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Immunology Flashcards

1
Q 
19 year old male presents to A&E with severe respiratory difficulty, light-headedness and a red itchy rash. On examination he has laryngeal oedema, bilateral wheezing across the lung fields and is hypotensive. He has recently been taking antibiotics for a chest infection.
A. 
Acute Urticaria
B. 
Drug allergy
C. 
Angioedema
D. 
Chronic Urticaria
E. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
F. 
Contact dermatitis
G. 
Allergic Rhinitis
H. 
Anaphylaxis
I. 
Allergic asthma
J. 
Food allergy
A

H. Anaphylaxis

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2
Q 
A 3 year old girl is brought into A&E by her parents. She has had vomiting and diarrhoea since early yesterday evening when she was at a birthday party. On examination she has urticaria.
A. 
Acute Urticaria
B. 
Drug allergy
C. 
Angioedema
D. 
Chronic Urticaria
E. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
F. 
Contact dermatitis
G. 
Allergic Rhinitis
H. 
Anaphylaxis
I. 
Allergic asthma
J. 
Food allergy
A

J. Food allergy

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3
Q 
A 40 year old man presents to his GP complaining of loss smell and nasal itching and discharge. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and have a bluish tinge. His symptoms improve with a corticosteroid spray
A. 
Acute Urticaria
B. 
Drug allergy
C. 
Angioedema
D. 
Chronic Urticaria
E. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
F. 
Contact dermatitis
G. 
Allergic Rhinitis
H. 
Anaphylaxis
I. 
Allergic asthma
J. 
Food allergy
A

G. Allergic Rhinitis

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4
Q 
A 25 year old woman presents to her GP complaining of itchy, red wheals on her torso which have been present for 7 weeks. She can not remember how they started but has noticed they are worse in the heat and when she exercises.
A. 
Acute Urticaria
B. 
Drug allergy
C. 
Angioedema
D. 
Chronic Urticaria
E. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
F. 
Contact dermatitis
G. 
Allergic Rhinitis
H. 
Anaphylaxis
I. 
Allergic asthma
J. 
Food allergy
A

D. Chronic Urticaria

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5
Q 
A 30 year old women presents to her GP with a red, itchy, oozing rash around her neck and fingers
A. 
Acute Urticaria
B. 
Drug allergy
C. 
Angioedema
D. 
Chronic Urticaria
E. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
F. 
Contact dermatitis
G. 
Allergic Rhinitis
H. 
Anaphylaxis
I. 
Allergic asthma
J. 
Food allergy
A

F. Contact dermatitis

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6
Q 
A 55 year old man with history of angina was advised to take a tablet before a long flight. After taking the pill, he suddenly finds that he has difficulty breathing, feels nauseous and is itching.
A. 
Allergic asthma
B. 
IgE mediated anaphylaxis
C. 
Mast cell degranulation
D. 
C1 inhibitor deficiency
E. 
Idiopathic angioedema
F. 
Chronic urticaria
G. 
Acute urticaria
H. 
Panic attack
I. 
Urticarial vasculitis
J. 
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
K. 
Coeliac disease
A

C. Mast cell degranulation

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7
Q 
A 24 year old medical student develops worsening swelling of the hands and feet and abdominal pain before her final year medical exams. She says that similar milder episodes have occurred preciously.
A. 
Allergic asthma
B. 
IgE mediated anaphylaxis
C. 
Mast cell degranulation
D. 
C1 inhibitor deficiency
E. 
Idiopathic angioedema
F. 
Chronic urticaria
G. 
Acute urticaria
H. 
Panic attack
I. 
Urticarial vasculitis
J. 
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
K. 
Coeliac disease
A

D. C1 inhibitor deficiency

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8
Q 
A 50 year old Irish woman presents to her GP with episodes of diarrhoea, which is difficult to flush, abdominal pain, weight loss and fatigue. She also describes a blistering itchy rash on her knees.
A. 
Allergic asthma
B. 
IgE mediated anaphylaxis
C. 
Mast cell degranulation
D. 
C1 inhibitor deficiency
E. 
Idiopathic angioedema
F. 
Chronic urticaria
G. 
Acute urticaria
H. 
Panic attack
I. 
Urticarial vasculitis
J. 
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
K. 
Coeliac disease
A

K. Coeliac disease

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9
Q 
A 26 year old male who has been suffering from 'flu-like' symptoms with fever presents to the GP after developing skin rash in the last few days.
A. 
Allergic asthma
B. 
IgE mediated anaphylaxis
C. 
Mast cell degranulation
D. 
C1 inhibitor deficiency
E. 
Idiopathic angioedema
F. 
Chronic urticaria
G. 
Acute urticaria
H. 
Panic attack
I. 
Urticarial vasculitis
J. 
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
K. 
Coeliac disease
A

G. Acute urticaria

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10
Q 
A 35 year old woman presents with persistent itchy wheels for the last 2 months. She noticed that when this is at its worst, she also has a fever and feels generally unwell. After an acute attack, she has bruising and post-inflammatory residual pigmentation at the site of the itching.
A. 
Allergic asthma
B. 
IgE mediated anaphylaxis
C. 
Mast cell degranulation
D. 
C1 inhibitor deficiency
E. 
Idiopathic angioedema
F. 
Chronic urticaria
G. 
Acute urticaria
H. 
Panic attack
I. 
Urticarial vasculitis
J. 
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
K. 
Coeliac disease
A

I. Urticarial vasculitis

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11
Q 
A 19 year old male presents to A&E with increasing breathlessness. On examination his blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg and his respiratory rate is 28/min. He shows you a generalised red itchy skin rash, and examination of his chest reveals bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezes throughout.
A. 
Acute urticaria
B. 
Allergic asthma
C. 
Allergic conjunctivitis
D. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
E. 
Contact hypersensitivity
F. 
Anaphylaxis
G. 
Acute angioedema
H. 
Chronic urticaria
I. 
Hereditary angioedema
J. 
Allergic rhinitis
A

