in conventional way

119
Q

Pathophysiology of arrhythmogenic right ventricular CM? Clinical presentation?

A

Desmosome gene mutations–> RV replaced by fat and fibrous tissue–> muscle dies and replaced by fatty material as result of inflammation
Arrhythmias= main, ventricular tachycardia- Naxos disease associated (thickening of palms/ soles and woolly hair)

120
Q

Cause of channelopathies? Presentation and associated diseases?

A

Ion channel protein gene mutations, but normal heart structure
Recurrent syncope
Long QT syndrome- can die from sounds shocking them/ being given QT prolonging drugs, short QT syndrome, Brugada, catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

121
Q

What is familial hypercholesterolaemia? Inherited cardiac conditions usually inherited how?

A

Inherited abnormality of cholesterol metabolsim–> serious premature coronary and other vascular disease, increases risk of MI, early death
Dominantly- 50% chance, only look at relatives in first degree, heterogeneity–> variance, age-related penetrance

122
Q

What is cardiac failure? Can result from what?

A

The inability of the heart to deliver blood and thus oxygen at a rate that is commensurate with the requirement of metabolising tissue of the body
Any structural/ functional cardiac disorder, impairing ability of the heart to function and meet its demands of supplying sufficient oxygen/ nutrients to metabolising body

123
Q

Aetiology of heart failure?

A

IHD(commonest in developed world), hypertension (Africa,) metabloid syndrome, alcohol excess, cardiomyopathy, any factor increasing myocardial work

124
Q

3 cardinal symptoms of heart failure? Signs?

A

SOBOE, SOB at rest, fatigue and oedema, specific= orthopnoea(SOB when lying flat,) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
Peripheral oedema, pulmonary crackles and tachycardia, raised JVP, cardiomegaly, murmurs, raised NP, displaced apex beat exhaustion, cold peripheries, cyanosis, hypotension, narrow pulse pressure, abnormal pulse, RV heave, wheeze

125
Q

Clinical syndromes of heart failure?

A

Left ventricular systolic dysfunction- from IHD/MI, cardiomyopathy, valvular HD and HT
Right ventricular systolic dysfunction- from LVF, pulmonary stenosis, lung disease, secondary to LVSD, w/primary and secondary pulmonary HTN, right ventricular infarction and adult congenital disease
Diastolic heart failure- constrictive pericardititis, cardiac tamponade, restrictive CM, HTN
Low-output heart failure- C) falls, pump failure, systolic and/ not with diastolic HF, decreased HR
High-output heart failure- rare, CO= normal/ increased in face of needs, CO= fails to meet these needs, initially RVF, later= LVF evident

126
Q

Pathophysiology of heart failure?

A
When heart begins to fail, may systems initiate physiological compensatory changes that try to maintain CO and peripheral perfusion in order to negate effects- become overwhelmed=decompensation
Venous return- increased diastolic volume stretches fibres, can contract as much in response to increased preload, CO may decrease
Outflow resistance (afterload)- pulmonary with systemic resistance, physical characteristics of vessel walls, volume of blood ejected
Increased afterload= increased end-diastolic volume and dilatation of ventricle= more resistance, further exacerbates afterload issue
127
Q

How is sympathetic system activated in heart failure?

A

There is chronic activation–> receptors being acted on by sympathetic system to down regulate resulting in there being less receptor to act on–> effect of symp activation is diminished, CO stops increasing

128
Q

Reduced CO affects RAAS system how?

A

Diminished renal perfusion, increased BP, venous pressure, pre-load, stretching and contraction of heart, SV and CO
Increased contraction requires more energy and blood- with HF this is not met, myocytes die–> decrease in force of contraction, SV and CO

129
Q

Systolic HF is what and caused by what? Diastolic?

A

Inability of ventricle to contract normally–> decrease in CO
IHD, MI and cardiomyopathy

Inability of ventricles to relax, decreasing SV and CO
Hypertrophy- increased BP and afterload leads to myocytes growing bigger to compensate, less space for blood
AS also- increases afterload etc.

130
Q

Acute vs chronic HF?

A

New onset/ decompensation of chronic HF characterised by pulmonary and/ or peripheral oedema with or without signs of peripheral hypotension

Develops slowly, venous congestion common but arterial pressure is well maintained until very late

131
Q

Class I (stage A) of New York association classification? Class II(stage B)? Class III(stage C)? Class IV(stage D)?

A

HD present but no undue dyspnea from normal activity–> no limitation (asymptomatic)
Comfortable at rest but dyspnea when active–> slight limitation (mild HF)
Less than ordinary activity causes dyspnea–> marked limitation (moderate HF)
Dyspnea at rest–> inability to carry out any physical activity w/o discomfort (severe HF)

132
Q

What blood tests done to diagnose heart failure?

A

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP): secreted by ventricles in response to increase myocardial wall stress, levels correlate with wall stress and severity, FBC, U and Es and liver biochem
CXR: alveolar oedema, cardiomegaly, dilated upper lobe vessels of lungs, effusions (pleural)
ECG= underlying causes; ischaemia, LVH in HTN/ arrythmia, if ECG and BNP abnormal–> ECHO
ECHO= assess chamber dimension, look for regional wall motion abnormalities, valvular disease and cardiomyopathies, sign of MI

133
Q

Lifestyle changes for HF? Pharmacological treatment?

A

Avoid large meals, lose weight, stop smoking, exercise, vaccination
Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, Beta-blockers, digoxin, inotropes, revascularisation, surgery to repair, heart transplant in young people, cardiac resynchronisation

134
Q

Diuretics for HF? Beware of what?

A

Reduce preload–> decreased systemic and pulmonary congestion
Symptomatic relief
Loop= furosemide, Thiazide= bendroflumethiazide, aldosterone antagonist- spirolactone and epelerone
Renal impairment and hyperkalaemia

135
Q

ACE inhibitors for HF? Side effects?

A

Ramipril, enalipril, captopril
Cough= substance P and bradykinin breakdown, hypotension, hyperkalaemia and renal dysfunction
Give ARB instead if cough e.g. canderstan or valsartan

136
Q

Beta-blockers in HF? Revascularisation in HF when?

A

Bisoprolol, nebivolol, carvedilol- start at low dose and titrate upwards, do not give to asthmatics
When some viable myocardium remains, illicit PCI stenting

137
Q

What is hypertension a major cause of? This leads to what? Epidemiology? Normotensive value?

A

Major cause of premature vascular disease–> cerebrovascular events, IHD and peripheral vascular disease
Often symptomless- screening= vital, major risk factor for CVD, remain under diagnosed, under treated and poorly controlled in UK, prevalence in over 35, more common in men
Less than 140/90mmHg

138
Q

Values for stage 1 hypertension? ABPM/ HBPM also? Stage 2? Severe?

A

More than/ equal to 140/90mmHg clinic BP, 135/85mmHg
More than/ equal to 160/100 Hg clinic BP, 150/95mmHg
Greater than/ equal to 180mmHg and/ or diastolic BP greater than/ equal to 110mmHg
Start immediate anti-hypertensive drug treatment

139
Q

HTN= commonest cause for what and major risk factor for what 2 things? Classified into what 2 categories?

A

Cardiac failure and atherosclerosis and cerebral haemorrhage
Unknown ‘ essential (primary or idiopathic) hypertension’ or known ‘ secondary HTN’

140
Q

Multifactorial factors responsible for essential HTN? Secondary commonly caused by what?

