Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

?? > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is SCID

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe pathogen vs host

A

Bacteria and viruses replicate very quickly so they evolve
Exertion of selection pressure resistant bacteria
Individuals who are resistant to bacteria will survive and reproduce
Polymorphic genes control immunoresponse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe recognition strategy 1

A

Recognising molecular patterns
Hundreds of receptors
Germ-line encoded
Uses PRRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are PRRS

A 
Pattern recognition receptors
Includes PAMP (Pathogen associated molecular patterns) and DAMP (Damage associated molecular patterns)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of recognition strategy 1

A

Many cells express the same receptor so it’s rapid and effective
Limited diversity and some pathogens will not be recognised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe recognition strategy 2

A

Recognising precise structures
Millions of receptors
Generated by random recombination of gene segments (must be activated first)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give the advantages and disadvantages of recognition strategy 2

A

Massive diversity so all structures potentially recognised
Fewer cells have this so it takes a long time
Random nature can lead to autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the epitome

A

The site on the antigen where antibodies bind to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Compare innate immunity to adaptive immunity

A

Independent of previous exposure vs adaptation to previous exposure
Depends on pre-formed and rapidly synthesised components vs depends on clonal selection
Fast vs slow
Limited specificity vs very specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give some features of innate immunity

A

Destroys nucleic acids in the cytoplasm
Activates inflammatory pathways
Type 1 interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give some features of adaptive immunity

A

Memory cell formation
Priming required
Cellular or humoral (lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does innate immunity relate to adaptive immunity

A

Buys time for adaptive immunity and promotes and directs the correct reponse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What percentage of WBCs do lymphocytes make up in blood and lymph

A

20-60%

99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which cells and substances are involved with innate response

A 
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Eosinophils 
Complement
Acute phase - P
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which cells and substances are involved with adaptive immunity

A

T cells
B cells
Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which cells and substances are involved with adaptive AND innate immunity

A

Basophils
Dendritic
Natural Killer
Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe clonal selection

A

Polyclonal naive lymphocyte, activation, proliferation, effector lymphocyte
Genetic recombination generates diversity of immunoglobulin and TCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are primary lymphoid organs and give examples

A

Organs where lymphocytes are produced (lymphopoiesis) e.g. bone marrow and thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are secondary lymphoid organs and give examples

A

Organs where lymphocytes interact with antigens and other lymphocytes e.g. spleen, lymph nodes, mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe/ draw the structure of the thymus

A

Between the right and left lung in front of the heart. Thyroid lies above the C cartilage. Bi-lobed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give some features of the thymus

A

Bi-lobed
Proliferating lymphocytes
Cortex and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does the thymus change during infection

A

No obvious change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where are Hassal’s corpuscle and what do they do

A

Fibroblast cells for T-reg development in the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does age effect the thymus

A

As one ages, there is a decreased output of NEW T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Give some features of bone marrow

A

B cell and RBC production
Foetus = lots of marrow
Adult = lot so fat with large and flat bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does the bone marrow change during infection

A

Increased WBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the lymphatic system

A

Drainage system that collects antigens and filters them through nodes. Antigens are likely to enter the lymph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What structures can be found in the lymph nodes

A

High endothelial venues (HEV) = cells move from the blood to the lymph node
Germinal centres = where B cells proliferate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does the lymph node change during infection

A

Lymph nodes enlargen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are B and T cells found in the lymph nodes

A

B cells = outside
T cells = inside
Due to chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the spleen do

A

Filters for antigens in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is red and white pulp and where is it found

A

Found in the spleen
red= RBCs
White = WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does the spleen change during infection

A

larger follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give 2 features of the spleen

A

Not many HEV

Contains germinal centres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does epithelium act as a defence

A

physical barrier with a very large SA
Mucosae-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
Villi have lymph drains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are Peyer’s patches and where are they found

A

Found in the gut with large aggregates of B cells and germinal centres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are microfold cells and where are they found

A

M cells that sample antigens in the gut in the peyer’s patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does the cutaneous tissue contribute to immune response

A

Epidermal langerhans cells captures pathogens from the skin. Also intraepidermal lymphocytes, T cells, dermal dendritic cells and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the purpose of recirculation

