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Immunology Flashcards

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0
Q

What is the effect of GM-CSF on monocytes?

A

Recruits them and stimulates differentiation to dendritic cells.

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1
Q

Which TLR recognizes LPS?

A

TLR-4

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2
Q

Which TLR recognizes bacterial peptidoglycans?

A

TLR-2

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3
Q

Which interleukins are responsible for expansion/activation of NK cells?

A

IL2 and IL15, also IL18 and type 1 IFN

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4
Q

Which two cell types are responsible for most production of TNFalpha?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells

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5
Q

What are the major pro inflammatory cytokines?

A

IL-1, IL-6, IL-8

TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma

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6
Q

What cell produces IL-1?

A

macrophages

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7
Q

Effects of IL-1?

A

pyrogen/inflammatory

helps neutrophils migrate by increasing cell adhesion

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8
Q

What cell produces IL-2?

A

Th1 cells

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9
Q

Effects of IL-2?

A

imp for cell-mediated immunity

augments cell killing of NK cells and CTLs

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10
Q

What cell produces IL-6?

A

macrophages/monocytes

released during acute-phase inflam response

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11
Q

Effects of IL-6?

A

inflammatory
stimulates megakaryocyte production
activates T cells, B cells

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12
Q

Th1 cells are associated with what arm of the immune system?

A

cell mediated immunity

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13
Q

Th2 cells are associated with what arm of the immune system?

A

humoral immunity

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14
Q

two cytokines that inhibit Th2 response

A

IL-12 and IFN-gamma

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15
Q

cytokine that inhibits Th1 response

A

IL-10

secreted by APCs/Th2 response

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16
Q

Effects of IL-3?

A

stimulates BM immunity

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17
Q

What cell produces IL-8?

A

activated monocytes/macrophages

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18
Q

Effects of IL-8?

A

neutrophil chemotaxis

cell-mediated responses

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19
Q

What cell produces IL-12?

A

activated monocytes/macrophages

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20
Q

Effects of IL-12?

A

MOST potent activator of tumor cell destruction (NK cells and CTLs)
critical for Th1 immunity

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21
Q

Effects of IL-15?

A

back-up for IL-2

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22
Q

What cell produces IFN-gamma?

A

Th1 cells

23
Q

Effects of IFN-gamma?

A

activates macrophages, CTLs
inhibits Th2
enhances antigen presentation (upregulates MHC-I and MCH-II)

24
Q

What cell produces IL-10?

A

Th2 cells

25
Q

Effects of IL-10?

A

inhibits Th1
anti-inflammatory
inhibits IL-12

26
Q

Effects of IL-5?

A

eosinophil chemotaxis

stimulates B cells to produce IgA

27
Q

What cells produce IL-5?

A

Th2 cells

mast cells

28
Q

Effects of IL-4?

A

promotes mast cell growth

promotes humoral immunity (esp IgE)

29
Q

Effects of IL-13?

A

promotes mast cell growth

enhances phagocytosis

30
Q

Two cytokines involved in cachexia/loss of lean body mass?

A

IL-1, TNF-alpha

31
Q

Two cytokines important in delayed cell-mediated immunity (Type IV hypersensitivity)

A

IL-1

IFN-gamma

32
Q

Two cytokines involved in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

IL-4, IL-13

33
Q

Which TLR recognizes bacterial DNA?

A

TLR-9

34
Q

Type I hypersensitivity

A

Immediate
IgE mediated
mediated by mast cells, basos

35
Q

Type II hypersensitivity

A

Cytotoxic/Ab-mediated
Ag-bearing self cells are attacked
mediated by ADCC and complement
cells: macrophages, NK cells

36
Q

Type I hypersensitivity examples

A

vaccine reactions
atopy
insect bites

37
Q

Type II hypersensitivity examples

A

anaplasma and other intracellular parasites

some drug allergies (penicillin by-products on RBC)

38
Q

Type III hypersensitivity

A

immune-complex deposition

Ag-Ab complexes deposited, neutrophils then move in and create inflammation

39
Q

Type III hypersensitivity examples

A

serum sickness
lupus
immune-mediated polyarthritis

40
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity

A 
delayed
Ag recognized by Th1/MHC-II complex
direct cytotoxicity (activated macs, CTLs)
41
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity examples

A

contact dermatitis
graft rejection
flea bite hypersensitivity

42
Q

What is a potential consequence of an inactivating mutation in the transcription factor, FoxP3?

a. Inability to eliminate intracellular viruses.
b. Decreased humoral immunity against extracellular pathogens.
c. Decreased inflammatory response secondary to decreased production of IL-17.
d. Death from autoimmune disease.