A

Majority of cases: genetic susceptibility, excessive sympathetic NS activity, abnormalities of Na+/ K+ membrane transport, high salt intake, abnormalities in RAAS system
Renal disease/ pregnancy, other; endocrine causes, coarctation of the aorta and drug therapy

141
Q

Most common cause of secondary HTN? Most common cause of chronic KD? Vascular changes from HTN resulting in what may cause/ exacerbate renal disease? Another potential cause?

A

Chronic kidney disease
Diabetes
Promotion of pheochromocytoma vasoconstriction
Chronic glomerulonephritis- less common now

142
Q

3 possible endocrine causes of HTN?

A

Cushings- hyper secretion of corticosteroids
Conn’s= adrenal tumour secreting aldosterone
Phaemochromocytoma- adrenal tumour secreting catacholamines, rare

143
Q

Systemic HTN one of commonest features in what condition? Raised BP detected in what, but not in what? Femoral pulse often delayed relative to what? Undetected/ untreated die from what 3 things?

A

Coarctation of aorta
In either arm, but not legs
Femoral delayed relative to radial
HF, hypertensive cerebral haemorrhage or dissecting aneurysm

144
Q

What prescription drugs associated with HTN?

A

Corticosteroids e.g. prednisolone, cyclosporin, erythropoietin, some types CP
Alcohol, amphetamines, ecstasy, cocaine also

145
Q

Risk factors for HTN?

A

Age, more common in blacks, family history, overweight/ obese, little exercise, smoking, too much salt, alcohol, diabetes, stress

146
Q

Pathophysiology of HTN? What are especially affected? Frequent cause of death in HTN? Changes to kidneys in HTN?

A

Accelerates atherosclerosis, thickening of media of muscular arteries
Smaller arteries and arterioles, impaired NO-mediated vasodilation and enhanced secretion of vasoconstrictors including endothelins and prostaglandins
Intracerebral haemorrhage
Kidney size reduced, small vessels= intimal thickening and medial hypertrophy, sclerotic glomeruli numbers increased

147
Q

Features of malignant hypertension? Occur in who and evidence of what? Consequences?

A

Raised diastolic BP, usually over 120mmHg and progressive renal disease
Renal vascular changes prominent, acute haemorrhage and papilloedema (optic disc swelling caused by increased intracranial pressure)
Previously fit individuals, often black males in 30-40s
Cardiac failure- LVH and dilatation
Blurred vision due to papilloedema and retinal haemorrhages
Haematuria and renal failure due to fibrinoid necrosis of glomeruli
Severe headache and cerebral haemorrhage

148
Q

Look for what when diagnosing HTN? Urinalysis obs? Blood tests? Fundoscopy/ ophthalmology? ECG? ECHO? What else?

A

End-organ damage e.g. LVH, retinopathy, proteinuria
Protein, albumin: creatine ratio and haematuria
BTs: serum creatinine, eGFR, glucose
Retinal haemorrhage/ papilloedema
ECG: LVH
ECHO= further detect LVH
24 hour ABPM

149
Q

Treatment goal for HTN? Lifestyle changes?

A

140/90mmHg

High con of fruit, veg, low-fat diet, regular exercise, reduce alcohol, salt, weight, smoking

150
Q

ACD pathway treatment for HTN? What isn’t first line of treatment?

A

A- ace-inhibitor or ARB
C- CCB e.g. nifedipine or amlodipine
D- diuretics- furosemide= more potent
Beta-blocker, consider young if intolerant of ACEi/ ARB

151
Q

Less than 55 years old HTN treatment? Older/ African- Caribbean?

A

Ramipril/ candesartan + nifedipine + bendroflumethiazide + furosemide
Ramipril/ candersatan + nifedipine + bendroflumethiazide + furosemide
If higher dose not tolerated- consider beta-blocker

152
Q

What is a cardiac arrhythmia? They may cause what?

A

Abnormality of the cardiac rhythm

Sudden death, syncope, heart failure, chest pain, dizziness, palpitations, no symptoms at all

153
Q

2 main types of arrhythmia?

A

Bradycardia- HR<60bpm and <50bpm at night, usually asymptomatic unless rate slow, normal in athletes owing to increased vagal tone and thus parasympathetic activity
Tachycardia- HR>100bpm, more symptomatic when fast and sustained–> supraventricular- from atria/ AV junction, ventricular

154
Q

Cardiac causes of arrhythmias? Non-cardiac?

A

MI, coronary artery disease, LV aneurysm, mitral valve disease, cardiomyopathy, pericarditis, myocarditis, aberrant conduction pathways
Caffeine, smoking, alcohol, pneumonia, drugs, metabolic imbalance, pheochromocytoma

155
Q

Presentation and tests for arrhythmias?

A

Palpitation, chest pain, presyncope/ syncope, hypotension, pulmonary oedema
FBC, U&E, glucose, Ca2+, Mg2+, TSH
ECG: signs of IHD, AF, short PR interval (WPW syndrome), long QT interval, U waves
24h ECG monitoring- several recordings
ECHO= any structural heart disease
Exercise ECG, cardiac catheterisation, electrophysiological studies

156
Q

Parasymp and symptoms relations to SA node? Faster in what gender? Characterised by what on ECG?

A

Parasymp reduction/ sympathetic increase–> tachycardia and vice versa
Women
P waves upright in leads I and II, inverted in AVR and V1

157
Q

What is AF? Common in who? Causes?

A

Chaotic irregular rhythm at 300-600bpm; AV node responds intermittently, irregular ventricular rate
Males more, 5-15% over 75y/o
Idiopathic, hypertension, any condition affecting atria, HTN, HF, coronary artery disease, valvular heart disease, cardiac surgery, cardiomyopathy, rheumatic heart disease, acute excess alcohol intoxication

158
Q

Risk factors for AF? Clinical classification?

A

Older than 60, diabetes, high BP, coronary artery disease, prior MI, structural heart disease
Acute: onset within previous 48 hours, paroxysmal: stops spontaneously within 7 days, recurrent- 2 or more episodes, persistent- continuous for more than 7 days and not self terminating, permanent

159
Q

Pathophysiology of AF?

A

Maintained by continuous, rapid activation of atria by multiple meandering re-entry wavelets
Often driven by rapidly depolarising automatic foci, located predominantly within pulmonary veins
Atria respond, no coordinated mechanical action, only proportion conducted–> ventricles
CO drops by 10-20% and higher risk of thromboembolic events- blood pooling etc

160
Q

Presentation of AF and diff diagnosis?

A

Highly variable symptoms, may be asymptomatic, palpitations, dyspnoea and chest pains, fatigue, no P waves on ECG, rapid and irregular QRS rhythm, apical pulse rate greater than radial rate, 1st heart sound= variable intensity
Atrial flutter, irregular and rapid QRS complex

161
Q

Treatment in acute and chronic AF?

A

Acute- treat provoking cause, DC shock–> SR, LMW heparin, IV infusion/ antiarrhythmic drug e.g. flecainide or amiodarone, CCB, beta-blocker, digoxin

AV nodal slowing agents plus oral anticoagulation, beta-blocker, CCB, or digoxin and then consider amiodarone
Rhythm control- younger, symptomatic and physically active
Cardioversion–> SR and use Beta-blockers, Flecainide if no heart defect, IV amiodarone if heart defect
Appropriate anti-coagulation e.g. warfarin

162
Q

Use what score to calculate stroke risk and need for anti-coagulation?