F. Anaphylaxis

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12
Q 
A 35 year old woman presents with a two day history of a red itchy skin rash which started soon after her first scuba-diving lesson. She is otherwise well
A. 
Acute urticaria
B. 
Allergic asthma
C. 
Allergic conjunctivitis
D. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
E. 
Contact hypersensitivity
F. 
Anaphylaxis
G. 
Acute angioedema
H. 
Chronic urticaria
I. 
Hereditary angioedema
J. 
Allergic rhinitis
A

A. Acute urticaria

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13
Q 
A 22 year old woman presents with an intermittently itchy and desquamating skin rash on her abdomen which is unresponsive to antihistamines
A. 
Acute urticaria
B. 
Allergic asthma
C. 
Allergic conjunctivitis
D. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
E. 
Contact hypersensitivity
F. 
Anaphylaxis
G. 
Acute angioedema
H. 
Chronic urticaria
I. 
Hereditary angioedema
J. 
Allergic rhinitis
A

E. Contact hypersensitivity

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14
Q 
A 40 year old man complains of loss of smell with nasal itching and discharge over 4 weeks. He also describes morning sneezing. He is otherwise in good health. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and hyperaemic.
A. 
Acute urticaria
B. 
Allergic asthma
C. 
Allergic conjunctivitis
D. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
E. 
Contact hypersensitivity
F. 
Anaphylaxis
G. 
Acute angioedema
H. 
Chronic urticaria
I. 
Hereditary angioedema
J. 
Allergic rhinitis
A

J. Allergic rhinitis

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15
Q 
This 45 year old woman presents to A&E with tongue swelling and acute respiratory tract obstruction. She has longstanding hypertension and received a renal transplant two years previously. She has no history of allergic disease. On examination her blood pressure is stable, and examination of her lung fields reveal normal breath sounds. Her current medication includes cyclosporine, azathioprine, captopril and nifedipine.
A. 
Acute urticaria
B. 
Allergic asthma
C. 
Allergic conjunctivitis
D. 
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
E. 
Contact hypersensitivity
F. 
Anaphylaxis
G. 
Acute angioedema
H. 
Chronic urticaria
I. 
Hereditary angioedema
J. 
Allergic rhinitis
A

G. Acute angioedema

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16
Q 
A 19 year old male presents to A&E with increasing breathlessness. On examination his blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg and his respiratory rate is 28/min. He shows you a generalised red itchy skin rash, and examination of his chest reveals bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezes throughout.
A. 
Intracardiac adrenaline
B. 
IV antihistamines
C. 
Intraarticular corticosteroids
D. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:10000
E. 
Inhaled antihistamines
F. 
IV adrenaline 0.3mL of 1:1000
G. 
Inhaled corticosteroids
H. 
Venom immunotherapy
I. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000
J. 
IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000
K. 
PO antihistamines
L. 
Intranasal antihistamines
M. 
None of the above
A

I. IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000

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17
Q 
A 35 year old woman presents with a two day history of a red itchy skin rash which started soon after her first scuba-diving lesson. She is otherwise well.
A. 
Intracardiac adrenaline
B. 
IV antihistamines
C. 
Intraarticular corticosteroids
D. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:10000
E. 
Inhaled antihistamines
F. 
IV adrenaline 0.3mL of 1:1000
G. 
Inhaled corticosteroids
H. 
Venom immunotherapy
I. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000
J. 
IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000
K. 
PO antihistamines
L. 
Intranasal antihistamines
M. 
None of the above
A

K. PO antihistamines

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18
Q 
A 22 year old woman is presents with this intermittently itchy and desquamating skin rash which is unresponsive to antihistamines
A. 
Intracardiac adrenaline
B. 
IV antihistamines
C. 
Intraarticular corticosteroids
D. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:10000
E. 
Inhaled antihistamines
F. 
IV adrenaline 0.3mL of 1:1000
G. 
Inhaled corticosteroids
H. 
Venom immunotherapy
I. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000
J. 
IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000
K. 
PO antihistamines
L. 
Intranasal antihistamines
M. 
None of the above
A

M. None of the above

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19
Q 
A 40 year old man complains of loss of smell with nasal itching and discharge over 4 weeks. He also describes morning sneezing. He is otherwise in good health. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and hyperaemic.
A. 
Intracardiac adrenaline
B. 
IV antihistamines
C. 
Intraarticular corticosteroids
D. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:10000
E. 
Inhaled antihistamines
F. 
IV adrenaline 0.3mL of 1:1000
G. 
Inhaled corticosteroids
H. 
Venom immunotherapy
I. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000
J. 
IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000
K. 
PO antihistamines
L. 
Intranasal antihistamines
M. 
None of the above
A

K. PO antihistamines

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20
Q 
This 45 year old woman presents to A&E with tongue swelling and acute respiratory tract obstruction. She has longstanding hypertension and received a renal transplant two years previously. She has no history of allergic disease. On examination her blood pressure is stable, and examination of her lung fields reveal normal breath sounds. Her current medication includes cyclosporine, azathioprine, captopril and nifedipine.
A. 
Intracardiac adrenaline
B. 
IV antihistamines
C. 
Intraarticular corticosteroids
D. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:10000
E. 
Inhaled antihistamines
F. 
IV adrenaline 0.3mL of 1:1000
G. 
Inhaled corticosteroids
H. 
Venom immunotherapy
I. 
IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000
J. 
IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000
K. 
PO antihistamines
L. 
Intranasal antihistamines
M. 
None of the above
A

J. IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000

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21
Q 
Cytokines exerting an anti-viral effect
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

L. Interferons

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22
Q 
Immunoglobulin dimer
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

K. IgA

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23
Q 
MHC associated with Th1 cells
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

M. Major histocompatibility complex class 2

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24
Q 
Acts on hepatocytes to induce synthesis of acute phase proteins in response to bacterial infection
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

