Immunology 4 - HIV infection Flashcards

1
Q

Using which enzyme does HIV replicate inside cells?

A

Reverse Transcriptase - so it replicates via a DNA intermediate even though HIV itself is a double stranded RNA virus

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2
Q

How many genes are inside the HIV genome?

A

9

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3
Q

What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV?

A

Converts RNA into DNA which can be incorporated into host cells’ genes

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4
Q

What are the two key glycoproteins encoded by the HIV virus?

A

gp120

gp41

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5
Q

Which cell of the immune system is particularly affected by HIV?

A

CD4+ T cells

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6
Q

Recall the receptor and co-receptors for HIV on CD4+ T cells

A

CD4 receptors

CCR5 CXCR4 coreceptors

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7
Q

In people who have natural immunity to HIV, what antibodies may be present in serum?

A

Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41 (Nt) antibodies

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8
Q

How does HIV infection affect CD8+ T cells?

A

Interferes with activation, as CD4+ T cell and antigen-presenting cell help are not present due to the virus

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9
Q

How does HIV infection affect monocytes and dendritic cells?

A

Not activated by CD4+ T cells and so cannot prime naive CD8+ T cells

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10
Q

How does HIV affect immunological memory?

A

CD4+ T cell memory is lost

CD8 memory cell not activated by antigen-presenting cell

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11
Q

Why is there so much variation/mutation in HIV infection?

A

HIV lacks same checking mechanisms in DNA transcription

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12
Q

Why is HIV mutation within the host problematic?

A

Escape from neutralising antibodies.

Escape from HIV-1-specific T cells.

Resistance and escape from antiretroviral drugs.

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13
Q

Recall the 7 steps of the HIV life cycle

A
  1. Attachment/Entry
  2. Reverse Transcription and DNA Synthesis
  3. Integration
  4. Viral Transcription
  5. Viral Protein Synthesis
  6. Assembly of Virus and Release of Virus
  7. Maturation
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14
Q

Which drugs are capable of inhibiting the action of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

A
  1. Nucleoside analogues

2. Non-nucleotide reverse transcriptases

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15
Q

Which class of HIV drugs can prevent integration of viral DNA?

A

Integrase inhibitors

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16
Q

Which HIV drugs can prevent modification of translated viral proteins?

A

Protease inhibitors

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17
Q

What is the median time of infection with HIV to AIDS development?

A

8-10 years

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18
Q

What does it mean if someone is an HIV exposed seronegative individual?

A

Partner of individual with HIV who remains uninfected

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19
Q

What are the 3 major markers used to monitor HIV?

A

CD8
CD4
Plasma viral load

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20
Q

What is long-term nonprogression of HIV?

A

Individual who is asymptomatic 10 years after infection

21
Q

How can HIV be detected?

A

anti-HIV antibodies (ELISA)

Viral load (PCR) - more sensitive

ELISA = screening

Western Blot = Confirmatory test

22
Q

How are CD4+ T cell levels measured in HIV infection?

A

Flow cytometry

23
Q

What are the two methods of testing for ARV resistance?

A

Phenotypic

Genotypic (involves directly sequencing the amplified genome)

24
Q

Which drugs make up a HAART regimen?

A

Three or more drugs + one or more binding agents

25
Q

When should HAART treatment be initiated?

A

Immediately

26
Q

Give 2 examples of NRTI HIV drugs

A

Zidovudine

Lamivudine

27
Q

Recall 2 examples of protease inhibitor HIV drugs

A

Tenofovir

Truvada

28
Q

What class of drug is raltegravir?

A

Integrase inhibitor

29
Q

Which drugs make up the HAART regimen initially?

A

2 NRTIs + PI

30
Q

What CD4 count defines AIDS?

A

<200 cells/ nanolitre

31
Q

Which drugs make up the atripla pill?

A

Emtricitabine + tenofavir + efavirenz

32
Q

Which ARV is best to use in pregnancy?

A

Zidovudine

33
Q

How can CD8+ T cells provide HIV entry into cells?

A

Producing chemokines MIP-1A, MIP-1b and RANTES

34
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary immune deficiency?

A

Malnutrition

Secondary immune deficiencies are far more common than primary immune defects

35
Q

What are the clinical features of immune deficiencies?

A

Infections (severe, persistent, recurrent, unusual)

Autoimmune conditions (cytopaenias) and allergic disease

Persistent inflammation

Cancer (viral associated - EBV, HHV-8)

36
Q

Which infections can cause immune deficiency?