A

Answer: d

a. Th1 cells express T-BET and produce IL-2, TNF-alpha, and IFN-gamma. They induce production of IL-12 by APCs. This augments a CD8+ CTL-type response focused on intracellular virus/bacteria.
b. Th2 → GATA-3 → IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10 → B cell allergies, asthma, IgE.
c. Th17 → RORγt → IL-17 → Autoimmunity tissue inflammation.
d. Treg → FoxP3 → TGF-beta, IL-10 → suppression of immunity.

43
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the innate immune system?

a. CD8+ helper T cells → bind MHC class I molecules → exogenous pathway
b. CD4+ helper T cells → bind MHC class II molecules → exogenous pathway
c. CD4+ cytotoxic T cells → bind MHC class I molecules → endogenous pathway
d. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells → bind MHC class II molecules → endogenous pathway
e. CD4+ helper T cells → bind MHC class I molecules → endogenous pathway

A

Answer: b

CD4+ cells are helper T cells, and CD8+ cells are cytotoxic T cells. Helper T cells bind MHC class II molecules, which can present larger peptide fragments for processing via the exogenous pathway. Cytotoxic T cells bind MHC class I molecules, which only present small peptide fragments for processing via the endogenous or cross-presentation pathways.

44
Q

The tumor-associated antigen (TAA), B-RAF, is present in 40-60% of human melanomas. What type of TAA is B-RAF?

a. Mutated TAA
b. Differentiation TAA
c. Overexpressed TAA
d. Viral TAA
e. Posttranscriptionally modified TAA

A

Answer: a

About half of human melanomas express a mutant form of B-RAF, which has a valine → phenylalanine amino acid substitution at position 600. Tyrosinase and Melan-A/MART-1 are examples of differentiation TAAs. Differentiation TAAs are expressed on normal cells as well as cancerous ones (normal melanocytes and malignant melanoma).

45
Q

Identify the most correct answer that explains the difference in how T cells recognize antigen in comparison to B cells.

a. B cells and T cells recognize antigen through the exact same mechanism
b. The T cell receptor is a membrane bound form of the soluble immunoglobulin (antibody) that will be produced by that cell upon activation, as a consequence of the ability to bind a specific antigen
c. B cells do not react to antigen in its unprocessed form, but rather recognize peptide fragments bound in the MHC of antigen presenting cells
d. The B cell receptors can bind to antigens in their native form, so that the B cell can detect unprocessed antigens

A

Answer: d

B cells and T cells express highly specific receptors that recognize antigen. The BCR is a membrane bound form of the soluble immunoglobulin (antibody) that will be produced by that cell upon activation, as a consequence of the ability to bind a specific antigen. The B cell receptors can bind to antigens in their native form, so that the B cell can detect unprocessed antigens. In contrast, the TCR is not secreted and stimulation via the TCR may lead to the activation of the T-cell response. T cells do not react to antigen in its unprocessed form, but rather recognize peptide fragments bound in the MHC of antigen presenting cells. These differences allow B and T cells to defend the host in 2 ways: by directly recognizing the pathogen and by recognizing cells infected with the pathogen.

46
Q

Identify the true statement in regards to T cell tolerance.

a. T cells with intermediate affinity to self-peptides can differentiate into regulatory T cells, which play a critical role in the maintenance of peripheral tolerance
b. Mature or activated dendritic cells present peptide/MHC complexes that can lead to the induction of tolerance
c. Macrophages have the ability to imprint the fate of deletion or anergy of mature self-reactive T cells
d. T cells that develop high-affinity T cell receptors, which would result in strong affinity to self, finish development and enter the periphery as naïve T cells, and this is known as positive selection