A. IL6

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25
Q 
Arise in the first few days after infection and are important in defence against viruses and tumors
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

F. Natural Killer cells

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26
Q 
MHC associated with Th2 cells
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A 
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
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27
Q 
MHC associated with cytotoxic T cells
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A 
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
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28
Q 
Along with IgD, is one of the first immunoglobulins expressed on B cells before they undergo antibody class switching
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

J. IgM

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29
Q 
The most abundant (in terms of g/L) immunoglobulin in normal plasma
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

E. IgG

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30
Q 
Deficiencies in this predispose to SLE
A. 
IL6
B. 
Major histocompatability complex class 1
C. 
CD8+
D. 
Classical complement pathway
E. 
IgG
F. 
Natural Killer cells
G. 
Alternative complement pathway
H. 
IgE
I. 
Innate immune system
J. 
IgM
K. 
IgA
L. 
Interferons
M. 
Major histocompatability complex class 2
A

D. Classical complement pathway

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31
Q 
Kostmanns syndrome is a congenital deficiency of which component of the immune system?
A. 
B lymphocyte
B. 
MHC Class I
C. 
Viral
D. 
Complement
E. 
Bacterial
F. 
Mast cell
G. 
Neutrophil
H. 
T lymphocyte
I. 
MHC Class II
J. 
Fungal
K. 
Parasitic
A

G. Neutrophil

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32
Q 
Which component of the innate immune system is usually one of the first to respond to infection through a cut?
A. 
B lymphocyte
B. 
MHC Class I
C. 
Viral
D. 
Complement
E. 
Bacterial
F. 
Mast cell
G. 
Neutrophil
H. 
T lymphocyte
I. 
MHC Class II
J. 
Fungal
K. 
Parasitic
A

G. Neutrophil

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33
Q 
Which infection is most common as a consequence of B cell deficiency?
A. 
B lymphocyte
B. 
MHC Class I
C. 
Viral
D. 
Complement
E. 
Bacterial
F. 
Mast cell
G. 
Neutrophil
H. 
T lymphocyte
I. 
MHC Class II
J. 
Fungal
K. 
Parasitic
A

E. Bacterial

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34
Q 
Meningococcal infections are quite common as a result of which deficiency of the component of the immune system?
A. 
B lymphocyte
B. 
MHC Class I
C. 
Viral
D. 
Complement
E. 
Bacterial
F. 
Mast cell
G. 
Neutrophil
H. 
T lymphocyte
I. 
MHC Class II
J. 
Fungal
K. 
Parasitic
A

D. Complement

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35
Q 
Produced by the liver, when triggered, enzymatically activate other proteins in a biological cascade and are important in innate and antibody mediated immune response?
A. 
B lymphocyte
B. 
MHC Class I
C. 
Viral
D. 
Complement
E. 
Bacterial
F. 
Mast cell
G. 
Neutrophil
H. 
T lymphocyte
I. 
MHC Class II
J. 
Fungal
K. 
Parasitic
A

D. Complement

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36
Q

A complete deficiency in this molecule is associated with recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections.

A. 
IgA
B. 
C1
C. 
C3b
D. 
NADPH oxidoase
E. 
C3a
F. 
IgM
G. 
Neutrophils
H. 
AP50
I. 
Myeloperoxidase
J. 
CH50
K. 
Macrophages
L. 
MAC
M. 
IgG
A

A. IgA

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37
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is characterised by a very high count in which of the above?

A. 
IgA
B. 
C1
C. 
C3b
D. 
NADPH oxidoase
E. 
C3a
F. 
IgM
G. 
Neutrophils
H. 
AP50
I. 
Myeloperoxidase
J. 
CH50
K. 
Macrophages
L. 
MAC
M. 
IgG
A

G. Neutrophils

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38
Q

Which crucial enzyme is vital for the oxidative killing of intracellular micro-organisms?

A. 
IgA
B. 
C1
C. 
C3b
D. 
NADPH oxidoase
E. 
C3a
F. 
IgM
G. 
Neutrophils
H. 
AP50
I. 
Myeloperoxidase
J. 
CH50
K. 
Macrophages
L. 
MAC
M. 
IgG
A

D. NADPH oxidoase

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39
Q

Which complement factor is an important chemotaxic agent?

A. 
IgA
B. 
C1
C. 
C3b
D. 
NADPH oxidoase
E. 
C3a
F. 
IgM
G. 
Neutrophils
H. 
AP50
I. 
Myeloperoxidase
J. 
CH50
K. 
Macrophages
L. 
MAC
M. 
IgG
A

E. C3a

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40
Q

What is the functional complement test used to investigate the classical pathway?

A. 
IgA
B. 
C1
C. 
C3b
D. 
NADPH oxidoase
E. 
C3a
F. 
IgM
G. 
Neutrophils
H. 
AP50
I. 
Myeloperoxidase
J. 
CH50
K. 
Macrophages
L. 
MAC
M. 
IgG
A

J. CH50

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41
Q 
Graves Disease
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

A.

Type II - Antibody mediated

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42
Q 
SLE
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

D.

Type III - Immune complex mediated

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43
Q 
Rheumatoid arthritis
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

G.

Type IV - T-cell mediated

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44
Q 
Asthma
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

H.

Not an autoimmune disease

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45
Q 
Type 1 diabetes
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

G.

Type IV - T-cell mediated

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46
Q 
Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

A.

Type II - Antibody mediated

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47
Q 
ABO hemolytic transfusion reaction
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

A.

Type II - Antibody mediated

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48
Q 
Hepatitis C associated membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type I
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

D.

Type III - Immune complex mediated

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49
Q 
Goodpasture's syndrome
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

A.

