Haematology Flashcards

1
Q
The most important cell in the initiation of normal haemostasis.
A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin III
C. Thromboxane A2
D. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
E. Cycloxygenase
F. a2 macroglobulin
G. Fibrin
H. Platelet
I. Endothelial cell
J. Erythrocyte
K. Fibrinogen
L. Plasmin
M. Megakaryocyte
A

I. Endothelial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
The main component involved in stabilising the primary haemostatic plug.
A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin III
C. Thromboxane A2
D. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
E. Cycloxygenase
F. a2 macroglobulin
G. Fibrin
H. Platelet
I. Endothelial cell
J. Erythrocyte
K. Fibrinogen
L. Plasmin
M. Megakaryocyte
A

G. Fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A serine protease which assists in the break down of blood clots by binding to the clot and localising agents which break it down.
A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin III
C. Thromboxane A2
D. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
E. Cycloxygenase
F. a2 macroglobulin
G. Fibrin
H. Platelet
I. Endothelial cell
J. Erythrocyte
K. Fibrinogen
L. Plasmin
M. Megakaryocyte
A

D. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A potent inhibitor of plasmin in the blood.
A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin III
C. Thromboxane A2
D. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
E. Cycloxygenase
F. a2 macroglobulin
G. Fibrin
H. Platelet
I. Endothelial cell
J. Erythrocyte
K. Fibrinogen
L. Plasmin
M. Megakaryocyte
A

F. a2 macroglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A single chain glycoprotein, synthesised by the liver and endothelium, which has strongly anticoagulant action and is important in the mode of action of heparin.
A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin III
C. Thromboxane A2
D. Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)
E. Cycloxygenase
F. a2 macroglobulin
G. Fibrin
H. Platelet
I. Endothelial cell
J. Erythrocyte
K. Fibrinogen
L. Plasmin
M. Megakaryocyte
A

B. Antithrombin III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
This product of the cyclic endoperoxides induces platelet aggregation
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Thromboxane A2
E. von Willebrand deficiency
F. Factor VIII deficiency
G. Vitamin K deficiency
H. Haemophilia
I. Sensitised platelet
J. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
K. Christmas disease
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Factor XII deficiency
A

D. Thromboxane A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A 6 foot 7 inch rower presents to his GP complaining of easy skin bruising. On further examination he is found to have pectus excavatum, lax joints and a high-arched palate.
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Thromboxane A2
E. von Willebrand deficiency
F. Factor VIII deficiency
G. Vitamin K deficiency
H. Haemophilia
I. Sensitised platelet
J. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
K. Christmas disease
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Factor XII deficiency
A

A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A 62 year old overweight woman presents to the Emergency Department following a Road Traffic Accident. A full set of investigations is carried out – which shows an increased Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) and Prothrombin Time (PT)
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Thromboxane A2
E. von Willebrand deficiency
F. Factor VIII deficiency
G. Vitamin K deficiency
H. Haemophilia
I. Sensitised platelet
J. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
K. Christmas disease
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Factor XII deficiency
A

G. Vitamin K deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A 25 year old man presents to the Emergency Department a day after attending his dentist for a routine check-up. After treatment at the dentists the previous day, his gums had not stopped bleeding. On investigation, his APTT and bleeding time are prolonged but a normal PT.
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Thromboxane A2
E. von Willebrand deficiency
F. Factor VIII deficiency
G. Vitamin K deficiency
H. Haemophilia
I. Sensitised platelet
J. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
K. Christmas disease
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Factor XII deficiency
A

E. von Willebrand deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A 16 year old girl presents to the Haematology Outpatients clinic describing a fluctuating history of easy bruising, epistaxis and menorrhagia. On investigation there is a thrombocytopaenia with increased megakaryocytes on BM examination.
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Thromboxane A2
E. von Willebrand deficiency
F. Factor VIII deficiency
G. Vitamin K deficiency
H. Haemophilia
I. Sensitised platelet
J. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
K. Christmas disease
L. Prostacyclin PGI2
M. Factor XII deficiency
A

J. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Which protein, important in haemostasis, is vitamin K dependent but is not a serine protease?
A. Protein C
B. Arichidonic acid
C. Protein S
D. Activated factor X
E. Thrombin
F. Factor VII
G. Cyclooxygenase
H. Tissue factor
I. Vascular subendothelium
J. Platelets
K. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
L. Vascular endothelium
A

C. Protein S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Which option is required as a cofactor for protein C activity?
A. Protein C
B. Arichidonic acid
C. Protein S
D. Activated factor X
E. Thrombin
F. Factor VII
G. Cyclooxygenase
H. Tissue factor
I. Vascular subendothelium
J. Platelets
K. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
L. Vascular endothelium
A

C. Protein S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Which option synthesises tissue factor, vWF, prostacyclin, plasminogen activator, antithrombin III and thrombomodulin?
A. Protein C
B. Arichidonic acid
C. Protein S
D. Activated factor X
E. Thrombin
F. Factor VII
G. Cyclooxygenase
H. Tissue factor
I. Vascular subendothelium
J. Platelets
K. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
L. Vascular endothelium
A

L. Vascular endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Which enzyme, important for platelet aggregation, is irreversibly inhibited by aspirin?
A. Protein C
B. Arichidonic acid
C. Protein S
D. Activated factor X
E. Thrombin
F. Factor VII
G. Cyclooxygenase
H. Tissue factor
I. Vascular subendothelium
J. Platelets
K. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
L. Vascular endothelium
A

G. Cyclooxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Which key clotting factor activates both factors V and VIII, and also activates protein C?
A. Protein C
B. Arichidonic acid
C. Protein S
D. Activated factor X
E. Thrombin
F. Factor VII
G. Cyclooxygenase
H. Tissue factor
I. Vascular subendothelium
J. Platelets
K. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
L. Vascular endothelium
A

E. Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A 37 year old mother of 4 children, presents to her GP because of recurrent nose bleeds and feeling tired all the time and heavy periods.
A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
B. B-Thalassaemia
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Factor V Leiden
E. Christmas Disease
F. Haemophilia A
G. Malignancy
H. Bile acid malabsorption
I. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
J. Vitamin K Deficiency
K. Warfarin overdose
L. Sickle cell anaemia
M. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
N. Von Willebrand’s Disease
A

A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A 3 year old boy is brought to see his GP by his mother. A fortnight ago he had been brought along because of cold-like symptoms, unsurprising since it was the middle of winter and he attends nursery. He was therefore sent home with some Calpol, and as expected his symptoms soon resolved. However this morning his mother noticed a rash on his bottom, and he said his tummy ached.
A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
B. B-Thalassaemia
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Factor V Leiden
E. Christmas Disease
F. Haemophilia A
G. Malignancy
H. Bile acid malabsorption
I. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
J. Vitamin K Deficiency
K. Warfarin overdose
L. Sickle cell anaemia
M. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
N. Von Willebrand’s Disease
A

I. Henoch-Schonlein purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
22 year old Saharawi refugee presents with anaemia, weight loss, loose stools and blood tests reveal an increased PT and slightly increased APTT, with normal thrombin time and platelet count.
A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
B. B-Thalassaemia
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Factor V Leiden
E. Christmas Disease
F. Haemophilia A
G. Malignancy
H. Bile acid malabsorption
I. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
J. Vitamin K Deficiency
K. Warfarin overdose
L. Sickle cell anaemia
M. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
N. Von Willebrand’s Disease
A

J. Vitamin K deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A 5 year old boy has the following blood results: normal PT, increased APTT, normal platelet count, decreased VIII:C and decreased vWF.
A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
B. B-Thalassaemia
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Factor V Leiden
E. Christmas Disease
F. Haemophilia A
G. Malignancy
H. Bile acid malabsorption
I. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
J. Vitamin K Deficiency
K. Warfarin overdose
L. Sickle cell anaemia
M. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
N. Von Willebrand’s Disease
A

