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Animal Health & Disease > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three parts of innate immune system

A
  1. Physical/physiological barriers
  2. Antimicrobial molecules
  3. Sentinel/phagocytic cells
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2
Q

In the innate immune system, name the four physical/physiological barriers

A
  • Epithelium
  • Mucus/tears/sebum
  • Flushing/peristalsis
  • Commensal flora
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3
Q

Name the complement protein that is a key opsonin

A

C3b

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4
Q

Name the three sentinel cells

A
  1. Mast cells
  2. Macrophages
  3. Dendritic cells
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5
Q

How are antimicrobial molecules, like defensins, similar to arrows?

A

They create pores

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6
Q

Location of hematopoiesis, and the three main types of cells made

A

Mainly in the bone marrow
-Erythroid
-Myeloid
-Lymphoid

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7
Q

Monocytes differentiate into …

A

Macrophages, Myeloid dendritic cells

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8
Q

Where are B cells developed and where do they mature

A

Develop in : Bone Marrow
Mature in : Bone marrow (mammals), Bursa of Fabricius (birds)

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8
Q

Where are T cells developed and where do they mature

A

Develop in : Bone Marrow
Mature in : Thymus

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9
Q

What does CMP (common myeloid progenitor) differentiate into?

A

Megakaryocyte, erythrocyte, mast cell, myeloblast

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10
Q

What does a myeloblast differentiate into?

A

Basophil, Neutrophil, Eosinophil, Monocyte

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11
Q

What does a monocyte differentiate into and where is it found.

A

Macrophage and myeloid dendritic cell. Monocytes are found in circulation

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12
Q

What does CLP (common lymphoid progenitor) differentiate into?

A

NK cell(large granular lymphocyte), small lymphocyte, lymphoid dendritic cell

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13
Q

Which is the only hematopoietic cell type that can REGENERATE?
a) monocyte
b) Hematopoietic stem cell
c) common myeloid precursor
d) common lymphoid precursor

A

B) Hematopoietic stem cell

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT mature when it leaves the bone marrow?
a) T cell
b) Mast cell
c) monocyte
d) Neutrophil

A

a) T cell
Matures in Thymus!

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15
Q

Which of the following granulocytes has a multilobulated nucleus and pale-staining granules?
a) basophil
b) mast cell
c) eosinophil
d) Neutrophil

A

d) Neutrophil

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16
Q

Neutrophils are the FIRST RESPONDERS that aren’t in the tissue. What three primary ways do they kill infecting microbes?

A

1) Phagocytosis
2) Degranulation
3) Neutrophil Extracellular traps (NETs)

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17
Q

Why do birds not form liquid-y abscesses?

A

Birds’ heterophils (similar to neutrophil) lack significant myeloperoxidase activity…bacteria not broken down via respiratory burst

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18
Q

NETosis is an (active/passive) process and involves releasing DNA coated with ________ and granule components

A

ACTIVE ; histones

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19
Q

What is the primary function of Eosinophils? What other leukocyte shares this function?

A

To kill multicellular parasites (like helminths) by releasing granules; Basophils also kill these parasites

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20
Q

What three leukocytes are related to allergic reactions?

A

Mast cells, Basophils :(late phase allergic rxns), Eosinophils

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21
Q

Name the three functions of a Macrophage

A

1) Sentinel cells (produce cytokines when activated)
2) Phagocytosis
3) Antigen presentation

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22
Q

Where do mast cells reside and what are their four functions?

A

In connective tissues near blood vessels and nerves.

1) vasodilation
2) vascular permeability
3) recruit other leukocytes
4) allergic responses

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23
Q

What cell is described here :
-lymphoid lineage
-1st line of defense against viruses, some tumors
-secrete cytotoxic granules that drive apoptosis
-check for MHC class 1 receptor

A

Natural Killer cell

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24
Q

Which innate immune cell is the MOST effective at antigen presentation?
a) basophil
b) mast cell
c) macrophage
d) dendritic cell

A

d) dendritic cell

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25
Q

T/F : T and B lymphocytes are part of the innate immune system

A

FALSE
part of the adaptive immune system

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26
Q

Do the presence of macrophages/lymphocytes/plasma cells indicate an acute or chronic infection?