A

Congestive HF= 1 point, HTN= 1 point, Age greater/ equal to 75= 2 points, diabetes mellitus (1 point,) stroke/ TIA etc= 2 points, vascular disease= 1 point, age 65-74= 1 point, female= 1 point
More than 1 point= consideration of AC and/ or aspirin
2 and above= oral AC needed

163
Q

What is atrial flutter? Epidemiology and causes?

A

Usually an organised atrial rhythm with an atrial rate typically between 250-350bpm
Often associated with AF and frequently require a similar therapeutic approach
Either paroxysmal/ persistent, much less common than AF, more common in men, prevalence increases with age
Idiopathic, CHD, obesity, HTN, HF, COPD, pericarditis, acute excess alcohol intoxication

164
Q

Risk factors and presentation of atrial flutter?

A

AF(also diff diagnosis) as well as supra ventricular tachyarrythmias
Breathlessness, chest pain, dizziness, syncope, fatigue

165
Q

Diagnosis of atrial flutter on ECG?

A

Definitive diagnosis, regular sawtooth-like atrial flutter waves (F waves) between QRS complexes due to continuous atrial depolarisation
If F waves not visible- may be able to be unmasked by slowing AV conduction by carotid sinus massage or IV adenosine (AV nodal blocker)

166
Q

Treatment of atrial flutter?

A

Electrical cardioversion- anticoagulant before e.g. LMW heparin e.g. enoxaparin/ Dalteparin if acute
Catheter ablation- creating conduction block to try to restore rhythm and block offending re-entrant wave
IV amiodarone- restore SR and use beta-blocker to suppress further arrhythmias

167
Q

Block where results in AV block? Bundle branch block? 3 forms of AV block?

A

AV node/ His bundle
Block lower in conduction system
First-degree, second-degree, third-degree- complete

168
Q

What is first-degree heart block? Causes? Tx?

A

Simple prolongation of the PR interval to greater than 0.22 seconds
Hypokalaemia, myocarditis, inferior MI, AVN blocking drugs e.g. Beta blockers, CCBs
Asymptomatic so no treatment

169
Q

When does second-degree heart block occur? What may cause this? 2 types? Mobitz I also known as what? Causes, presents and Tx?

A

When some P waves conduct and others do not, acute MI
Mobitz I and Mobitz II
Wenckebach phenomenon- progressive PR interval prolongation until beat is ‘dropped’ and P wave fails to conduct, PR before blocked P wave= longer than PR interval after blocked P wave
AVN blocking drugs, inferior MI–> light headiness, dizziness and syncope
Doesn’t require a pacemaker unless poorly tolerated

170
Q

What is Mobitz II block? Causes? Results in what? High risk of what, so should have what inserted?

A

PR interval= constant, QRS interval is dropped, failure of conduction through His-Purkinje system
Anterior MI, mitral valve surgery, SLE and Lyme disease, rheumatic fever
SOB, postural hypotension and chest pain
Sudden complete AV block and pacemaker should be inserted

171
Q

What is third degree- complete AV block? Causes and Tx?

A

Complete heart block when all atrial activity fails to conduct to ventricles
Ventricular contractions= sustained by spontaneous escape rhythm which originates below block
P waves independent of QRS complex
Structural heart disease, ischaemic HD, HTN, endocarditis/ Lyme disease
Depends on aetiology- one option= permanent pacemaker, IV atropine

172
Q

2 types of escape rhythms? Recent-onset, narrow-complex AV block that has transient causes may respond to what Tx? Chronic narrow-complex AV block requires what if symptomatic?

A

Narrow-complex= QRS complex less than 0.12 seconds, implies block= originates in His bundle, block more proximal than AV node
IV atropine
Permanent pacemaker

Broad-complex escape rhythm- B= below His
QRS complex greater than 0.12 seconds
Implies block originates below Bundle of His and region of block lies more distally in His-Purkinje system
Dizziness and blackouts= often occur
Permanent pacemaker implantation= recommended

173
Q

Bundle branch block= usually what? His bundle gives rise to what branches? Left branch into what 2 branches? Bundle branch conduction delay–>=? Complete BBB associated with what? Shape depends on what?

A

Asymptomatic
Right and left bundle branches
Left–> anterior and posterior
Slight widening (0.11 seconds) of QRS complex= incomplete BBB
Wider QRS complex (larger than 0.12 seconds)
On whether right or left bundle is blocked

174
Q

Causes of RBBB? Results in what and what seen in ECG leads? Looks like what on ECG?

A

Pulmonary embolism, IHD, atrial/ ventricular septal defect
Right bundle no longer conducts- 2 ventricles do not get impulses at same time, spread from left–> right
Produces late activation of R ventricle
Deep S wave in leads I and V6 and tall late R wave in lead V1
MarroW- QRS looks like M in lead V1, W in V5 and V6
Causes wide physiological splitting of second heart sound

175
Q

Causes of LBBB? Produces? Seen as what in ECG leads and on ECG? Tx of heart block?

A

IHD, aortic valve disease
Late activation of left ventricle
Deep S wave in lead V1 and tall late R wave in leads I and V6, abnormal Q waves also
wiLLiam- W in leads V1 and V2 and M in leads V4-V6
Causes reverse splitting of second heart sound
TCP= temporary method, pacemaker

176
Q

Definition of sinus tachycardia? Causes? Tx? Drug if necessary?

A

HR>100bpm
Anaemia, anxiety, exercise, pain, HF, pulmonary embolism
Treating causes, Beta-blocker

177
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia arise from where? AVNRT and AVRT are usually referred to as what? Often seen in who? What is the essential component in these tachycardias?

A

Atria/ AV junction
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias
Young patients with no or little structural heart disease
First presentation= commonly between 12-30 ages
AV node

178
Q

AVNRT more common in who? Strikes how? Risk factors? Results in what?Presents how? Diagnosis?

A

In women than men, strikes suddenly without obvious provocation, may stop spontaneously/ may continue indefinitely until medical intervention
Exertion, emotional stress, coffee, tea, alcohol
Slow-fast AVNRT, atria contract slowly in one cycle and then fast in next
Rapid regular palpitations with abrupt onset and sudden termination, chest pain and breathlessness, neck pulsations, polyuria
Sometimes QRS complex will show typical BBB
P waves are either not visible/ seen immediately before or after QRS complex due to simultaneous atrial and ventricular activation

179
Q

AVRT results from what? Accessory circuit can travel how? Good example of AVRT? What is pre-excitation?

A

From incomplete separation of atria and ventricles during fetal development
Normal AV conduction but also accessory pathway
From atria–> ventricle (anterograde) or from ventricle back to atria (retrograde)
Wolff-Parkinson- White (WPW) syndrome
If accessory pathway conducts from atrium to ventricle during SR, conducts quickly over abnormal connection to depolarise part of ventricles abnormally

180
Q

How is pre-excitation shown on ECG? Not this that causes tachyarrhythmia but what? Presents how? Diagnosis on ECG?

A

Short PR interval, wide QRS complex begins as slurred part known as delta wave
Premature beat from SAN–> AVN and accessory pathway in refractory period, down via AVN as signal not transmitted, until meets accessory pathway, conducts impulse back into atria, back to AVN= re-entry circuit
Palpitations, severe dizziness, dyspnoea, syncope
Short PR interval, wide QRS complex starts as slurred delta wave

181
Q

Tx for AVNRT and AVRT?