A

Ensures that the antigen meets the lymphocyte with the specific receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where does recirculation occur

A

Between the blood and peripheral lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does extravasation mean

A

Movement from blood to lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the process of extravasation

A

Naive T cell rolls along the epithelium
proteins and carbs bound to epithelium
Receptors on the lymphocyte bind to chemokine on the epithelium
Lymphocytes signals the T cells
Change in structure of integrin
Integrin becomes high affinity binding and stops movement
Transport of the T cell through the epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are CD markers

A

CD = cluster differentiation

Systemic nomenclature for cell surface membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What CD markers to all T cells show

A

CD3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How to T cells differ from B cells in recognising antigens

A

T cells recognise PROCESSED antigens using the TCR while B cells can recognised unprocessed antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which CD markers do B cells show

A

CD19 and CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which MHC class do B cells show

A

MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe APCs

A

Antigen presenting cells that present processed antigen to T cells in adaptive response. Includes dendritic cells, macrophages and B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does skin act as a barrier

A

Acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Give physiological features on innate immunity

A

body temperature
Acidic pH
Chemical mediators e.g. complement, lysozyme, interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Give features of neutrophils

A

phagocytose
40-75% of lymphocytes
Short lived
First cells recruited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do neutrophils move into the lymph

A 
rolling
Infection releases chemokine
Signal from endothelium
Forms a high affinity neutrophil
Diapedesis through
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define opsonisation

A

Micro-organism is coated with proteins for phagocytsosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are NETs

A

Neutrophil extracellular traps where granules and chromatin are released to form extracellular fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Give the features of eosinophils

A

Phagocytosis and granule release
Defence against parasites
Help in GALT (IgA)

56
Q

Give the features of basophils

A

release of granules

May act as APCs

57
Q

Give the features of monocytes

A

Phagocytosis, cytokine release, APC

When they leave the blood they become macrophages

58
Q

Give the features of mast cells

A

Granule release, histamine and leukotrienes, phagocytosis
Mucosal or connective tissue
Complement production (anaphylatoxins)
vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

59
Q

Give the features of dendritic cells

A

APCs and cytokine secretion

60
Q

Give the features pf natural killer cells

A

Infected cell lysis
Large granulated lymphocytes (cytotoxic)
Secretes interferon gamma
Binds to opsonised cells

61
Q

What are soluble mediators

A

small secreted proteins important in cell-cell communication that are generally local acting and short-lived

62
Q

What are the types of soluble mediators

A 
Interleukins (between leukocytes)
Interferons (anti-viral)
Chemokines (chemotaxis)
Growth factors 
Cytotoxic
63
Q

What is complement

A

A complex series of proteins and glycoproteins that triggers enzyme cascade systems . Role in complementing activity of specific antibodies.

64
Q

Where is complement produced

A

Liver produces inactivated precursors

65
Q

How is complement activated

A

Cleaving the end

66
Q

What are the three complement activation pathways

A

Classical - antibodies
Lectin - lectin proteins that bind to carbs
Alternative - bacterial surfaces directly activates

67
Q

What is a common stage of the three complement pathways

A

Activation of Cab and the Membrane attack complex (MAC)

68
Q

What can immunoglobulins do water binding

A

Complement activation
Opsonisation
Cell activation via Fc

69
Q

Draw/describe the structure of an immunoglobulin

A

Fab at the top and Fc at the bottom
2 heavy chains and 2 light chains linked by disulphide bonds
Hinge region at the middle corner

70
Q

What are hyper variable regions

A

there are 3 on immunoglobulins 1,2,3 and 3 complement determining regions (CDR)

71
Q

What is the immunoglobulin superfamily

A

They have a similar domain to the antibody

72
Q

What forces are involved in binding

A

Hydrogen bonds
Ionic bonds
Hydrophobic interactions
Van der Waals

73
Q

Define antibody affinity

A

strength of the total non covalent interactions between single antigen binding site and single epitope

74
Q

Define antibody avidity

A

The overall strength of multiple interactions between antibody with multiple binding sites and complex antigen with multiple epitopes