A

chronic

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27
Q

What potential cause are neutrophils a clue to?

A

extracellular bacteria

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28
Q

Lymphocytes/plasma cells in a sample would indicate what problem?

A

viral, immune mediated

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29
Q

biochemical cascades result in the efficient process of _________

A

amplification

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30
Q

C4b would refer to :
a) an inactive complement
b) a cleavage product
c) a complex of complement components

A

b) a cleavage product

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31
Q

The complement system facilitates phagocytosis, direct killing of pathogen, and the _____________ that helps fight the pathogen.

A

inflammatory response

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32
Q

List the 3 mechanisms (pathways) of complement activation, and the key protein they all result in.

A
  1. Classical
  2. Alternative
  3. Lectin

C3 CONVERTASE

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33
Q

The classical pathway is ________ - initiated.

A

antibody

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34
Q

C3 convertase spontaneously breaks down into C3b and C3a. What are the functions of these cleavage products?

A

C3b can be an opsonin that binds to a pathogen as a marker for phagocytosis and is part of the process for the MAC complex. C3a chemotaxis to recruits leukocytes.

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35
Q

Why can C3b not attach to healthy cells?

A

due to protective H and I factors

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36
Q

Lectin binds to ______ and results in the formation of _______

A

Mannose; C3 convertase

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37
Q

Which pathway requires the ADAPTIVE immune system to initiate?
a) lectin
b) classical
c) alternative

A

b) classical

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38
Q

Which pathway uses “Factors” and letters instead of numbers?
a) lectin
b) classical
c) alternative

A

c) alternative

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39
Q

List the three consequences of complement activation

A

1) recruitment of inflammatory cells (C3a, C5a)
2) opsonization & phagocytosis (C3b)
3) direct killing via MAC (C5-C9)

40
Q

In a consequence of the complement system, recruitment (via Chemotaxis) of leukocytes is performed by ____ and _____. Which is a potent anaphylatoxin?

A

C3a and C5a ; C3a

41
Q

Describe the formation of the MAC!

A

C3b attaches to C5, which aggregates with C6, C7, and C8. C5-8 together trigger recruitment of C9, forming the ring of the MAC which creates pores to lyse the membrane of the pathogen.

42
Q

Which complement component is an Anaphylatoxin?
a) C2a
b) C3a
c) C3b
d) C5b

A

b) C3q

43
Q

Which complement component forms the pore of the MAC?
a) C2
b) C3
c) C5
d) C9

A

d) C9

44
Q

Complement system control mechanism that :
inhibits activated C1 components in the CLASSICAL pathway

A

C-1 inactivator

45
Q

Complement system control mechanism that :
accelerates degredation of complement factors on red blood cells, leukocytes, platelets, and endothelial cells to protect them from complement attack

A

CD55 (decay accelerating factor)

46
Q

Complement system control mechanism that :
inhibits assembly of the membrane attack complex (MAC)

A

CD59 (protectin)

47
Q

Complement system control mechanism that :
ensure removal of antigen-antibody-complement complexes

A

Complement receptors (primarily receptors for C3 and its fragments)

48
Q

In Brittany Spaniels with a C3 deficiency, dogs <2 years of age develop serious _________ infections. dogs 4-7 years of age develop renal disease characterized by __________ due to deposition of _______-_______ complexes in the related blood vessels.

A

Bacterial ; Glomerulonephritis ; antigen-antibody

49
Q

The principal function of Factor __ is to regulate the _______ pathway of the complement system.

A

H; alternative

50
Q

Factor H deficiency in Yorkshire pigs results in abundant deposits of ____ in the kidney, causing renal failure.

A

C3

51
Q

PAMPs are characteristics of microbes that are _____ and essential to them, common to many microbes, and absent from _____ tissues. List an example from
1) Gram-positive bacteria
2) Gram-negative bacteria
3) viruses

A

abundant; host

1) GP - peptidoglycan
2) GN - lipopolysaccharide
3) Virus - dsRNA

51
Q

List the 3 signaling types of pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs)

A

1) Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
2) NOD-like receptors (NLRs)
3) RIG-1-like receptors (RLRs)

52
Q

PRR signaling type that recognizes cytoplasmic and viral dsRNA PAMPs

A

RIG-1-like receptors (RLRs)

53
Q

PRR signaling type that recognizes cytoplasmic, peptidoglycan, and muramyl dipeptide PAMPs

A

NOD-like receptors (NLRs)

54
Q

PRR signaling type that recognizes membranous, and wide variety of ligand PAMPs

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

55
Q

PRRs binding their PAMPs signal a cascade and activate what key transcription factor (causing the activation of transcription of genes)?

A

NF-kB

56
Q

NEED TLR QUESTION

A
57
Q

TLR5 can be found along ________ surfaces of enterocytes and recognizes _______. A related genetic defect in barrier function is _____-______.

A

basolateral; flagellin; leaky-gut

58
Q

NOD1 and NOD2 are found in the _______ and recognize ______. They can also signal through transcription factor _____.

A

cytosol ; peptidoglycan; NF-kB

59
Q

RLRs are found in the cytosol, recognize ____ and ____, can also lead to activate NF-kB, and lead to the expression of type 1 ____

A

dsRNA and ssRNA ; interferons (an antiviral response)

60
Q

Viruses in ENDOSOMES are recognized by
a) NLRs
b) RLRs
c) TLRs

A

c) TLRs

61
Q

What do the signaling PRRs all have in common?
a) location
b) cell type
c) activation of NF-kB
d) What they recognize

A

c) activation of NF-kB

62
Q

List 3 phagocytic receptors and what they recognize.

A

1) complement receptor (things like C3b)
b) FcyR (Ig antibody)
c) Mannose receptor (sugar residues on microbes)

63
Q

What are the four steps of Phagocytosis?

A

1) Recognition and attachment
2) Engulfment
3) Phagosome-lysosome fusion
4) Destruction

64
Q

As the phagosome matures, the pH goes from neutral to _______, fuses with lysosomes to make a _________, and an _______ burst takes place.

A

acidic ; phagolysosome ; oxidative

65
Q

Examples of soluble PRRs include ______-binding lectin and ___-reactive protein

A

mannose ; C

66
Q

Which of the following recognizes IgG bound to microbes?
a) FcyR
b) Toll-like receptor
c) Mannose receptor
d) Complement receptor

A

a) FcyR

67
Q

Which of the following phagosomal enzymes is NOT in macrophages?
a) iNOS
b) Hydrolase
c) NADPH oxidase
d) Myeloperoxidase

A

d) myeloperoxidase

67
Q

Mitochondrial DNA, HMGB-1, Adenosine, ATP, Uric acid, heat-shock proteins are examples of ________ DAMPs

A

Intracellular

68
Q

List 4 extracellular DAMPs

A

1) Heparan sulfate
2) Hyaluronic acid
3) Fibronectin
4) Peptides from collagen, elastin

69
Q

The _________ needs 2 hits to activate IL-1B (triggered by ______ and _____)

A

Inflammasome ; PAMP ; DAMP

70
Q

______ induce production of more leukocytes and start the inflammatory cascade

A

Cytokines

71
Q

What is the purpose of Chemokines

A

Leukocyte recruitment (breadcrumbs)

72
Q

_________ molecules allow leukocytes to stop and migrate from blood to tissues

A

Adhesion

73
Q

All are major functions/results of phagocytic receptor engagement EXCEPT :
a) adherence
b) engulfment
c) NF-kB activation
d) Phagosome formation