Type II - Antibody mediated

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50
Q 
Myaesthenia gravis
A. 
Type II - Antibody mediated
B. 
Type III - T-cell mediated
C. 
Type II - Antigen mediated
D. 
Type III - Immune complex mediated
E. 
Type IV - Complement mediated
F. 
Type III - complement mediated
G. 
Type IV - T-cell mediated
H. 
Not an autoimmune disease
A

A.

Type II - Antibody mediated

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51
Q 
Systemic lupus erythematous
A. 
Anti-GAD antibody
B. 
Rheumatoid factor
C. 
c-ANCA
D. 
p-ANCA
E. 
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
F. 
Anti-DNA antibody
G. 
Anti-centromere antibody
H. 
Anti-CCP antibody
I. 
Coomb's test
J. 
Anti-cardiolipin antibody
K. 
Anti-nuclear antibody
A

F. Anti-DNA antibody

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52
Q 
Wegener's granulomatosis
A. 
Anti-GAD antibody
B. 
Rheumatoid factor
C. 
c-ANCA
D. 
p-ANCA
E. 
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
F. 
Anti-DNA antibody
G. 
Anti-centromere antibody
H. 
Anti-CCP antibody
I. 
Coomb's test
J. 
Anti-cardiolipin antibody
K. 
Anti-nuclear antibody
A

C. c-ANCA

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53
Q 
Rheumatoid arthritis
A. 
Anti-GAD antibody
B. 
Rheumatoid factor
C. 
c-ANCA
D. 
p-ANCA
E. 
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
F. 
Anti-DNA antibody
G. 
Anti-centromere antibody
H. 
Anti-CCP antibody
I. 
Coomb's test
J. 
Anti-cardiolipin antibody
K. 
Anti-nuclear antibody
A

H. Anti-CCP antibody

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54
Q 
Auto-immune haemolytic anaemia
A. 
Anti-GAD antibody
B. 
Rheumatoid factor
C. 
c-ANCA
D. 
p-ANCA
E. 
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
F. 
Anti-DNA antibody
G. 
Anti-centromere antibody
H. 
Anti-CCP antibody
I. 
Coomb's test
J. 
Anti-cardiolipin antibody
K. 
Anti-nuclear antibody
A

I. Coomb’s test

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55
Q 
Primary biliary cirrhosis
A. 
Anti-GAD antibody
B. 
Rheumatoid factor
C. 
c-ANCA
D. 
p-ANCA
E. 
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
F. 
Anti-DNA antibody
G. 
Anti-centromere antibody
H. 
Anti-CCP antibody
I. 
Coomb's test
J. 
Anti-cardiolipin antibody
K. 
Anti-nuclear antibody
A

E. Anti-mitochondrial antibody

56
Q 
What is the specific auto-antigen that is the target of the immune system?
A. 
Type II Hypersentivity
B. 
Ciclosporin
C. 
Smooth linear pattern
D. 
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
E. 
Lung
F. 
Skin
G. 
Lumpy-bumpy pattern
H. 
Type IV collagen
I. 
Plasmapheresis
J. 
Blood vessels
K. 
Mesangium
L. 
Prednisolone
M. 
Glomerular basement membrane
N. 
Type II collagen
A

H. Type IV collagen

57
Q 
The pattern of the antibody deposition in the glomerular basement membrane is typically described as what?
A. 
Type II Hypersentivity
B. 
Ciclosporin
C. 
Smooth linear pattern
D. 
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
E. 
Lung
F. 
Skin
G. 
Lumpy-bumpy pattern
H. 
Type IV collagen
I. 
Plasmapheresis
J. 
Blood vessels
K. 
Mesangium
L. 
Prednisolone
M. 
Glomerular basement membrane
N. 
Type II collagen
A

C. Smooth linear pattern

58
Q 
Name the drug most likely to be used in the treatment of this disease.
A. 
Type II Hypersentivity
B. 
Ciclosporin
C. 
Smooth linear pattern
D. 
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
E. 
Lung
F. 
Skin
G. 
Lumpy-bumpy pattern
H. 
Type IV collagen
I. 
Plasmapheresis
J. 
Blood vessels
K. 
Mesangium
L. 
Prednisolone
M. 
Glomerular basement membrane
N. 
Type II collagen
A

L. Prednisolone

59
Q 
Immune damage may be associated with the kidney and commonly which other tissue?
A. 
Type II Hypersentivity
B. 
Ciclosporin
C. 
Smooth linear pattern
D. 
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
E. 
Lung
F. 
Skin
G. 
Lumpy-bumpy pattern
H. 
Type IV collagen
I. 
Plasmapheresis
J. 
Blood vessels
K. 
Mesangium
L. 
Prednisolone
M. 
Glomerular basement membrane
N. 
Type II collagen
A

E. Lung

60
Q 
X-Linked Agammaglobulinaemia
A. Chromosome 22q11
B. IL12 gene
C. IL-2 receptor
D. IFN Receptor 1 gene
E. MHC Class II
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. CD3 mutation
I. WASP gene
A

G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene

61
Q 
DiGeorge's Syndrome
A. Chromosome 22q11
B. IL12 gene
C. IL-2 receptor
D. IFN Receptor 1 gene
E. MHC Class II
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. CD3 mutation
I. WASP gene
A

A. Chromosome 22q11

62
Q 
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
A. Chromosome 22q11
B. IL12 gene
C. IL-2 receptor
D. IFN Receptor 1 gene
E. MHC Class II
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. CD3 mutation
I. WASP gene
A

C. IL-2 receptor

63
Q 
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
A. Chromosome 22q11
B. IL12 gene
C. IL-2 receptor
D. IFN Receptor 1 gene
E. MHC Class II
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. CD3 mutation
I. WASP gene
A

I. WASP gene

64
Q 
Bare lymphocyte syndrome
A. Chromosome 22q11
B. IL12 gene
C. IL-2 receptor
D. IFN Receptor 1 gene
E. MHC Class II
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. CD3 mutation
I. WASP gene
A

