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Drugs/Immuno > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

IgM

A
  • on naive B cells, expressed as receptor and soluble antibody
  • produced early in B cell pathway, activates classical complement path
  • receptor on naive B cells
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2
Q

IgG

A
  • expressed on activated B memory cells that have class switched
  • major type in blood, transfer across placenta
  • activate classical complement pathway
  • mediate neutralization and opsonization of pathogens
  • mediate antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity
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3
Q

IgA

A
  • expressed on activated memory B cells that undergo class switching
  • produced in mucosal tissue and secreted into lumens of GI and respiratory tract
  • mediate pathogen neutralization
  • transferred in breast milk
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4
Q

IgE

A
  • expressed on active memory B cells that have class switched
  • defense against helminths
  • allergic responses
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5
Q

Th1 cells

A
  • recruit monocytes
  • IFN-gamma secretion
  • host defense against intracellular microbes
  • involved in inflammation
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6
Q

Th2 cells

A
  • recruit eosinophils
  • IL4,IL5,IL13 secretion
  • host defense against helminths
  • allergic reactions
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7
Q

Th3 cells

A
  • recruit neutrophils and monocytes
  • IL17 secretion
  • host defense against bacteria and fungi
  • inflammatory disorders
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8
Q

T Follicular Helper cells (Tfh)

A
  • produce IL21, IL4

- express CD40 and ICOS to help B cells proliferate and make high affinity, class switched antibodies

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9
Q

T regulator cell (Treg)

A

-inhibit immune responses via cell surface molecules of cytokines such as IL10

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10
Q

Interleukin 2

A
  • made by T cells
  • T cells: proliferation, increased cytokines synthesis, potentiates Fas-mediated apoptosis, promotes Treg development, survival
  • NK cells: proliferation, activation
  • B cells: proliferation, antibody synthesis (in vitro)
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11
Q

Interleukin 4

A
  • Source: CD4+ T cells (Th2), mast cells
  • B cells: Isotype switching to IgE
  • T cells: Th2 differentiation, proliferation
  • Macrophages: inhibition of IFN-gamma mediated activation
  • Mast cells: proliferation (in vitro)
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12
Q

Interleukin 10

A
  • inhibitor of cytokines
  • anti-inflammatory
  • produced by monocytes, Th2, mast cells, Tregs
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12
Q

Interleukin 8

A
  • Chemokine that recruits neutrophils (CXCL8)

- produced by macrophages, epithelial cells, endothelial cells

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14
Q

Interferon-gamma

A
  • source: T cells (Th1,CD8+ T cells), NK cells
  • B cells: isotype switching to opsonizing and complement fixing IgG subclasses
  • T cells: Th1 differentiation
  • macrophages: activation (increased microbicidal function)
  • various cells: increased expression of class I and class II MHC, increased antigen processing and presentation to T cells
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15
Q

Interleukin 17

A
  • source: T cells
  • endothelial cells: increased chemokine production
  • macrophages: increased chemokine and cytokines production
  • epithelial cells: GM-CSF and G-CSF production
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16
Q

TGF-beta (transforming growth factor)

A
  • source: T cells, macrophages, other cell types
  • B cells: inhibit proliferation, IgA production
  • T cells: inhibit proliferation and effector functions
  • Macrophages: inhibit activation, stimulate angiogenic factors
  • fibroblasts: increased collagen synthesis
17
Q

Central tolerance for B-cells occurs in the… and use which to mechanisms?

A
  • bone marrow
  • negative selection (actively killing)
  • receptor editing of the light chain in Ab
18
Q

How does peripheral b-cell tolerance occur in…

1) presence of t-cells
2) absence of t-cells

A

1) actively killed during clonal expansion via Fas-FasL mediated AICD, Fc receptor inhibition
2) decreased BCR expression leads to anergy of b-cell, decreased CXCR5 leaves to exclusion from lymphoid follicule

19
Q

T-cell central tolerance takes place in the…

A

thymus

20
Q

T-cell positive selection is…

A

when T-cell maturation occurs with binding to self-peptide and MHC determines CD4 or CD8

21
Q

Negative selection of T-cells

A

immature t-cells
that encounter high affinity self-peptide and MHC are actively killed (negative selection) and/or develop into natural Treg cells to suppress other T effector functions

22
Q

AIRE

A

This protein modulates interaction of self-peptide with MHC and it’s presentation to T-cells during central tolerance

Plays a role in preventing autoimmunity

23
Q

What are two ways that infection can lead to auto-reactivity?

A

1) Activation of APC that are presenting self-antigen already (as cryptic epitopes) are activated by the pathogen –> causes expression of costimulatory molecules –> self-reactive T-cell activation
2) Microbe may use the method of molecular mimicry which presents self-antigen like antigen to self-reactive t-cell –> activation –> autoimmunity
Activation of

24
Q

What are two mechanisms by which auto-immunity can progress?

A

1) Amplification of response by release of cytokines –> an increase in self-reactive clones number
2) Spreading of the epitope due to tissue injury –> more antigens presented –> more diverse self-reactive t-cells made

25
Q

Histamine

A
  • mediator of immediate allergic and inflammatory reactions
  • chemotactic factor for neutrophil,eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes
  • stored in blood basophils and tissue mast cells, gastric mucosal cells, neurotransmitter vesicles
  • causes vasodilation and edema
26
Q

H1 - Histamine receptor

A
  • increases IP3/DAG (GPCR pathway)
  • acts on blood vessels, endothelial cells, sensory nerve endings, GI smooth muscle cells, bronchial smooth muscle, brain
27
Q

H2 - histamine receptor

A
  • increases cAMP pathway

- acts on gastric mucosa, blood vessels, smooth muscle cells, mast cells, cardiac muscle cells, brain

28
Q

COX 1 and COX 2

A

COX 1=constitutive
COX 2=inducible
-both form different prostaglandins
COX1: TXA2, PGI2, PGE2

29
Q

PGE2

A
  • produced by COX1
  • classic inflammation symptoms: redness, swelling, pain
  • vasodilator in vascular beds
30
Q

PGI2

A
  • produced by COX1
  • rapidly made following tissue damage and is a mediator of edema and pain with acute inflammation
  • vasodilator in vascular beds
31
Q

TNF alpha

A
  • produced by macrophages

- causes fever and chemotaxis

34
Q

Attenuated vaccine

A
  • Measles,Varicella,Sabin Polio,Mumps,Rubella

- all antigens are expressed, highly immunogenic, stimulates a broad immune response

35
Q

Inactivated Vaccine

A
  • Multiple antigens present, risks incomplete inactivation, requires boosting
  • Salk Polio, Influenza, Hep A
36
Q

Subunit vaccine

A
  • consists of purified components derived from pathogen
  • can induce specific immune responses against molecules involved in virulence/pathogenesis
  • poorly immunogenic without adjuvants
  • Toxins: tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis
37
Q

Conjugate vaccine

A
  • consist of purified components of a pathogen linked to a highly immunogenic carrier
  • allows for T-dependent antibody response
  • Hapten conjugated to carrier (Polysaccharide: S. Pneumococcus, Meningococcus, Haemophilus)
38
Q

Virus-like Particle vaccines

A
  • consist of viral structural proteins that when overexpressed are similar in structure to infectious virus
  • VLPs do not contain viral nucleic acid and are noninfectious
  • Safe, highly immunogenic, particle can be modified with adjuvants
  • example: HPV

Drugs/Immuno (9 decks)

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