A

Answer: a

b. The distinction that permits the induction of T cell tolerance or T cell immunity is the functional status of the DC: resting or steady state DCs present peptide/MHC complexes that can lead to the induction of tolerance, whereas mature or activated DCs induce immunity
c. Dendritic cells have the ability to imprint the fate of deletion or anergy of mature self-reactive T cells. DCs are highly specialized and efficient antigen-presenting cells. One key function that differentiates DCs from other professional APCs, such as macrophages and B cells, is their ability to activate naïve T cells (p. 502)
d. T cells that develop high-affinity T cell receptors, which would result in strong affinity to self, are deleted and this is known as negative selection
Cells that bind self-MHC, but do not react strongly to self-peptides, finish development and enter the periphery as naïve T cells, and this is known as positive selection

47
Q

What is the well-characterized mechanism of action for IL-2, especially in regards to its immune modulatory affects?

a. IL-2 induces upregulation of MHC-class I and contributes to maturation of dendritic cells
b. IL-2 acts primarily to stimulate proliferation of T cells and NK cells and can function to reserve anergy for effector T cells
c. IL-2 can directly inhibit proliferation of tumor cells, down regulate expression of oncogenes, and induce tumor suppressor genes
d. IL-2 directly blocks CTLA-4 and causes tumor regression

A

Answer: b

IFN-α can directly inhibit proliferation of tumor cells, down regulate expression of oncogenes, and induce tumor suppressor genes. It also induces upregulation of MHC-class I and contributes to maturation of dendritic cells.
Anti- CTLA-4 blocking antibodies blocks CTLA-4 and cause tumor regression (e.g. Tremelimumab and Ipilimumab)
48
Q

What is the pathogen-associated ligand recognized by TLR4?

a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Viral DNA
c. Fungal carbohydrate residues
d. Bacterial peptidoglycans

A

Answer: a

(d) bacterial peptidoglycans are recognized by TLR2

49
Q

Choose the correct pairing of T helper cell subset and the cytokines it produces.

a. Th1 – IL-8, IL-17
b. Th2 – IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10
c. Th17 – TGF-beta, IL-10
d. Treg – IL-1, IL-6, NFkB

A

Answer: b

50
Q

What does Alemtuzumab target?

a. EGFR
b. CD20
c. Her-2/Neu
d. CD52

A

Answer: d

51
Q

Which of the following molecules are important to activation of T-cells by antigen presenting cells by co-stimulatory events?

i. CD29
ii. CD80
iii. CD56
iv. CD86
v. CD28

a. I, ii, iii
b. ii, iii, iv
c. iii, iv, v
d. I, iii, iv
e. ii, iv, v

A

Answer: E

Explanation: CD28 is expressed on the T-cell and CD80 and CD86 is expressed on the APCs. The CD28 creates a co-stimulatory response leading to the production of IL-2 leading to T-cell proliferation and survival.

52
Q

What is the mechanism of imiquimod?

a. suppression of TLR4
b. promotion of TLR4
c. suppression of TLR7
d. promotion of TLR7
e. promotion of TLR8
A

Answer: D

53
Q

An experiment is designed to investigate the level of inhibitory T-cell responses within a tumor. Which of the following when expressed in high levels would indicate inhibition of the T-cell proliferative response?

a. Her2
b. indoleamine 2,3-deoxygenase
c. IL-2
d. GATA3
e. IL-4
A

Answer: B
Explanation: IDO leads to depletion of tryptophan from the local environment, thereby inhibiting T cell proliferation. IL-2 promotes differentiation of T-cells, GATA promotes Th2 cells is expressed on these cells, IL-4 leads to expression of Th2.

54
Q

Which process is responsible for tumor cell antigen presentation

a. Endogenous pathway
b. Exogenous pathway
c. Cross presentation pathway
d. Positive selection pathway

A

Answer: c.

55
Q

Which cytokine induces proteasome degradation of intracellular self proteins within cells?

a. IL-2
b. TGFβ
c. IL-8
d. IFN-γ

A

Answer: d.

→ IFNγ and TNFα induce induces proteasome processing of self proteins.

56
Q

Which of the following markers are used for identification of T regulatory cells?

a. CD8+, FOXM1+, CD25+
b. CD4+, CD8+, CD17+
c. CD4+, FOXP3+, CD25+
d. CD8+, FOXP3+, CD45-

A

Answer: c.

Basic Science (11 decks)

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