N. Von Willebrand’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A 32 week pregnant lady who has gestational diabetes and is epileptic has a caesarean section while on holiday in rural China. Her newborn baby is suffering from bleeding from the umbilical stump, as well as nose and gums. What is wrong with the baby?
A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
B. B-Thalassaemia
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Factor V Leiden
E. Christmas Disease
F. Haemophilia A
G. Malignancy
H. Bile acid malabsorption
I. Henoch – Schönlein Purpura
J. Vitamin K Deficiency
K. Warfarin overdose
L. Sickle cell anaemia
M. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
N. Von Willebrand’s Disease
A

J. Vitamin K deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A fit 48-year-old investment banker presents to A&E with a painful R arm that was present when he woke up that morning. He is otherwise well and there is no history of trauma or abnormalities of any system. On examination there is marked tenderness and mild erythema along the anterolateral aspect of the forearm and cubital fossa, with no abnormality of the upper arm or axilla.
A. Superficial venous thrombosis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Axillary vein thrombosis
D. Superior vena caval obstruction
E. Varicose veins
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. DIC
H. Inferior vena caval obstruction
I. Pulmonary embolism
J. Postphlebitic syndrome
A

A. Superficial venous thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A 45-year-old lady, known heavy smoker with chronic respiratory problems, presents to her GP with increasing dyspnoea and swelling of her R arm and face. On examination of her chest there is no asymmetry or tracheal deviation, but there are added sounds over the R upper lobe and on bending forward her face becomes congested.
A. Superficial venous thrombosis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Axillary vein thrombosis
D. Superior vena caval obstruction
E. Varicose veins
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. DIC
H. Inferior vena caval obstruction
I. Pulmonary embolism
J. Postphlebitic syndrome
A

D. Superior vena caval obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A 56-year-old woman returns to the Vascular Clinic with recurrence of her L leg ulcer after the area has been knocked by a shopping trolley. On examination the ulcer is situated above the medial malleolus, its dimensions being 6cm x 5cm. The base is filled with yellowish slough and the surrounding area is erythematous, with prominent oedema.
A. Superficial venous thrombosis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Axillary vein thrombosis
D. Superior vena caval obstruction
E. Varicose veins
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. DIC
H. Inferior vena caval obstruction
I. Pulmonary embolism
J. Postphlebitic syndrome
A

J. Postphlebitic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A 48-year-old man develops R-sided pleuritic chest pain and coughs up a trace of bloodstained sputum 8 days after a R hemicolectomy. He has mild dyspnoea but chest examination and chest radiography are normal.
A. Superficial venous thrombosis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Axillary vein thrombosis
D. Superior vena caval obstruction
E. Varicose veins
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. DIC
H. Inferior vena caval obstruction
I. Pulmonary embolism
J. Postphlebitic syndrome
A

I. Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A 32-year-old lady develops acute swelling of her L leg 2 days post-partum. She had bilateral leg swelling during the pregnancy but the delivery was normal. On examination there is tense swelling of the leg and thigh and some deep tenderness over the calf and medial aspect of the thigh.
A. Superficial venous thrombosis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Axillary vein thrombosis
D. Superior vena caval obstruction
E. Varicose veins
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. DIC
H. Inferior vena caval obstruction
I. Pulmonary embolism
J. Postphlebitic syndrome
A

F. Deep vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A drug that is administered intravenously and has a rapid effect by potentiating the action of antithrombin. Action can be reversed quickly which is of relevance in myocardial infarction patients who may require early invasive treatment (ie PTCA).
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
Potentiates antithrombin III. Usually given subcutaneously. Can cause osteoporosis and hyperkalaemia.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

B. Dalteparin (LMWH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
Used to monitor patients undergoing warfarin therapy.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

A. Prothrombin time (PT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
Used to monitor patients undergoing unfractionated heparin therapy.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

F. APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
This anticoagulant drug is directly contraindicated in pregnancy, especially the first 16 and last 4 weeks of a 40 week gestation.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

N. Warfarin

31
Q
Reflects the amount and activity of fibrinogen.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

H. Thrombin time (TT)

32
Q
Antiplatelet action. Indicated for primary prophylaxis of stroke in a patient experiencing recurrent retinal TIAs (amaurosis fugax). Ineffective for DVT prophylaxis.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