E. MHC Class II

65
Q 
X-Linked Agammaglobulinaemia
A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) gene
B. IL-2 receptor
C. IL12 gene
D. WASP gene
E. CD3 mutation
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. Chromosome 22q11
I. IFN Receptor 1 gene
J. MHC Class III
A

G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene

66
Q 
DiGeorge’s Syndrome
A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) gene
B. IL-2 receptor
C. IL12 gene
D. WASP gene
E. CD3 mutation
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. Chromosome 22q11
I. IFN Receptor 1 gene
J. MHC Class III
A

H. Chromosome 22q11

67
Q 
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) gene
B. IL-2 receptor
C. IL12 gene
D. WASP gene
E. CD3 mutation
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. Chromosome 22q11
I. IFN Receptor 1 gene
J. MHC Class III
A

B. IL-2 receptor

68
Q 
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) gene
B. IL-2 receptor
C. IL12 gene
D. WASP gene
E. CD3 mutation
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. Chromosome 22q11
I. IFN Receptor 1 gene
J. MHC Class III
A

D. WASP gene

69
Q 
This region encodes C2, C4 and factor B
A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) gene
B. IL-2 receptor
C. IL12 gene
D. WASP gene
E. CD3 mutation
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. Chromosome 22q11
I. IFN Receptor 1 gene
J. MHC Class III
A

J. MHC Class III

70
Q 
Hyper IgM syndrome
A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) gene
B. IL-2 receptor
C. IL12 gene
D. WASP gene
E. CD3 mutation
F. CD40 Ligand gene
G. Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene
H. Chromosome 22q11
I. IFN Receptor 1 gene
J. MHC Class III
A

F. CD40 Ligand gene

71
Q

A 25 year old woman comes to her GP about family planning. She is worried because she had an older brother who died before she was born and her grandmother lost two children which she things were both boys. Her GP thinks there may be a genetic disorder in her family affecting the IL-2 receptor. If correct she has a 50% of inheriting the trait from her mother and being a carrier herself. And there would be a 50% chance of passing it to her children. If inherited, her daughters would be carriers and her sons would require treatment which is usually a bone marrow transplant but gene therapy is sometimes used.
A. TAP deficiency
B. Selective IgA deficency
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
E. Bruton’s X linked hypogammaglobulinaemia
F. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
G. Reticular dysgenesis
H. Common variable immune deficiency
I. DiGeorge syndrome

A

D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

72
Q

A jaundiced 8 month old child presents with failure to thrive, and a history of recurrent infections (viral, bacterial and fungal). On examination there is hepatomegally and blood tests show a raised alk phos and low CD4 count. A defect is found in the proteins that regulate MHC Class II transcription.
A. TAP deficiency
B. Selective IgA deficency
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
E. Bruton’s X linked hypogammaglobulinaemia
F. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
G. Reticular dysgenesis
H. Common variable immune deficiency
I. DiGeorge syndrome

A

F. Bare lymphocyte syndrome

73
Q

Patient X’s GP writes inquiring about whether to vaccinate. The patient suffers from recurrent respiratory tract infections and has been diagnosed with one of the B-cell maturation defects. For which one is immunisation still effective?
A. TAP deficiency
B. Selective IgA deficency
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
E. Bruton’s X linked hypogammaglobulinaemia
F. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
G. Reticular dysgenesis
H. Common variable immune deficiency
I. DiGeorge syndrome

A

B. Selective IgA deficency

74
Q

For which disorder would a bone marrow transplant be unhelpful but a thymic transplant may provide a cure?
A. TAP deficiency
B. Selective IgA deficency
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
E. Bruton’s X linked hypogammaglobulinaemia
F. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
G. Reticular dysgenesis
H. Common variable immune deficiency
I. DiGeorge syndrome

A

I. DiGeorge syndrome

75
Q 
In acute rejection, release of this substance from CD8+ lymphocytes helps kill target cells
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

N. Granzyme B

76
Q 
In acute rejection, these are produced as a result of the activation of neutrophils and macrophages
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

J. Free radicals

77
Q 
A difference in this between host and recipient is the main cause of transplant rejection
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

B. HLA type

78
Q 
Along with anti-HLA antibodies, the most important screen to ensure a match before transplantation
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

K. ABO blood type

79
Q 
Risk factor for chronic allograft rejection
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

I. Hypertension

80
Q 
Transplanting an ABO incompatible kidney will result in \_\_\_ rejection
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

E. Hyperacute

81
Q 
Treatment of acute antibody mediated rejection
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

E. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis

82
Q 
Treatment of acute cell mediated rejection
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

S. High dose corticosteroids

83
Q 
The 3 most important HLA types to screen for in renal transplantation when matching donor and recipient, in order of importance
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

O. HLA DR > B > A

84
Q 
Lymphocyte that responds to foreign HLA DR types
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

G. CD4+ T cells

85
Q 
Lymphocyte that responds to foreign HLA A types
A. Diabetes
B. HLA type
C. Amino acids
D. CD17+ T cells
E. Hyperacute
F. Hypotension
G. CD4+ T cells
H. CD8+ T cells
I. Hypertension
J. Free radicals
K. ABO blood type
L. HLA DR > A > B
M. Interferon gamma
N. Granzyme B
O. HLA DR > B > A
P. Diuretics
Q. HLA A > B > DR
R. IV Immunoglobulins and Plasmapheresis
S. High dose corticosteroids
T. Antibiotics
A

H. CD8+ T cells

86
Q 
Prevents DNA replication especially of T cells
A. Infliximab
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Metolazone
E. Prednisolone
F. Mycophenolate mofetil
G. Gentamicin
H. Cyproterone acetate
I. Perindopril
J. Ribavirin
K. Cyclophosamide
L. Dobutamine
M. Ciclosporin
N. Thyroxine
A