A

Measles

Mycobacterium TB (inflammatory immune re-constitution syndrome)

HIV (despite successful treatment, residual immune dysfunction persists)

COVID (virus itself, co-morbidities caused by the virus, drugs used to control inflammation)

37
Q

Which drugs can cause immune deficiency?

A

Small molecules (steroids, cytotoxic agents like methotrexate, calcineurin inhibitors like cyclosporine, antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, DMARDs like sulphasalazine)

JAK inhibitors (tofacitinib)

Biological agents (anti-CD20, anti-TNF-alpha monoclonals)

Cellular therapy (anti-CD19/BCMA chimeric antigen receptor T cell therapy)

38
Q

What is Good’s syndrome?

A

Thymoma and antibody deficiency - combined T and B cell absence

Susceptible to PJP, candida etc.

Also susceptible to autoimmune conditions including myasthenia gravis

39
Q

What is the method of looking for an immunodeficiency?

A

FISH

FBC (Hb lower than 10g/L, neutrophil count, lymphocyte count, platelet count)

Immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE) - remember there are age-related reference intervals

  • Isolated reduction in IgG -> protein losing enteropathy, prednisolone over 10mg/day*
  • Reduction in IgG and IgM -> monitor for B cell neoplasm, history of rituximab treatment*
  • Reduction in IgG and IgA -> primary antibody deficiency*

Serum complement (C3, C4)

HIV test (18-80 years)

Strategy will pick up to 85% of all immune defects

40
Q

What are the second line tests to investigate immune deficiencies?

A

Measure concentration of vaccine antibodies

Tetanus toxoid - protein antigen
Pneumovax vaccine - carbohydrate antigen

Failure to respond to vaccination is a diagnostic criteria for many primary immune deficiencies

41
Q

What are the important third line tests to investigate immune deficiencies?

A

Looking for anti-cytokine and anti-complement antibodies

42
Q

How do you manage secondary immune deficiencies?

A

Treat underlying cause

Advise on measures to reduce infection exposure

Immunisations and offer vaccines to household contacts (e.g. flu vaccine)

Education to treat bacterial infections prompts -> may require higher and longer therapy courses

Prophylactic antibiotics for confirmed recurrent bacterial infection (give them rescue antibiotics to keep at home)

IF INDICATED: IgG replacement therapy

43
Q

What is the natural history of HIV infection?

A
Acute phase (high plasma viraemia = high risk of transmission, but low viral diversity)
*Dramatic decline in mucosal CD4 count which doesn't recover, whereas blood CD4 count initially drops and then recovers*

Asymptomatic but progressive (low plasma viraemia but increasing viral diversity)
CD4 count in blood is stable

AIDS (high plasma viraemia and high viral diversity)
CD4 count in blood falls steeply

44
Q

What are the characteristic immune features of HIV infection?

A

CD4 cell depletion

Chronic immune activation

Impairment of CD4 and CD8 cell function (present but not doing anything, exhausted)

Disruption of lymph node architecture and impaired ability to generate protective T and B cell immune responses

Loss of antigen-specific humeral immune responses

45
Q

How is HIV diagnosed?

A

4th generation combined HIV antigen/antibody tests will detect infection 1 month post-acquisition of infection

Rapid point of care HIV tests: result available within 20 minutes but this is less sensitive than 4th generation tests

HIV RNA tests (viral load tests) used when serological tests are negative but there is high clinical suspicion

46
Q

How is HIV managed?

A

Confirm understanding

Check for relevant co-morbidities like TB, HepB and HepC, anxiety and depression) - influences choice of ART and needs to be managed

Sexual history and vaccine history

Discuss partner notification but emphasise importance of undetectable = untransmissible

Screen for factors which may impair adherence to HAART e.g. psych issues, alcohol and drug dependency

47
Q

What are some important baseline investigations for an HIV patient?

A

IGRA to screen for latent TB

Toxoplasma serology screen

CD4 T cell count - to stratify the risk of certain infections and therefore who needs prophylactic antibiotics e.g. septrin, co-trimoxazole (HAART is given regardless)

Viral load - viral load set point at 3-6 months correlates with outcomes

48
Q

What is the HLA-B*5701 test for?

A

To decide whether to avoid prescribing Abacavir - an NRTI (can cause toxic epidermolysis necrolitis if they have this gene)

49
Q

What are the limitations to HAART?

A

Doesn’t eliminate infection once HIV is integrated into DNA

Doesn’t usually reverse chronic immune inflammation issues -> therefore there is a risk of CVS, liver, bone, CNS disease