I. Aspirin

33
Q
Antiplatelet action. Licensed for secondary prophylaxis of stroke. More effective than aspirin alone. Cheap.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

D. Dipyradamole modified release (MR) and aspirin

34
Q
Antiplatelet action. Licensed for primary prevention of stroke in aspirin allergic patients, secondary prevention of stroke (but expensive) and in acute myocardial infarction in addition to aspirin.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

G. Clopidogrel

35
Q
Dangerous combination with no added efficacy and increased GI bleed.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

C. Clopidogrel and aspirin

36
Q
Old model of starting warfarin
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days

37
Q
New (recommended, Tait) model of starting warfarin
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days

38
Q
In patients with metallic heart valves, this drug is the most effective anticoagulant
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

N. Warfarin

39
Q
In patients with cancer and acute venous thromboembolism, the most effective drug at reducing the risk of recurrent VTE is \_\_?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

B. Dalteparin (LMWH)

40
Q
This drug when given alone initially increases the clotting risk
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

N. Warfarin

41
Q
Side effects include cutaneous necrosis
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

N. Warfarin

42
Q
The drug most likely to cause thrombocytopaenia with paradoxical thrombosis
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

43
Q
Indicated as thrombotic prophylaxis in DIC
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

B. Dalteparin (LMWH)

44
Q
Contra-indicated if recent sore throat, if ever used before, or in the presence of proliferative retinopathy.
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Dalteparin (LMWH)
C. Clopidogrel and aspirin
D. Dipyridamole modified release (MR) and aspirin
E. Calciparone
F. APTT
G. Clopidogrel
H. Thrombin time (TT)
I. Aspirin
J. 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, 5mg, measure on 5th day, 8th day and then every 4 days
K. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
L. Streptokinase
M. 10mg, 10mg, 5mg, measure on 4th day then every 2 days
N. Warfarin
O. LMWH and aspirin
P. Pentapolysaccharide
A

L. Streptokinase

45
Q

A 65 year old patient presents with hepatosplenomegaly. He is mildly anaemic and thrombocytompenic. A blood monocyte count of 1.2 x 109/l is observed. Bone marrow aspirate reveals ring sideroblasts at 15% of total blasts. Auer rods are observed.
A. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
B. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
C. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
D. Aplastic Anaemia
E. Refractory anaemia
F. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
G. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
H. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
I. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
J. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
K. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia

A

K. Chronic Myelomonocytic anaemia

46
Q

An alcoholic presents to your clinic with anaemia. Sideroblasts are observed on morphological examination.
A. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
B. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
C. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
D. Aplastic Anaemia
E. Refractory anaemia
F. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
G. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
H. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
I. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
J. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
K. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia

A

A, Secondary sideroblastic anaemia

47
Q

A 58 year old lady complains of lethargy and “easy bruising”. She presents with purpura. Her FBC reveals Hb 10.5g/dl; WBCs 2.3x109/l and platelets 8x109/l. Blood film reveals <1% Blasts, and marrow aspirate shows 20% dysplasia in erythroid lineage, 60% dysplasia in platelet lineage, 5% dysplasia in granulocyte lineage, and less than 5% blasts.
A. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
B. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
C. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
D. Aplastic Anaemia
E. Refractory anaemia
F. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
G. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
H. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
I. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
J. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
K. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia

A

C. Refractory cytopaenia with multilineage dysplasia

48
Q

A 78 year old male patient with recurring infections of the face and maxillary sinuses associated with neutropenia. His bloods are: Hb 9.8 g/dl; WBC 1.3x109/l; Neutrophils 0.3x109/l; platelets 38x109/l.The lab informs you that there are Blasts approximately compromise 17% of bone marrow aspirate.
A. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
B. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
C. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
D. Aplastic Anaemia
E. Refractory anaemia
F. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
G. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
H. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
I. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
J. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
K. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia

A

I. Refractory anaemia with excess of blasts II

49
Q

You are called to A&E to see a 65 year old man. He is complaining of fever, shortness of breath, and has lost 5Kg in the last few months. His notes say he was previously diagnosed with “Refractory Anaemia with excess Blasts in Transformation” (RAEB-t). His blast cell count is approximately 30% of all nucleated cells.
A. Secondary Sideroblastic Anaemia
B. Refractory Anaemia with Ring Sideroblasts
C. Refractory Cytopaenia with Multilineage Dysplasia
D. Aplastic Anaemia
E. Refractory anaemia
F. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
G. Myelodysplastic syndrome associated with isolated del(5q) chromosome abnormality (5q syndrome)
H. Myelodysplastic syndrome,unclassifiable
I. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts II
J. Refractory Anaemia with excess of Blasts I
K. Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia

A

F. Acute myeloid leukaemia

50
Q

A 34 year old man with peripheral cytopenia suffers from bleeding gums. Peripheral blood shows 5% blast cells and bone marrow 42% blast cells.
A. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
B. Acute myeloid leukaemia
C. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
D. Refractory anaemia
E. 5q syndrome
F. Myelofibrosis
G. Inherited aplastic anaemia
H. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
I. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
J. Secondary aplastic anaemia

A

B. Acute myeloid leukaemia

51
Q

A 74 year old woman with high-normal platelet count. Bone marrow aspirate shows hyperplasia of hypolobulated micromegakaryocytes. Responds well to lenalidomide.

A

E. 5q syndrome

52
Q

A 20 year old man with hepatitis C complains of fatigue and breathlessness and bruises very easily.
A. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
B. Acute myeloid leukaemia
C. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
D. Refractory anaemia
E. 5q syndrome
F. Myelofibrosis
G. Inherited aplastic anaemia
H. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
I. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
J. Secondary aplastic anaemia

A

J. Secondary aplastic anaemia

53
Q

This patients blood film shows classic Pelger-Huet neutrophils and bone marrow blasts make up 15% of cells.
A. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
B. Acute myeloid leukaemia
C. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
D. Refractory anaemia
E. 5q syndrome
F. Myelofibrosis
G. Inherited aplastic anaemia
H. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
I. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
J. Secondary aplastic anaemia

A

H. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts

54
Q

In this case haemoglobin is normal but there is a reduction in platelets and neutrophils
A. Idiopathic aplastic anaemia
B. Acute myeloid leukaemia
C. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia
D. Refractory anaemia
E. 5q syndrome
F. Myelofibrosis
G. Inherited aplastic anaemia
H. Refractory anaemia with an excess of blasts
I. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
J. Secondary aplastic anaemia

A

I. Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia

55
Q
A 64 year old man complains of headaches, fatigue and itchy skin, particularly evident after a hot bath. He has a long-standing history of alcohol abuse and drug history reveals that he taking thiazide diuretics. On examination, you note that he is thin with sunken eyes.
A. Polycythaemia vera
B. Tear drop poikilocytes
C. Microcytosis
D. Venesection
E. Chlorambucil
F. Imitanib
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. Essential thrombocythaemia
I. Melphalan
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Splenomegaly
L. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
M. Haematocrit
N. Hydroxycarbamide
O. Pseudopolycythaemia
P. Erythropoeitin
A

O. Pseudopolycythaemia

56
Q
A 55 year old female has a past medical history of deep vein thrombosis. She also complains of easy bruising. Her platelet count is 770 x109/L, CRP is 4mg/L. You prescribe aspirin.
A. Polycythaemia vera
B. Tear drop poikilocytes
C. Microcytosis
D. Venesection
E. Chlorambucil
F. Imitanib
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. Essential thrombocythaemia
I. Melphalan
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Splenomegaly
L. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
M. Haematocrit
N. Hydroxycarbamide
O. Pseudopolycythaemia
P. Erythropoeitin
A