F. Mycophenolate mofetil

87
Q 
Causes a transient increase in neutrophil count
A. Infliximab
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Metolazone
E. Prednisolone
F. Mycophenolate mofetil
G. Gentamicin
H. Cyproterone acetate
I. Perindopril
J. Ribavirin
K. Cyclophosamide
L. Dobutamine
M. Ciclosporin
N. Thyroxine
A

E. Prednisolone

88
Q 
Monoclonal antibodies inhibiting the actions of cytokines
A. Infliximab
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Metolazone
E. Prednisolone
F. Mycophenolate mofetil
G. Gentamicin
H. Cyproterone acetate
I. Perindopril
J. Ribavirin
K. Cyclophosamide
L. Dobutamine
M. Ciclosporin
N. Thyroxine
A

A. Infliximab

89
Q 
Can cause gingival hypertrophy as a side effect
A. Infliximab
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Metolazone
E. Prednisolone
F. Mycophenolate mofetil
G. Gentamicin
H. Cyproterone acetate
I. Perindopril
J. Ribavirin
K. Cyclophosamide
L. Dobutamine
M. Ciclosporin
N. Thyroxine
A

M. Ciclosporin

90
Q 
Administration of this may boost the immune system
A. Infliximab
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Metolazone
E. Prednisolone
F. Mycophenolate mofetil
G. Gentamicin
H. Cyproterone acetate
I. Perindopril
J. Ribavirin
K. Cyclophosamide
L. Dobutamine
M. Ciclosporin
N. Thyroxine
A

B. Immunoglobulins

91
Q 
Corticosteroids, as well as being directly lymphotoxic in high doses, inhibit T-cell function via which other mechanism?
A. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine
B. Influenza type B vaccine
C. Polio vaccine
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
E. Plasmapheresis
F. Bee/wasp venom allergy
G. Tacrolimus
H. Atopic dermatitis
I. Infliximab
J. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
K. Mycophenolate mofetil
L. Blocking cytokine synthesis
M. Bone marrow suppression
A

L. Blocking cytokine synthesis

92
Q 
The antiproliferative drug cyclophosphamide inhibits lymphocyte proliferation by which mechanism?
A. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine
B. Influenza type B vaccine
C. Polio vaccine
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
E. Plasmapheresis
F. Bee/wasp venom allergy
G. Tacrolimus
H. Atopic dermatitis
I. Infliximab
J. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
K. Mycophenolate mofetil
L. Blocking cytokine synthesis
M. Bone marrow suppression
A

J. Inhibition of DNA synthesis

93
Q 
Plasmapheresis may be indicated in which condition?
A. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine
B. Influenza type B vaccine
C. Polio vaccine
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
E. Plasmapheresis
F. Bee/wasp venom allergy
G. Tacrolimus
H. Atopic dermatitis
I. Infliximab
J. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
K. Mycophenolate mofetil
L. Blocking cytokine synthesis
M. Bone marrow suppression
A

D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

94
Q 
Example of a vaccine that should NOT be given to a severely immunocompromised patient
A. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine
B. Influenza type B vaccine
C. Polio vaccine
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
E. Plasmapheresis
F. Bee/wasp venom allergy
G. Tacrolimus
H. Atopic dermatitis
I. Infliximab
J. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
K. Mycophenolate mofetil
L. Blocking cytokine synthesis
M. Bone marrow suppression
A

C. Polio vaccine

95
Q 
A condition where antigen desensitization therapy may be indicated
A. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine
B. Influenza type B vaccine
C. Polio vaccine
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
E. Plasmapheresis
F. Bee/wasp venom allergy
G. Tacrolimus
H. Atopic dermatitis
I. Infliximab
J. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
K. Mycophenolate mofetil
L. Blocking cytokine synthesis
M. Bone marrow suppression
A

F. Bee/wasp venom allergy

96
Q 
Prednisolone
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis and cirrhosis
D. Hair loss
E. Dysrhythmias
F. Hypertension
G. Anorexia
H. Hypertension and reduced GFR
I. Lethargy
J. Ototoxicity
A

F. Hypertension

97
Q 
Ciclosporin
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis and cirrhosis
D. Hair loss
E. Dysrhythmias
F. Hypertension
G. Anorexia
H. Hypertension and reduced GFR
I. Lethargy
J. Ototoxicity
A

H. Hypertension and reduced GFR

98
Q 
Azathioprine
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis and cirrhosis
D. Hair loss
E. Dysrhythmias
F. Hypertension
G. Anorexia
H. Hypertension and reduced GFR
I. Lethargy
J. Ototoxicity
A

B. Bone marrow depression

99
Q 
Methotrexate
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis and cirrhosis
D. Hair loss
E. Dysrhythmias
F. Hypertension
G. Anorexia
H. Hypertension and reduced GFR
I. Lethargy
J. Ototoxicity
A

C. Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis and cirrhosis

100
Q 
Immunoglobulin
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis and cirrhosis
D. Hair loss
E. Dysrhythmias
F. Hypertension
G. Anorexia
H. Hypertension and reduced GFR
I. Lethargy
J. Ototoxicity
A

A. Anaphylaxis

101
Q 
A sub-unit/conjugate vaccine
A. pneumococcal vaccine
B. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
C. tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Whole cell typhoid vaccine
F. BCG vaccine
G. oral poliomyelitis vaccine
H. Hib vaccine
A

A. pneumococcal vaccine

102
Q 
A live attenuated viral vaccine
A. pneumococcal vaccine
B. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
C. tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Whole cell typhoid vaccine
F. BCG vaccine
G. oral poliomyelitis vaccine
H. Hib vaccine
A

G. oral poliomyelitis vaccine

103
Q 
Inactivated preparations of the bacteria
A. pneumococcal vaccine
B. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
C. tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Whole cell typhoid vaccine
F. BCG vaccine
G. oral poliomyelitis vaccine
H. Hib vaccine
A

E. Whole cell typhoid vaccine

104
Q 
Extracts of or detoxified exotoxin product by a micro-organism
A. pneumococcal vaccine
B. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
C. tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Whole cell typhoid vaccine
F. BCG vaccine
G. oral poliomyelitis vaccine
H. Hib vaccine
A

C. tetanus vaccine

105
Q 
Vaccine that is made using recombinant DNA technology
A. pneumococcal vaccine
B. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
C. tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Whole cell typhoid vaccine
F. BCG vaccine
G. oral poliomyelitis vaccine
H. Hib vaccine
A

B. Hepatitis B virus vaccine

106
Q 
An antigen assembled in a multimeric form and saponin that provokes a strong serum antibody response.
A. CpG sites
B. Adjuvant
C. Rubella vaccine
D. IFN gamma
E. Yellow fever vaccine
F. Rabies vaccine
G. Immunostimulatory complexes (ISCOMS)
H. IL2
I. Perforin
J. Effector memory
K. MMR vaccine
L. Typhoid vaccine
M. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
A

G. Immunostimulatory complexes (ISCOMS)

107
Q 
The general name for a compound which increases the immune response without altering its specificity.
A. CpG sites
B. Adjuvant
C. Rubella vaccine
D. IFN gamma
E. Yellow fever vaccine
F. Rabies vaccine
G. Immunostimulatory complexes (ISCOMS)
H. IL2
I. Perforin
J. Effector memory
K. MMR vaccine
L. Typhoid vaccine
M. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
A

B. Adjuvant

108
Q 
A freeze dried live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis.
A. CpG sites
B. Adjuvant
C. Rubella vaccine
D. IFN gamma
E. Yellow fever vaccine
F. Rabies vaccine
G. Immunostimulatory complexes (ISCOMS)
H. IL2
I. Perforin
J. Effector memory
K. MMR vaccine
L. Typhoid vaccine
M. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
A

M. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin

109
Q 
A vaccine given only to sero-negative women
A. CpG sites
B. Adjuvant
C. Rubella vaccine
D. IFN gamma
E. Yellow fever vaccine
F. Rabies vaccine
G. Immunostimulatory complexes (ISCOMS)
H. IL2
I. Perforin
J. Effector memory
K. MMR vaccine
L. Typhoid vaccine
M. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
A

C. Rubella vaccine

110
Q 
A feature of immunological central memory
A. CpG sites
B. Adjuvant
C. Rubella vaccine
D. IFN gamma
E. Yellow fever vaccine
F. Rabies vaccine
G. Immunostimulatory complexes (ISCOMS)
H. IL2
I. Perforin
J. Effector memory
K. MMR vaccine
L. Typhoid vaccine
M. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
A

H. IL2

111
Q 
Which type of vaccine generally achieves immunisation with a single dose and is not suitable for pregnant and immunocompromised patients?
A. Live attenuated
B. Varicella-zoster vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Inactivated
F. Typhoid vaccine
G. Diptheria vaccine
H. Influenza vaccine
I. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
J. Smallpox vaccine
K. Mycobacterium bovis
L. MMR vaccine
M. Poliomyelitis vaccine
A

A. Live attenuated

112
Q 
Which vaccine is usually given to children at 12-15 months?
A. Live attenuated
B. Varicella-zoster vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Inactivated
F. Typhoid vaccine
G. Diptheria vaccine
H. Influenza vaccine
I. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
J. Smallpox vaccine
K. Mycobacterium bovis
L. MMR vaccine
M. Poliomyelitis vaccine
A

L. MMR vaccine

113
Q 
Which vaccine is normally given to infants under the age of 13 months in the form of three doses at monthly intervals to protect against an infection that has symptoms similar to meningitis and predominantly occurs in children < 5 years?
A. Live attenuated
B. Varicella-zoster vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Inactivated
F. Typhoid vaccine
G. Diptheria vaccine
H. Influenza vaccine
I. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
J. Smallpox vaccine
K. Mycobacterium bovis
L. MMR vaccine
M. Poliomyelitis vaccine
A

I. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine

114
Q 
Which live attenuated organism do BCG vaccines contain?
A. Live attenuated
B. Varicella-zoster vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Inactivated
F. Typhoid vaccine
G. Diptheria vaccine
H. Influenza vaccine
I. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
J. Smallpox vaccine
K. Mycobacterium bovis
L. MMR vaccine
M. Poliomyelitis vaccine
A

K. Mycobacterium bovis

115
Q 
Which vaccine is available in both live attenuated (oral) and inactivated forms and has successfully eradicated its disease in several countries?
A. Live attenuated
B. Varicella-zoster vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Inactivated
F. Typhoid vaccine
G. Diptheria vaccine
H. Influenza vaccine
I. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
J. Smallpox vaccine
K. Mycobacterium bovis
L. MMR vaccine
M. Poliomyelitis vaccine
A

M. Poliomyelitis vaccine

116
Q 
Conjugate vaccine routinely given to neonates in the UK.
A. MMR
B. BCG
C. HBV
D. Varicella zoster
E. Polio (Salk)
F. Influenza
G. Alum
H. H. influenzae B
I. Rabies
J. Meningococcal A
K. Polio (Sabin)
L. CpG
M. Typhoid
N. Freund's
O. IL-2
P. Tetanus
A

H. H. influenzae B

117
Q 
Agent used in humans that promotes a predominantly antibody response through the release of Il-4 that primes naïve B-cells.
A. MMR
B. BCG
C. HBV
D. Varicella zoster
E. Polio (Salk)
F. Influenza
G. Alum
H. H. influenzae B
I. Rabies
J. Meningococcal A
K. Polio (Sabin)
L. CpG
M. Typhoid
N. Freund's
O. IL-2
P. Tetanus
A

G. Alum

118
Q 
Diploid cell vaccine containing inactivated virus given before or after exposure to those considered at risk.
A. MMR
B. BCG
C. HBV
D. Varicella zoster
E. Polio (Salk)
F. Influenza
G. Alum
H. H. influenzae B
I. Rabies
J. Meningococcal A
K. Polio (Sabin)
L. CpG
M. Typhoid
N. Freund's
O. IL-2
P. Tetanus
A