A

With haemodyamic instability (pulmonary oedema and hypotension)= emergency cardioversion
If stable= breath-holding, carotid massage, valsalva manoeuvre, if unsuccessful= IV adenosine
Catheter ablation of accessory pathway in AVRT, modification of slow pathway in AVNRT

182
Q

Ventricular tachyarrhythmias encompasses what terms?

A

Ventricular ectopics, ventricular tachycardia, sustained ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, some= channelopathis e.g. long QT syndrome

183
Q

What are ventricular ectopics? Most common what? Risk factor? Pathophys? Presents how? Diagnosis on ECG? Tx?

A

Premature ventricular contraction
Post-MI arrhythmia, also in healthy patients
MI
Extra, missed or heavy beats, if frequent left ventricular dysfunction may develop and can provoke ventricular fibrillation
Usually asymptomatic, can feel faint/ dizzy
Broad and bizarre QRS complex- greater than 0.12 seconds
Reassure patient, give beta-blockers if symptomatic

184
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia? Commonly found in who? Known as what, untreated may lead to what? Symptoms? Tx?

A

Pulse of more than 100bpm with at least 3 irregular heartbeats in a row
In patients with structurally normal hearts (idiopathic), usually benign with excellent long-term prognosis
Occasionally= pathological- known as Gallavardin’s tachycardia, untreated–> cardiomyopathy
Decreased CO and oxygenated blood around body
Breathlessness, chest pain, palpitations, light headed or dizzy
Beta-blockers

185
Q

What is sustained ventricular tachycardia? Symptoms? ECG? Tx? If stable?

A

Longer than 30 seconds
Dizziness, syncope, hypotension, cardiac arrest, pulse rate between 120-220bpm
Rapid ventricular rhythm, broad and abnormal QRS complex- greater than 0.14 seconds
Haemodynamically unstable= emergency electrical cardioversion, stable= IV beta-blocker, IV amiodarone
Prevented by use of BBs and implantable cardiac defibrillator

186
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation? Symptoms? ECG? Usually caused by what? Only effective Tx? Long-term?

A

Very rapid and irregular ventricular activation with no mechanical effect- no CO
Pulseless patient and becomes unconscious and respiration ceases
Shapeless, rapid oscillations and no hint of organised complexes
By ventricular ectopic beat
Electrical defibrillation
Increased risk of sudden death, implantable cardioverter-defibrillators= first-line therapy

187
Q

What is long QT syndrome? Causes? Presents? Tx?

A

Prolonged QT interval on ECG
Congenital: Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome, Romano-ward syndrome
Acquired: hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, amiodarone and tricyclic antidepressants, bradycardia, acute MI, diabetes
Syncope, palpitations, polymorphic ventricular tachycardia- usually terminate spontaneously may degenerate to VF
Treat underlying cause, if acquired long QT- IV isoprenaline

188
Q

What does mitral stenosis lead to and starts from when? Causes? Pathophysiology?

A

Obstructs LV inflow during diastole, when area less than 2cm2
Rheumatic carditis, infective endocarditis, mitral annular calcification
LA dilatation–> pulmonary congestion and oedema, partially countered by pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction–> right ventricular hypertrophy, dilatation and failure with tricuspid regurgitation

189
Q

Presentation of mitral stenosis?

A

Progressive dyspnoea due to left atrial dilation, haemoptysis- rupture of bronchial vessels, right heart failure, AF- left atrium dilation–> palpitations, systemic emboli- AF, ‘a’ wave in jugular venous pulsations, mitral facies/ molar flush- pinkish purple cheeks
Diastolic murmur prominent at apex, heart best when lying on left side, loud opening S1 snap, more severe= longer murmur and closer opening snap is to S2

190
Q

Diagnosis of mitral stenosis?Tx?

A

CXR: left atrial enlargement, pulmonary oedema, calcified mitral valve
ECG: AF, left atrial enlargement
ECHO= gold standard for diagnosis, assess mitral valve mobility, gradient and mitral valve area

Beta-blockers prolong diastole, diuretics for fluid overload, percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy- catheter into RA via femoral vein, intertribal septum punctured–> LA, balloon inflated opening valve
Mitral valve replacement

191
Q

Mild mitral regurgitation seen in what % of normal individuals? Causes? Risk factors?

A

Abnormalities of valve leaflets, chordae tendinae, papillary muscles or left ventricle, myxomatous degeneration (MVP), ischaemic mitral valve, rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis, papillary muscle dysfunction, dilated cardiomyopathy
Females, lower BMI, advanced age, renal dysfunction, prior MI

192
Q

Pathophys of mitral regurgitation?

A

Left atrial dilatation but little increase in left atrial pressure if regurg longstanding since accommodated by large left atrium–> left atrial enlargement, left ventricle hypertrophy, right ventricular dysfunction due to pulmonary hypertension

193
Q

Mitral regurgitation presents how? Mortality rises when EF less than what %?

A

Soft S1 and pan systolic murmur at apex radiating to axilla, prominent S3 in congestive heart failure/ left atrium overload, intensity does not correlate with severity
Exertion dyspnoea, fatigue, lethargy, increased SV= palpitation, symptoms of right heart failure, HF may increase with pregnancy, infection/ AF
60%

194
Q

Diagnosis of MR?

A

ECG= left atrial enlargement, AF, left ventricle hypertrophy in severe MR, but not diagnostic
CXR: left atrial enlargement and central pulmonary artery enlargement
ECHO= estimation of left atrium and left ventricle size and function, valve structure assessment, transoesophageal= helpful

195
Q

Tx for MR? Surgery indications?

A

ACE-inhibitors, Beta blockers, anticoagulation in AF and flutter, diuretics for fluid overload
Serial ECHO- mild= 2-3 years, moderate= 1-2 years, severe= 6-12 months
Symptoms at rest/ exercise, if EF<60%, if new onset AF

196
Q

What is aortic stenosis? Epidemiology? Types? 3 main causes

A

Narrowing–> obstruction to left ventricular stroke volume, symptoms= area= 1/4th of normal
Supravalvular- congenital fibrous diaphragm above aortic valve
Subvalvular- fibrous ridge below valve
Valvular- most common

Calcific aortic valvular disease (CAVD)-calcification, most in elderly
Calcification of congenital bicuspid aortic valve (BAV)- most common congenital heart disease
Rheumatic heart disease- rare, due to eradication= low

197
Q

Risk factors? Congenital BAV= predominant in who? Pathophys of aortic stenosis? Symptoms?

A

BAV, in males
Increased after load, increased LV pressure and compensatory left ventricular hypertrophy–> angina, arrhythmias, LV failure, more severe on exercise
Syncope- usually exertion, angina, HF, dyspnoea, sudden death, slow rising carotid pulse and decrease pulse amplitude
Soft/ absent 2nd heart sound, prominent 4th heart sound, ejection systolic murmur-crescendo-decrescendo character

198
Q

Diff diagnosis, diagnosis of AS?

A

Aortic regurgitation, subacute bacterial endocarditis
ECHO= left ventricular size and function, Doppler derived gradient and valve areas (AVA)
ECG: left ventricular hypertrophy, left atrial delay, left ventricular ‘strain’ pattern due to pressure overload, depressed ST segments and T-wave inversion
CXR: left ventricular hypertrophy, calcified aortic valve

199
Q

Tx of AS? Indications of aortic valve replacement?