H. Essential thrombocythaemia

57
Q
A 53 year old man goes to see his doctor about an embarrassing problem. It seems that his friends have nicknamed him ‘Rudolph’. You seem quite confused, but all becomes apparent when he points to his nose, which appears red. After further questioning, he describes a ‘burning’ sensation on his nose, hands and feet and visual disturbances. You send him for ‘blood tests’. What do you expect to be raised?
A. Polycythaemia vera
B. Tear drop poikilocytes
C. Microcytosis
D. Venesection
E. Chlorambucil
F. Imitanib
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. Essential thrombocythaemia
I. Melphalan
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Splenomegaly
L. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
M. Haematocrit
N. Hydroxycarbamide
O. Pseudopolycythaemia
P. Erythropoeitin
A

M. Haematocrit

58
Q
A consultant grills you on a ward round: there is a patient with a WBC of 140 x109/L, Hb 12 g/dL, Platelet count 320 x109/L. She complains of tiredness, night sweats, fever and abdominal pain. Her spleen is markedly enlarged. Blood film shows blasts, neutrophils, basophils. How would you treat her?
A. Polycythaemia vera
B. Tear drop poikilocytes
C. Microcytosis
D. Venesection
E. Chlorambucil
F. Imitanib
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. Essential thrombocythaemia
I. Melphalan
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Splenomegaly
L. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
M. Haematocrit
N. Hydroxycarbamide
O. Pseudopolycythaemia
P. Erythropoeitin
A

F. Imitanib

59
Q
You are asked to see a 76 year old man on the wards, who presented with fatigue, dyspnoea, bleeding gums and nightsweats. His abdomen is massively enlarged. You read his notes and find ‘bone marrow aspirate: ‘dry tap’. What would you expect to see on the blood film?
A. Polycythaemia vera
B. Tear drop poikilocytes
C. Microcytosis
D. Venesection
E. Chlorambucil
F. Imitanib
G. Acute myeloid leukaemia
H. Essential thrombocythaemia
I. Melphalan
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Splenomegaly
L. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
M. Haematocrit
N. Hydroxycarbamide
O. Pseudopolycythaemia
P. Erythropoeitin
A

B. Tear drop poikilocytes

60
Q
A 64-year old woman receiving long-term chemotherapy for lymphoma presents with worsening bone pain, recurrent fever and night sweats. Blood film shows blast cells with Auer rods.
A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Richter's syndrome
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Lung fibrosis
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Hairy cell leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Acute myeloid leukaemia
K. Bronchial carcinoma
L. Tumour-lysis syndrome
M. Septicaemia
N. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
A

J. Acute myeloid leukaemia

61
Q
A 61-year-old man with CLL presents with recurrent pneumonia and haemoptysis. On fibreoptic bronchoscopy, the patient is found to have an endobronchial mass. The biopsy shows anaplastic, large cell lymphoma.
A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Richter's syndrome
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Lung fibrosis
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Hairy cell leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Acute myeloid leukaemia
K. Bronchial carcinoma
L. Tumour-lysis syndrome
M. Septicaemia
N. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
A

B. Richter’s syndrome

62
Q
A newly diagnosed ALL patient complains of tiredness, polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain and vomiting on receiving chemotherapy. On examination, BP: 160/100mmHg, temp: 39ºC, and ECG shows tented T waves. Blood test shows serum K+: 6.9mmol/L and phosphate: 7.1 mmol/L. The patient later dies of cardiac arrest.
A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Richter's syndrome
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Lung fibrosis
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Hairy cell leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Acute myeloid leukaemia
K. Bronchial carcinoma
L. Tumour-lysis syndrome
M. Septicaemia
N. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
A

L. Tumour lysis syndrome

63
Q
A routine medical of 33-year-old footballer reveals: Hb = 9.9g/dl and WCC = 130 x 109/L. His blood film shows whole spectrum of myeloid precursors, including a few blast cells. He admits to having frequent night sweats and blurred vision. There is a presence of Ph chromosome t(9;22) on cytogenetic analysis.
A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Richter's syndrome
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Lung fibrosis
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Hairy cell leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Acute myeloid leukaemia
K. Bronchial carcinoma
L. Tumour-lysis syndrome
M. Septicaemia
N. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
A