I. Rabies

119
Q 
Live attenuated vaccine that is no longer given as standard in the UK since the rates of reverse mutation are higher than those of active disease.
A. MMR
B. BCG
C. HBV
D. Varicella zoster
E. Polio (Salk)
F. Influenza
G. Alum
H. H. influenzae B
I. Rabies
J. Meningococcal A
K. Polio (Sabin)
L. CpG
M. Typhoid
N. Freund's
O. IL-2
P. Tetanus
A

K. Polio (Sabin)

120
Q 
Subunit vaccine given to the elderly and immunocompromised
A. MMR
B. BCG
C. HBV
D. Varicella zoster
E. Polio (Salk)
F. Influenza
G. Alum
H. H. influenzae B
I. Rabies
J. Meningococcal A
K. Polio (Sabin)
L. CpG
M. Typhoid
N. Freund's
O. IL-2
P. Tetanus
A

F. Influenza

121
Q 
Mantoux test is positive following this vaccination.
A. BCG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Mumps vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
E. Polio vaccine
F. Influenza vaccine
G. Tetanus vaccine
H. Hepatitis A vaccine
I. Rabies vaccine
J. Diptheria vaccine
K. HIB vaccine
A

A. BCG

122
Q 
Vaccination with which of the above prevents a gram negative rod meningitis typically affecting children below 4 years of age?
A. BCG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Mumps vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
E. Polio vaccine
F. Influenza vaccine
G. Tetanus vaccine
H. Hepatitis A vaccine
I. Rabies vaccine
J. Diptheria vaccine
K. HIB vaccine
A

K. HIB vaccine

123
Q 
Which is recommended in all individuals over 65 years of age?
A. BCG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Mumps vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
E. Polio vaccine
F. Influenza vaccine
G. Tetanus vaccine
H. Hepatitis A vaccine
I. Rabies vaccine
J. Diptheria vaccine
K. HIB vaccine
A

F. Influenza vaccine

124
Q 
Sterility in adult males may occur if a particular vaccine is not administered. Which one is it?
A. BCG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Mumps vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
E. Polio vaccine
F. Influenza vaccine
G. Tetanus vaccine
H. Hepatitis A vaccine
I. Rabies vaccine
J. Diptheria vaccine
K. HIB vaccine
A

C. Mumps vaccine

125
Q 
Which vaccine is given to the mother to prevent congenital cardiac defects, eye lesions (particularly cataracts), microcephaly, mental handicap and deafness of her newborn baby?
A. BCG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Mumps vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
E. Polio vaccine
F. Influenza vaccine
G. Tetanus vaccine
H. Hepatitis A vaccine
I. Rabies vaccine
J. Diptheria vaccine
K. HIB vaccine
A

B. Rubella vaccine

126
Q 
A conjugate vaccine
A. Oral poliomyelitis vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine
F. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
G. Meningococcal A vaccine
A

E. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine

127
Q 
Inactivated vaccine
A. Oral poliomyelitis vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine
F. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
G. Meningococcal A vaccine
A

D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine

128
Q 
A recombinant protein vaccine
A. Oral poliomyelitis vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine
F. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
G. Meningococcal A vaccine
A

F. Hepatitis B virus vaccine

129
Q 
Extracts of or detoxified exotoxin product by a micro-organism
A. Oral poliomyelitis vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine
F. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
G. Meningococcal A vaccine
A

C. Tetanus vaccine

130
Q 
Excreted in the stools of immunised individuals
A. Oral poliomyelitis vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. Tetanus vaccine
D. Hepatitis A virus vaccine
E. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine
F. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
G. Meningococcal A vaccine
A

A. Oral poliomyelitis vaccine

131
Q 
A water-in-oil emulsion containing mycobacterial cell wall components that could be used to increase the immune response of a vaccine.
A. Mantoux
B. Inactivated
C. Polio
D. Alum
E. Passive immunity
F. Conjugate
G. Menigococcal
H. HBV
I. Freund's adjuvant
J. IL-12
K. HAV
L. Typhoid
M. MMR
N. Active immunity
O. Live attenuated
A

I. Freund’s adjuvant

132
Q 
This type of vaccine activates all phases of the immune response, has the most durable immunity and is the most cross-reactive.
A. Mantoux
B. Inactivated
C. Polio
D. Alum
E. Passive immunity
F. Conjugate
G. Menigococcal
H. HBV
I. Freund's adjuvant
J. IL-12
K. HAV
L. Typhoid
M. MMR
N. Active immunity
O. Live attenuated
A

O. Live attenuated

133
Q 
This test measures the immune response to the BCG vaccine.
A. Mantoux
B. Inactivated
C. Polio
D. Alum
E. Passive immunity
F. Conjugate
G. Menigococcal
H. HBV
I. Freund's adjuvant
J. IL-12
K. HAV
L. Typhoid
M. MMR
N. Active immunity
O. Live attenuated
A

A. Mantoux

134
Q 
This is a vaccine made of recombinant protein.
A. Mantoux
B. Inactivated
C. Polio
D. Alum
E. Passive immunity
F. Conjugate
G. Menigococcal
H. HBV
I. Freund's adjuvant
J. IL-12
K. HAV
L. Typhoid
M. MMR
N. Active immunity
O. Live attenuated
A

H. HBV

135
Q 
This form of immunity is induced by vaccination
A. Mantoux
B. Inactivated
C. Polio
D. Alum
E. Passive immunity
F. Conjugate
G. Menigococcal
H. HBV
I. Freund's adjuvant
J. IL-12
K. HAV
L. Typhoid
M. MMR
N. Active immunity
O. Live attenuated
A

N. Active immunity

Path (3 decks)

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