A

Dental hygiene due to increased risk of IE
Vasodilators= contraindicated in severe aortic stenosis
Any symptomatic, decreasing EF, undergoing CABG with moderate/ severe
TAVI- minimally invasive, catheter up aorta, inflate to crack calcification, another catheter with new valve

200
Q

Epidemiology of AR? Causes? Risk factors?

A

Can be associated with aortic stenosis
Congenital bicuspid aortic valve, rheumatic fever, IE
SLE, Marfan’s and Ehlers- Danlos syndrome, aortic dilatation, IE or aortic dissection

201
Q

Pathophys of AR? Clinical presentation?

A

Left ventricular size increases–> dilatation and hypertrophy–> HF, diastolic pressure falls and coronary perfusion decreases, cardiac ischaemia develops
Chronic= asymptomatic for many years, exertion dyspnoea, palpitations, angina, syncope, wide pulse pressure, apex beat displaced laterally
Diastolic blowing murmur at left sternal border, systolic ejection murmur
Collapsing water hammer pulse, Quincke’s sign- capillary pulsation in nail beds, de Musset’s sign- head nodding with each HB, pistol shot femoral- sharp bang heard on auscultation

202
Q

Diff diagnosis and diagnosis of AR?

A

HF, IE, mitral regurgitation
ECHO= evaluation of aortic valve and root, measurement of left ventricle dimensions and function, cornerstone for decision making and follow up evaluation
CXR: enlarged cardiac silhouette and aortic root enlargement, left ventricular enlargement
ECG: signs of LVH due to volume overload, tall R waves and deeply inverted T waves in left-sided chest leads and deep S waves in right-sided

203
Q

Tx of AR?

A

IE prophylaxis
ACE-inhibitors improve SV- only if symptomatic or has HTN
Serial ECHOs to monitor progression
Valve replacement if symptoms increasing, enlarging heart on CXR/ ECHO, ECG deterioration (T wave inversion in lateral leads)

204
Q

What is infective endocarditis? Infection occurs on what?

A

Infection of endocardium or vascular endothelium of heart, known as subacute bacterial endocarditis
Valves with congenital/ acquired defects, right-sided more common in IV drug addicts, normal valves with virulent organisms, prosthetic valves and pacemakers

205
Q

Epidemiology of IE? Caused by what bacteria?

A

More common in developing countries, disease of elderly with prosthetic valves, young IV drug user, young with congenital heart disease
More common in males
Staph aureus, pseudomonas aeruginosa, streptococcus viridans- gram +ve, alpha haemolytic and optochin resistant

206
Q

Risk factors for IE? Pathophysiology?

A

IV drug use, poor dental hygiene, skin and soft tissue infection, dental treatment, IV cannula, cardiac surgery, pacemaker
Usually consequence of 2 factors- organisms in bloodstream, abnormal cardiac endothelium facilitating adherence and growth
Bacteraemia= poor dental hygiene, IV drug use, soft tissue infections, dental treatment, IV cannula, cardiac surgery, permanent pacemakers
Damaged endocardium= platelet and fibrin deposition, aortic and mitral valves most commonly involved also

207
Q

Clinical presentation of IE?

A

New valve lesion/ regurgitant murmur, embolic events of unknown origin, sepsis of unknown origin, haematuria, glomerulonephritis and suspected renal infarction
Fever plus: prosthetic material inside heart, risk factor for IE, newly developed ventricular arrhythmias or conduction disturbances
Headache, malaise, confusion, night sweats, finger clubbing
Staph aureus= quickly developed, embolisation of vegetations, valve dysfunction–> arrhythmia and HF

208
Q

Clinical manifestations of IE?

A

Splinter haemorrhages on nail beds of fingers, embolic skin lesions- black spots on skin, Osler nodes- tender nodes in digits, Janeway lesions- haemorrhages and nodules in fingers, Roth spots- retinal haemorrhages with white/ clear centres seen on fundoscopy, petechiae- small red/ purple spots caused by bleeds in skin

209
Q

Diagnosis of IE?

A

Dukes criteria
Blood cultures- 3 sets from different over 24 hours, before antibiotics started, identifies in 75% of cases
CRP and ESR raised, normochromic, normocytic anaemia, neutrophilic, haematuria- urinalysis, CXR= cardiomegaly, ECG= long PR interval at regular intervals
Transthoracic echo-safe, non invasive, no discomfort, poor images, negative does not exclude IE
Transoesophageal- sensitive but uncomfortable, good for visualising mitral lesions and development of aortic root abscess

210
Q

Treatment of IE?

A

Antibiotics for 4-6 weeks, Benzylpenicillin and gentamicin if not staph
If staph= vancomycin and rifampicin if MRSA
Treat complications
Surgery- removing valve, replace with prosthetic one, if not cure with ABs, remove infected devices, large vegetations before embolism
Recommend good oral health and inform patients of symptoms that may indicate IE

211
Q

Care issues in congenital heart patients?

A
Intellectual disability in 10% 
Psychosocial issues 
Transition
Explaining the lesion and prognosis 
Building independence/ self-reliance
212
Q

Genetic transmission of congenital heart defects from father %? Mother? Tetralogy of Fallot? AV septal defect? Foetal ECHO at how many weeks for early detection? Causes of congenital heart disease?

A

2.2%, 5.7%, 3%, 10-14%, 18-22 weeks
One child with defect increases the chance of the second child having another defect
Maternal prenatal rubella infection- persistent ductus arterioles and pulmonary valvular and arterial stenosis
Maternal alcohol misuse- septal defects
Singles genes associated
Drugs- thalidomide, amphetamines and lithium
Diabetes of mother
Genetic abnormalities

213
Q

Clinical presentation of congenital heart defects?

A

Central cyanosis- because of R–> L shunting of blood/ mixing of systemic and pulmonary blood flow–> poorly oxygenated blood, skin= bluish, seen in Tetralogy and tricuspid atresia
Pulmonary HTN- from L–> R shunts, pulm arteries thicken, resistance–> right ventricular pressure increases causing reversal of shunt to right-to-left–> patient blue= Eisenmenger’s complex
Clubbing of fingers, growth retardation, syncope- severe right/ left ventricular outflow tract obstruction

214
Q

Specific common problems from congenital heart defects?

A

Endocarditis- in smaller ventricular septal defects/ bicuspid aortic valve

Calcification and stenosis of congenitally deformed valves e.g. bicuspid aortic valve
Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, sudden cardiac death, right heart failure, end-stage heart failure

215
Q

Features of Eisenmenger’s complex?

A

R–>L side shunting associated w/ R side cardiac failure and R side cardiac hypertrophy
Increased pulmonary pressure due to VSD, can’t leave–> increase lung resistance and RV pressure–>LV pressure–> blood moves to left again

216
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot is what % of congenital conditions? What does this involve?

A

10%
Large maligned VSD, overriding aorta, RV outflow obstruction and RV hypertrophy
Stenosis of RV outflow leads to RV being higher pressure than left
Blue blood RV–> LV, patients= blue

217
Q

Presentation and Tx for tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Central cyanosis, low birthweight and growth, dyspnoea on exertion, delayed puberty, systolic ejection murmurs, CXR= boot shaped heart

Full surgical Tx during first 2 years life, often pulmonary valve regurgitation in adulthood and require redo surgery

218
Q

Epidemiology of a bicuspid aortic valve?

A

1-2% of live births- most common form, more common in males, 2 instead of 3 cusps, can be severely stenotic in infancy or childhood
Degenerate quicker than normal valves
Associated with coarctation and dilation of ascending aorta
May develop aortic stenosis with/ without aortic regurgitation, predisposing IE
Intense exercise may accelerate, so yearly ECHOs on athletes

219
Q

Epidemiology and features of atrial septal defects?

A

Often first diagnosed in adulthood and represents 1/3 CHD, more common in women, probe can be passed through primum and secundum of foramen vale
Slightly higher pressure in LA, shunt= L–>R, not blue
Right ventricle easily dilates, can result in: RV hypertrophy, pulmonary HTN, increased IE risk

220
Q

Presentation and Tx of ASD?

A

Dysponea, exercise intolerance, may develop atrial arrhythmias from right atrial dilatation, pulm flow murmur, fixed split second heart sound
CXR= large plum arteries, large heart
ECG: RBBB due to RV dilatation
ECHO= hypertrophy and dilation of right side of heart and pulmonary arteries
Tx= surgical closure, percutaneous

221
Q

VSD= what % of all CHD? Features of VSD?

A

20%
Higher pressure in LV, left–> R shunt
Does not go blue
Increased blood flow through lung

222
Q

Presentation and Tx of VSD?

A

Pulmonary HTN and eventual Eisenmenger’s complex, when RV pressure higher–> shunt R to left, small breathless skinny baby, increased resp rate, tachycardia, CXR: big heart, murmur varies in intensity
Large systolic murmur, thrill, well grown, normal HR and size
Medical Tx initially since many will spontaneously close, surgical close, small= no intervention, prophylactic antibiotics
Moderately sized lesion= furosemide, ACE inhibitor

223
Q

AV septal defects involves what? Associated with what?

A

Ventricular, atrial septum and mitral and tricuspid valves, hole in very centre, can be complete/ partial, one large malformed AV valve
Downs Syndrome

224
Q

Presentation of complete and partial AV defects? Tx?

A

Complete= breathlessness as neonate, poor weight gain and feeding, torrential pulm flow–> Eisenmenger’s over time
Partial= can present in late adulthood
Pulm artery banding if large defect in infancy, surgical repair= challenging, partial may be left alone if no right heart dilatation

225
Q

What is the ductus arterioles a persistent communication between?

A

Proximal left pulm artery and descending aorta, foetal life= pulm vas resistance is high, flow is from right to left atrium, normally closes within few hours of birth
In e.g. premature babies and maternal rubella, ductus persists
Remains open= abnormal left-to-right shunt–> pulm HTN, right side cardiac failure, increased IE risk

226
Q

Presentation and Tx of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Continuous ‘machinery’ murmurs, bounding pulse, if large then large heart and breathless, Eisenmengers, tachycardia, CXR: aorta and pulm art prominent, ECG: left atrial abnormality and left ventricular hypertrophy, ECHO= dilated left atrium and left ventricle

Closed surgically/ percutaneously, low risk of complications, venous approach may require an AV loop, indometacin- stimulate duct closure

227
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta and associated and more common in what?

A

Narrowing of aorta at/ just distal to insertion of ductus arteriosus–> excessive blood flow through carotid and subclavian vessels into systemic vascular shunts
Turner syndrome, berry aneurysms, patent ductus arteriosus
Decreased renal perfusion–> systemic HTN that persists after surgical correction

228
Q

Presentation of coarctation of the aorta?

A

Often asymptomatic for many years, right arm HTN, bruits over scapulae and back from collateral vessels, murmur, headaches and nose bleeds, HTN in upper limbs, discrepant BP in upper and lower body
Early coronary heart disease, early strokes, sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
CXR: dilated aorta indented at site of coarctation, ECG: left ventricular hypertrophy, CT: can accurately demonstrate the coarctation and quantity flow

229
Q

Tx of coarctation of aorta?

A

Surgery, balloon dilatation and stenting, risk of aneurysm formation at site of repair

230
Q

What is pulmonary stenosis? Types? Signs of severe and moderate/ mild PS?

A
Narrowing of the outflow of the RV
Can be valvar, sub valvar or supravalvar
Severe= right ventricular failure as neonate, collapse, poor pulm blood flow, RV hypertrophy, tricuspid regurgitation
Moderate/ mild= well tolerated for many years, RV hypertrophy
231
Q

Tx for pulm stenosis?

A

Balloon valvoplasty- catheter with balloon through femoral vein then inflate balloon
Open valvotomy
Shunt- to bypass the blockage

232
Q

What does complete transposition of the great arteries (TGA) involve?

A

Involves the aorta coming off the right ventricle and pulm trunk off the left ventricle
2 closed circulations result
More common in men and associated with diabetes
Survival only possible if communication between 2 circuits- all= some form atrial septal defect with blood mixing
Tx= atrial switch operation with good results

233
Q

What is peripheral vascular disease? Commonly caused by what and usually affects what? More common in who?

A

Partial blockage of leg/ peripheral vessels by an atherosclerotic plaque and or resulting in insufficient perfusion of lower limb–> lower limb ischaemia
From atherosclerosis
Aorta-iliac and infra-inguinal arteries
Men than women

234
Q

Anatomy of arteries in leg downwards?

A

Aorta–> common iliac at L4, external iliac, internal iliac, common femoral, superficial femoral, popliteal, anterior tibial, posterior tibial, perineal

235
Q

Risk factors for PVD? Chronic lower limb ischaemia always due to what? Symptoms of ischaemia?

A

Smoking, diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia, HTN, HTN, physical inactivity, obesity
Atherosclerosis of the arteries distal to the aortic arch
Normal O2 pressures in different activities
Mild ischaemia- stress induces malfunction, angina, intermittent claudication (cramping pain relieved by rest distal to atheroma, absent leg pulses, cold feet)
Moderate- structural and functional breakdown, ischaemic cardiac failure, critical limb ischaemia

236
Q

Further features of critical limb ischaemia ? Severe ischaemia? General symptoms? Diff diagnosis?

A

Rest pain= typically nocturnal, risk of gangrene and/ or infection, chronic and most severe manifestation, low O2 pressures in different activities, vascular dementia
Infarction, gangrene
Absent femoral, popliteal or foot pulses, cold/ white legs
Osteoarthritis of hip/ knee due to knee pain at rest, peripheral neuropathy- tingling

237
Q

Diagnosing PVD?

A

Exclude arteritis by looking at ESR/ CRP- would be raised
FBC- Hb to exclude anaemia/ polycthaemia
ECG: cardia ischaemia
Severity from ankle/ brachial pressure index (ABPI)- cuff pressure at which blood flow is detectable by Doppler in posterior/ anterior tibial arteries compared to brachial artery
Colour duplex US- first line test
MR/ CT angiography to assess extent and location of stenoses and quality of distal vessels- if considering intervention

238
Q

Acute lower limb ischaemia may occur because of what? Embolic disease commonly due to what? What is now uncommon cause? Emboli may occur secondary to what?

A

Embolic/ thrombotic disease
Cardiac thrombus and cardiac arrhythmias
Rheumatic fever
Aneurysm thrombus or thrombus on atherosclerotic plaques

239
Q

Thrombotic disease usually forms on what? What may thrombose/ embolism distally?

A

On a chronic atherosclerotic stenosis in pt who has previously reported symptoms of claudication
Also in normal vessels in individuals who are hyper coagulable because of malignancy/ thrombophilia defects
Popliteal aneurysms

240
Q

6 Ps in acute ischaemia? What implies irreversibility? In patients with known PAD, what may indicate acute arterial occlusion?

A

Pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic and ‘perishingly cold’
Fixed mottling
Sudden deterioration of symptoms w/ deep duskiness of the limb- due to extensive pre-existing collaterals

241
Q

Management of acute ischaemia?

A

Surgical emergency requiring revascularisation within 4-6 hours to save limb
Intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical removal of embolus if present- surgical embolectomy (Fogarty catheter) or local thrombolysis e.g. tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)- balance risks of surgery w/ haemorrhage complications of thrombolysis
Anticoag w heparin after procedure
Aware of post-op reperfusion injury and compartment syndrome

242
Q

Risk factor modification for PAD?

A

Smoking cessation- small vessels in muscles heart to ischaemia provide ‘back up supply’ contract in response to nicotine and tobacco
Treat HTN, hyperlipidaemia and diabetes
Antiplatelet agent, exercise and weight loss

243
Q

Revascularisation for critical ischaemia? What accounts for 20% of strokes and TIAs? Who should have carotid endarterectomy within 2 weeks of symptom onset?

A

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty- squashes plaque and increases perfusion, bypass procedure, amputation if severe
Carotid arterial disease
Symptomatic patients w/ ipsilateral stenosis >70%

244
Q

Complications of atherosclerosis? Plaque complications?

A

Local complications of atherosclerotic plaque, in other areas due to presence of atherosclerotic plaques
Progression, haemorrhage, plaque rupture, overlying thrombosis, dissection, aneurysm

245
Q

What is aneurysmal disease classified as? What is an aneurysm defined as? Normal aorta diameter? What is a true aneurysm?

A

True and false
A permanent dilatation of the artery to twice the normal diameter
2cm
Abnormal dilatations that involve all layers of the arterial wall, most frequent= abdominal aorta, iliac, popliteal and femoral arteries, thoracic aorta

246
Q

What is a false aneurysm? Aortic aneurysms are classified as what?

A

Known as pseudoaneurysm, involves collection of blood in outer layer only (adventitia)- communicates with the lumen e.g. after trauma from femoral artery puncture
Abdominal or thoracic

247
Q

Epidemiology of AAAs? Causes and risk factors?

A

Most commonly occur below renal arteries (infra-renal)
Incidence increases with age, more in men, aortic diameter exceeding 3cm
Most= no specific identifiable causes, severe atherosclerotic damage, family history, tobacco smoking, male, increasing age, HTN, COPD, trauma, hyperlipidaemia

248
Q

Pathophysiology and presentation of AAAs?

A

Degradation of elastic lamellae resulting in leucocyte infiltrate, causing proteolysis and smooth muscle cell loss, dilatation affects all 3 layers
Unruptured= asymptomatic often, picked up via examination or plain X-ray, pain in abdomen, back, loin or groin, pulsatile abdominal swelling (less pronounced)
Ruptured= more likely if increased BP, female, smoker, strong family history, intermittent or continuous abdominal pain, pulsatile abdominal swelling, collapse, hypotension, tachycardia, profound anaemia, sudden death

249
Q

Diff diagnosis of aneurysm, diagnosis, Tx?

A

GI bleed, ischaemic bowel, MSK pain, perforated GI ulcer, pyelonephritis, appendicitis
Abdo US, CT and or MRI angiography scans
Small aneurysms below 5.5cm= monitored, treat underlying causes, modify risk factors, smoking cessation, vigorous BP control, lowering lipids
Patients tend to do better if aneurysm is symptomatic and expanding yearly, open surgical repair, endovascular repair- stent via femoral/ iliac arteries

250
Q

Epidemiology of thoracic abdominal aneurysm (TAA)? What may become aneurysmal? Ascending thoraco-abdominal aneurysms occur most commonly in patients with what? Descending or arch TAAs occur how?

A

Normal size of mid-descending= 26-28mm
Ascending, arch or descending thoracic aorta
Marfan syndrome or hypertension
Secondary to atherosclerosis and are now rarely due to syphilis

251
Q

Causes of thoracic abdominal aneurysm? Risk factors?

A

Strong genetic link- autosomal dominant trait in some families, Marfan’s, Ehlen- Danlos syndrome, Loeys- dietz syndrome, mycotic aneurysm= endocarditis, aortic dissection in some cases
Weight lifting, cocaine and amphetamine use= large rise in BP
HTN, smoking, increasing age, smoking, bicuspid/ unicuspid aortic valves, atherosclerosis, COPD, renal failure, previous AA repair

252
Q

Pathophysiology of thoracic AA? Presentation?

A

Inflammation, proteolysis and reduced survival of smooth muscles cells in aortic wall, when aorta reaches crucial diameter= loses all distensibility
Asymptomatic, may be diagnosed incidentally, pain in chest, neck, upper back, mid-back, epigastrium, aortic regurgitation, fever, symptoms due to compression of local structures, acute pain, collapse, shock and sudden death, cardiac tamponade, haemoptysis

253
Q

Diff diagnosis of TAA?Diagnosis and Tx?

A

Thoracic back pain, arterial ischaemia, collapse, MI
CT/ MRI for TAA assessment, aortography- assessing position of key branches, transoesophageal ECHO for aortic dissection, US
Immediate urgent surgery for ruptured, symptomatic= surgery, regular monitoring by CT/ MRI every 6 months, BP control with beta-blockers, smoking cessation, treat underlying cause

254
Q

Epidemiology of aortic dissection? Causes?

A

Begins with a tear in the intima (inner wall,) blood penetrates diseases medial layer and flows between aorta layers forcing layers apart
Medical emergency, most common affecting aorta, affects men more
Most common= 50-70
Classified according to timing of diagnosis from origin of symptoms- acute< 2 weeks, subacute- 2-8 weeks, chronic> 8 weeks

Inherited, degenerative, atherosclerotic, inflammatory, trauma e.g. shearing stresses in RTA

255
Q

Pathophysiology of aortic dissection?

A

Tear in intimal lining of aorta, column of blood under pressure enters aortic wall–> haematoma separating intimal from adventitia–> false lumen
Extends for variable distance in either direction; anterograde= towards bifurcations, retrograde= towards aortic root
Most common= within 2-3 cmm of aortic valve, distal to left SC artery in descending aorta

256
Q

Presentation of aortic dissection?

A

Sudden onset of severe and central chest pain–> back and down arms, pain= tearing in nature, HTN, pain is maximal from time of onset, may be shocked and have neurological symptoms, aortic regurgitation, coronary ischaemia, cardiac tamponade
Acute KF, acute lower limb ischaemia, absent peripheral pulses

257
Q

Diff diagnosis, diagnosis and Tx of aortic dissection?

A

Acute coronary syndrome, MI, aortic regurgitation, MSK pain, pericarditis, cholecystitis, atherosclerotic embolism
CXR= widened mediastinum, urgent CT scan, transoesophageal ECHO or MRI will confirm
Urgent HTN meds to less than 120 mmHg- IV beta-blockers, adequate analgesia, surgery to replace aortic arch, endovascular intervention with stents, long-term follow-up with CT/ MRI

258
Q

What is shock used to describe?

A

Acute circulatory failure with inadequate/ inappropriately distributed tissue perfusion- inadequate substrate–> generalised hypoxia and/ or inability of cells to utilise oxygen

259
Q

What is recognised in shock? Can lead to what? Check?

A

Skin= pale, cold, sweaty and vasoconstricted
Weak, rapid pulse
Pulse pressure reduced- MAP may be maintained, reduced urine output, confusion, weakness, collapse, coma
BP<90mmHg–> organ failure after recovery from acute event- may be linked to inflammatory response
CRT- capillary refill time, not good if takes longer than 3 seconds to turn pink after 5 seconds compression= earliest and most accurate sign of shock

260
Q

Causes of shock?

A
Hypovolaemic- low BV
Cardiogenic- heart isn't pumping 
Distributive: septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic
Anaemic- not enough O2 carrying capacity
Cytotoxic- cells poisoned
261
Q

Hypovolaemic shock can be secondary to what? Loss of blood due to what? Loss of fluid due to what?

A

Haemorrhagic shock
Acute GI bleeding, trauma, peri/ post operative, splenic rupture
Dehydration- diarrhoea and vomiting, burns- heat damage increases capillary permeability so plasma leaks, pancreatitis

262
Q

Causes of cardiogenic shock?

A

Cardiac tamponade- blood in pericardial sack placing pressure on heart limiting CO
Pulmonary embolism, acute MI, fluid overload, myocarditis

263
Q

Septic shock referred to as what? Exists when sepsis is complicated by what?

A

Distributive shock
When systemic inflammatory response associated with infection, when sepsis is complicated by persistent hypotension that is unresponsive to fluid resuscitation

264
Q

Anaphylactic shock from what?

A

Release of IgE= intense allergic reaction, massive release of histamine and other vasoactive mediators–> haemodynamic collapse
Accompanied by breathlessness and wheeze due to bronchospasm

265
Q

Features of class I haemorrhagic shock? Class II? Class III?

A

15% blood loss, pulse below 100bpm, BP normal, pulse pressure normal, resp rate; 14-20, urine output greater than 30ml/hr, slightly anxious

15-30% blood loss, pulse above 100bpm, BP normal due to autonomic response, pulse pressure decreased, resp rate; 20-30, urine output: 20-30ml/ hr, mental status: mildly anxious

30-40% blood loss, pulse above 120bpm, BP decreased, pulse pressure decreased, resp rate; 30-40, urine output: 5-15ml/hr, mental status= confused

266
Q

Pathophysiology of shock?

A

Reduction in ventricular filling–> fall in BP and SV–> hypotension
Reduced baroreceptors in aortic arch and carotid sinuses–> increased symptoms activity with NAD and adrenaline release
Vasoconstriction with increased myocardial contractility and HR helps restore BP and CO
Autotransfusion= reduced capillary BP–> greater fluid movement into vascular component from tissues
Reduction in renal cortex perfusion–> renin released–> Na+ and H20 retention and thirst
Cortisol= fluid retention, glucagon= raises blood sugar

267
Q

Presentation of shock?

A

Hypovalaemic= cold skin, drowsiness and confusion
Increased sympathetic tone, tachycardia, sweating, BP may be maintained but later hypotension, bradycardia

Cardiogenic= signs of myocardial failure, raised JVP, Gallop rhythm, basal crackles and pulmonary oedema

Septic= pyrexia and rigors, nausea and vomiting, vasodilation with warm peripheries, bounding pulse

Anaphylactic shock= signs of profound vasodilation, warm peripheries, low BP, tachycardia, bronchospasm, pulmonary oedema

268
Q

Organ systems at risk of shock? Tx of shock?

A

Kidneys- acute tubular necrosis, lung- ARDs, heart- myocardial ischaemia and infarction, brain- confusion, irritability and coma

ABC: A- airway (ensure patency,) B- breathing- give 100% O2 and correct immediately life threatening problems like: congestive cardiac failure, bronchospasm, tension pneumothorax
C- circulation: establish secure IV access, give fluid quickly and blood if acute blood loss, ensure haemostats i.e. stop bleeding

269
Q

Features of acute resp distress syndrome? Extrapulmonary and pulmonary causes?

A

Impaired oxygenation, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, no cardiac failure, normal pulmonary arterial pressure (PAOP)
Extra= shock of any cause, head injury, drug reaction, sepsis
Pulm= pneumonia, chemical pneumonitis, smoke inhalation, near drowning

270
Q

Pathophysiology and clinical presentation of ARDs?

A

Alveolar capillary membrane injury results in leakage of fluid into alveolar spaces–> neutrophil invasion–> more neutrophils= exudative phase
Eventually fibroblasts initiate healing= proliferative phase
Make scar tissue= fibrotic phase–> stiff lungs and severe difficulty in ventilation and O2 blood perfusion

Cyanosis, tachypnoea (quick breathing,) tachycardia and peripheral vasodilation

271
Q

Unmodifiable risk factors for IHD? Lifestyle factors? Clinical? Psychosocial stress?

A

Age, sex, ethnicity, genetics
Smoking, diet and alcohol, inactivity
HTN, high lipids, diabetes, kidney disease, obesity
Behaviour pattern, depression/ anxiety, work, social support

272
Q

Odds and hazard ratio meanings?

A

Odds given exposure compared to absence of exposure

Based on event frequency rather than cumulative total outcomes

273
Q

Mortality related to IHD increases in what? Risk of acute mi associated with exposure to what factors e.g.?

A
Increases in poorer SE class 
apoB/ ApoA1 ratio, increased apoldprotein ratio= bad
MI risk reduced with reduced risk factors
274
Q

What is the population attributable risk? CHD mortality due to what is reduced in HF? Still high due to what?

A

Population affected eliminated if exposure removed
Reduced smoking, cholesterol, BP, deprivation, AMI treatments, secondary prevention, revascularisation, aspirin and HTN therapy
Increasing obesity, diabetes and reduced exercise

275
Q

Reducing cholesterol by 0.1mmol/ L reduces CHD deaths by what %? Reducing BP by 1mmHg systolic reduces by what %? Reducing smoking by what % reduces by what %? Obesity by 0.1kg/m2 BMI by what %?

A

4%
2%
1%
0.25%

276
Q

What are psychosocial risk factors? Types? Affecting CHD risk related to what?

A

Factors influencing psychological responses–> social environment and pathophysiological changes
Cognitive, behavioural, emotional, social—> poverty, inequalities/ deprivation

277
Q

What is a type A coronary prone behaviour pattern? Assessed by what? What is the hostility dimension?

A

Competitive, hostile, impatient
Questionnaires, self-report, interview, speech, answer content, psychomotor
Risk factor–> anger, annoyance, resentment, verbal/ physical aggression, evidence= ambiguous

278
Q

What is link of depression/ anxiety with CHD risk? x more likely to die? Assessed how and follow-up when? What is a type D personality?

A
Stronger for depression
Links between depression and deprivation 
3.4X
MMPI, BDI and questionnaires
6- month follow-up
More of a depressing behavioural pattern
279
Q

CHD risk and work characteristics? How many hours 67% more likely to cause an MI? Link between social support and CHD risk?

A

MI associations and psychological demands, control and social support in relation to stress and adverse coronary health outcomes
11+ hours a day
Quan and qual–> morbidity and mortality= coping with life events, motivation to carry out healthy behaviours