75
Q

Define antibody-cross reactivity

A

Antibody elicited in response to an antigen can recognise antigens of a different structure e.g. vaccination for cowpox effective for smallpox, common intestinal bacteria and carbs on RBC

76
Q

What separates the different immunoglobulin classes

A

Different heavy chains, same light chains

77
Q

Give the features of IgG

A

Most abundant
Actively transported across the placenta
Classical complement
Gamma heavy

78
Q

Give the features of IgA

A

second most abundant
Dimer
Mucosal surface protection
Alpha heavy

79
Q

Give the features of IgM

A 
First Ig at the site
Pentamer
Multiple binding sites
agglutination and complement
Micro heavy
80
Q

Give the features of IgE

A 
Allergic reactions
parasitic infecitons
Binds to mast cells for histamine release
Very low levels
E heavy
81
Q

Give the features of IgD

A

Very low levels
Expressed in B cell development and activation
Delta heavy

82
Q

Which immunoglobulins are found in the blood

A

IgG and IgM

83
Q

What is the purpose of Ig gene rearrangement in the bone marrow

A

undergo selection to destroy self targets

84
Q

What enzyme is used in Ig gene rearrangement

A

VDJ recombinase

85
Q

Where is MHC I found and what can it indicate

A

Found on all nucleated cells, indicating health via protein presentation

86
Q

Where is MHC II found

A

APC cells - dendritic, macrophage, B lymphocytes

87
Q

Describe the process of B cell activation

A

Dendritic cell and B lymphocytes endocytose the antigen (attaches to BCR) which is then processed and presented using MHC II
T cell recognises the antigen on the dendritic cell using TCR
T cell finds the B lymphocyte presenting the same antigen and activates it
CD28 production provides signalling and cytokines produced
Lymphokine is secreted

88
Q

What does class switching involve

A 
IgM and IgD are "weak"
When signals (lymphokines) are given from T helper there is a class switch
89
Q

Where does affinity maturation occur

A

Germinal centres

90
Q

Describe the process of affinity maturation

A

AID enzyme deliberately causes mutation in antibody coding genes of B cells (somatic hypermutation)
Cells can become worse -> apoptosis
Cells can become better -> stronger antibody -> plasma or memory cell

91
Q

Explain clonal selection

A

From a large population, 1 cell is activated via antigen binding to BCR which leads to proliferation (clonal selection). Division and differentiation is clonal expansion

92
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of B cells

A

Major vaccine targets
Monoclonal antibody use
Negative role in autoimmune conditions, involved in allergies and cancers

93
Q

Describe the T cell independent activation pathway

A

A repetitive bacterial polysaccharide acts as the first signal
Microbial constituent or accessory cell provides second signal e.g. LPS

94
Q

What causes differences in Ig for T cell independent and dependent

A

No lymphokines released in T cell independent

95
Q

Describe the TCR

A

The Fab region of an antibody, top is variable, bottom is constant. One alpha and one beta and a cytoplasmic tail.

96
Q

What is the difference between the alpha and beta TCR

A 
alpha = V and D and 1 recombination
Beta = V, D and J and 2 recombinations
97
Q

What are CD4 and CD8 and where are they found

A

Co-receptors that bind to MHC. CD4 is found one T helper cells while CD8 is found on T cytotoxic cells

98
Q

Give the structural differences between MHC I and MHC II

A

MHC I - 1 cytoplasmic tail, asymmetrical, (gap at the corner)
MHC II - 2 cytoplasmic tails, symmetrical (gap at top)

99
Q

What is HLA

A

Human leukocyte antigen - genes found in all vertebrates that code for MHC. polygenic

100
Q

Where is HLA found

A

Chromosome 6

101
Q

What type of expression is HLA

A

Co-dominant

102
Q

Relationship between HLA and MHC

A 
MHC class I = A,B,C
MHC class II = DP, DQ, DR
103
Q

What is haplotype

A

Group og MHC alleles on 1 chromosome

104
Q

Describe the endogenous MHC pathway

A

MHC I. Synthesised in the cytoplasm

  1. TAP transports protein to RER
  2. calnexin and calreticulin and tapasin fold and stabilise the MHC
  3. molecules transport to the golgi
105
Q