A

c) NF-kB
the result of signaling receptors

74
Q

PAMPs and DAMPs must work TOGETHER to coordinate which of the following responses?
a) engulfment
b) inflammasome production
c) phagosomal-lysosomal fusion
d) IL-1B production and activation

A

d) IL-1B production and activation
(related to inflammasome)

75
Q

_______ cells recognize and respond to PAMPs and DAMPs through engagement of _____s.

A

Sentinel ; PRRs

76
Q

______s are membranous. ____s and RLRs are in the cytosol.

A

TLR ; NLR

77
Q

Phagocytic PRRs trigger engulfment of microbes –> Phagolysosomal degradation involving _______, _____ __, and ____ _______

A

enzymes ; low pH ; free radicals

78
Q

The _______ receptor on NK cells recognize normal MHC class I

A

inhibitory

79
Q

Lytic granules released by NK cells include ____ into the membrane and ______ into the pore

A

Perforin ; Granzyme

80
Q

List the 3 effector mechanisms of the innate immune system

A

1) phagocytosis and degredation
2) extracellular granule release
3) NK cell targeted cytotoxicity

81
Q

Phagosomal maturation is the process of ________ and fusion with _________, as well as _________ burst

A

acidification ; lysosomes ; respiratory

82
Q

Swelling serves to ______ pathogens/toxins providing wound healing factors factors/mediators

A

Dilute

83
Q

While initiating inflammation, Macrophages release what 3 thing

A

1) pro-inflammatory cytokines
2) Chemokines (recruits neutrophils)
3) Eicosanoidss

84
Q

Acute inflammation has 3 major steps
1) _______ –> leading to redness and heat
2) ____________ –> leading to swelling and pain
3) _______ –> leading to pain and loss of function

A

Dilation
Increased vascular permeability
Migration

85
Q

Histamine and Nitric oxide contribute to…

A

Vasodilation

86
Q

Which of the following vasoactive mediators is IMMEDIATELY released?
a) IL-1
b) C5a
c) Histamine
d) leukotriene
e) prostaglandin

A

c) Histamine
because it is PREMADE in mast cells

87
Q

Which aspect of inflammation is directly responsible for redness?
a) vasodilation
b) leukocyte activation
c) vascular permeability
d) leukocyte extravasation

A

a) vasodilation

88
Q

List the 4 steps in leukocyte migration

A

1) margination (triggered by activated mast cell)
2) rolling (+ activation)
3) adhesion
4) extravasation

89
Q

________ lipids (eicosanoids) are derived from the cell membrane and are important drug targets in vet med

A

Vasoactive

90
Q

INTEGRINS play a major role in which step of leukocyte migration?
a) rolling
b) adhesion
c) margination
d) extravasation

A

b) adhesion

91
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is caused by lack of functional expression of _________

A

B2 integrins

(Leukocytes can’t extravasate)

92
Q

List 2 laboratory findings help us ID systemic
inflammation

A

1) Complete blood count (leukocytosis, neutrophilia, left shift)
2) Acute Phase Proteins (positive : increase during inflammation. an example of a negative APP is Albumin)

93
Q

Serum amyloid A is an important APP that binds a _____-like receptor and carries ________ to the liver

A

toll ; cholesterol

94
Q

In a Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome, oxidants are released in a _______ ____, and there is an uncontrollable drop in _______ ______.

A

cytokine storm ; blood pressure

95
Q

Pro-inflammatory cytokines acting on which part of the body results in fever?
a) liver
b) Cerebrum
c) bone marrow
d) hypothalamus

A

d) hypothalamus

96
Q

List the 3 major acute pro-inflammatory cytokines and what 3 organs their release acts on to result in systemic signs of inflammation

A

1) IL-1
2) IL-6
3) TNF-a
hypothalamus, liver, & bone marrow

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