F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia

64
Q
A 5-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive, recurrent fever and bruising. Immunotyping reveals the presence of CD10.
A. Vincristine poisoning
B. Richter's syndrome
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Lung fibrosis
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Hairy cell leukaemia
H. DIC
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Acute myeloid leukaemia
K. Bronchial carcinoma
L. Tumour-lysis syndrome
M. Septicaemia
N. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
A

D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

65
Q
A 6-year-old boy presents with bone pain. On examination you notice he looks pale and has many bruises. What is his diagnosis?
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Ionising radiation
F. Marfan’s syndrome
G. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Blast cells
I. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Magnesium exposure
L. Acute myeloid leukaemia
M. Thalassaemia
A

G. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia

66
Q
A patient has acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. A bone marrow biopsy will show infiltration by which cells?
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Ionising radiation
F. Marfan’s syndrome
G. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Blast cells
I. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Magnesium exposure
L. Acute myeloid leukaemia
M. Thalassaemia
A

H. Blast cells

67
Q
Patients with this inherited disorder have an increased risk of developing acute leukaemia.
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Ionising radiation
F. Marfan’s syndrome
G. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Blast cells
I. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Magnesium exposure
L. Acute myeloid leukaemia
M. Thalassaemia
A

A. Down’s syndrome

68
Q
An environmental factor associated with acute leukaemia.
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Ionising radiation
F. Marfan’s syndrome
G. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Blast cells
I. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Magnesium exposure
L. Acute myeloid leukaemia
M. Thalassaemia
A

E. Ionising radiation

69
Q
The commonest adult leukaemia
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Ionising radiation
F. Marfan’s syndrome
G. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Blast cells
I. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
J. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
K. Magnesium exposure
L. Acute myeloid leukaemia
M. Thalassaemia
A

I. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

70
Q
A 50yr old man presents to his GP complaining of weight loss, tiredness, easy bruising and a painful big toe. On examination his spleen is massively enlarged. Investigation shows a raised serum urate. The peripheral blood film is abnormal, showing proliferation of which type of cell?
A. Eosinophils
B. Spherocytes
C. Platelets
D. Blast cells
E. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
F. Reticulocytes
G. Auer rods
H. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
I. Pelger-Huet cells
J. Neutrophils
K. Clonal B lymphocytes
A

J. Neutrophils

71
Q
A 65yr old lady is seen in the haematology clinic where she has been treated for 7 years with Imantinib for chronic myeloid leukaemia. Having been previously well, she is now complaining of shortness of breath and general weakness. Examination reveals splenomegally. Her peripheral blood film has changed from previous appointments and reflects the progression of her disease. Which type of cell is now proliferating?
A. Eosinophils
B. Spherocytes
C. Platelets
D. Blast cells
E. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
F. Reticulocytes
G. Auer rods
H. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
I. Pelger-Huet cells
J. Neutrophils
K. Clonal B lymphocytes
A

D. Blast cells

72
Q
A 70yr old man complains of a year’s history of fatigue, weight loss and recurrent sinusitis. His white cell count is raised with a lymphocytosis of 283x109 /L. Blood film shows features of haemolysis and Coomb’s test is positive. Further investigation show the bone marrow, blood and lymph nodes are infiltrated with which cell population?
A. Eosinophils
B. Spherocytes
C. Platelets
D. Blast cells
E. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
F. Reticulocytes
G. Auer rods
H. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
I. Pelger-Huet cells
J. Neutrophils
K. Clonal B lymphocytes
A

K. Clonal B lymphocytes

73
Q
A routine full blood count on a 62yr old gardener reveals a high white cell count of 154x109 /L, and the differential shows this to be a neutrophilia. The haemoglobin and platelet count are normal. Biopsy shows a hypercellular “packed” bone marrow, and cells show the presence of which chromosomal abnormality?
A. Eosinophils
B. Spherocytes
C. Platelets
D. Blast cells
E. Chromosome 11q23 deletion
F. Reticulocytes
G. Auer rods
H. Chromosome 9;22 translocation
I. Pelger-Huet cells
J. Neutrophils
K. Clonal B lymphocytes
A

H. Chromosome 9;22 translocation