Describe the exogenous MHC pathway

A

MHC II. Antigens from external environment

  1. invariant chain stabilised the MHC complex
  2. transport to the golgi
  3. invariant chain is digested to leave a CLIP
  4. Antigen is endocytose and broken down
  5. Peptide presented on MHC
  6. MHC exocytosed
106
Q

Why may antibodies be inefficient

A 
Pathogens:
Can hide within cells
Can change antigen shape
Can coat the antigen with antibodies
Can produce fake antigens
107
Q

What are T cells defined by

A

inputs (STAT) and outputs (cytokines)

108
Q

How do Tc cells induce apoptosis

A

Granule release - Perforin, granzyme, granulising

Fas ligand - binds to Fas

109
Q

What is Th1 involved in

A

Macrophage activation
Delayed type hypersensitivity
B cell activation

110
Q

Describe delayed type hypersensitivity

A

Recruits monocytes

Activates monocytes and macrophages and keeps them at infection site

111
Q

What occurs when the macrophage cannot kill the pathogen e.g. tuberculosis

A

Cytokine release, endothelial cells express proteins monocyte and Th1 migration Th1 activates monocyte and macrophage

112
Q

What is the process of Th1 amplification

A

Activated Th1 binds to MHC II and CD40 on the B cell
Secretion of IFN gamma
Upregulation of MHC II, CD40 and tumour necrosis factor alpha
Increase in TNF alpha secretion (autocrine)

113
Q

Give features of Tfh

A

Activation by dendritic cells

Stimulates B cells

114
Q

What is the role of Th2

A

Targets eosinophils
Trigger in tracheal epithelia
Travels from dendritic to naive

115
Q

What Cluster differentiation is expressed by naive memory T cells

116
Q

What CD is expressed on central memory cells

117
Q

What are immune checkpoints

A

Expressed on T cells after a large number of exposures (co-stimulatory receptors) causes a longer time for response

118
Q

What is the function of Treg

A

Regulation of T cells and tolerant of self-antigens

119
Q

What is the function of Th17

A

Interleukin 17, bacterial control and neutrophil recruitment

120
Q

Describe the process of T cell development

A

Produced in the bone marrow (CD4-CD8-TCR-)
IN the cortex = CD4+CD8+TCR+
In the medulla = CD4+CD8-TCR+ vice versa

121
Q

Describe selection in the thymus of T cells

A

Thymocyte can’t bind = apoptosis
Weak binding = survival (+ve selection)
Strong binding = apoptosis (-ve election)

122
Q

what is the largest burden of disease

A

Acute lung disease

123
Q

What is the purpose of Interferon type 1

A

Activation of NK

124
Q

What is the purpose of interferon type 2

A

Produced by T cells pre-inflamamtion

125
Q

Define cytokine storm

A

Over production of cytokines and accumulation of cells

126
Q

Compare bacterial and viral defence

A

Complement and antibody opsonisation vs Interferons and inflammatory mediators + acute phase proteins
Phagocytes vs NK cells

127
Q

What are the features of an eradicable disease

A 
Simple and cheap to diagnose
Genetically stable pathogen
Accessible host species
Eliminated persistent infection
Safe and effective vaccine
128
Q

What are the features of the ideal vaccine

A 
Completely safe
easy to administer
cheap
stable]active against all variants
life-long protection
129
Q

Define tolerance

A

Specific unresponsiveness to an antigen that is induced by exposure of lymphocytes to that antigen

130
Q

Give examples of autoimmune disease

A

Hashimoto’s, myasthenia gravis

131
Q

Define pathogenesis

A

Susceptibility genes and environmental triggers

132
Q

Describe hypercytokinaemia

A

Too much immune response
positive feedback loop
pathogens enter the wrong compartment (Sepsis)

133
Q

What is the 3 signal model

A

Licensing response
Antigen recognition
Co-stimulation
Cytokine release

134
Q

What is AIRE

A

AutoImmune Regulator

A specialised transcription factor that allows expression of genes

135
Q

What is the function of IL-10

A

Pleitropic
Blocks pro-inflammatory cytokine synthesis
Downregulates macrophages

?? (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions