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Animal Health & Disease > Exam Three > Flashcards

Exam Three Flashcards

1
Q

Bacteria lacking peptidoglycan

A

Mycoplasma, chlamydiae (obligate intercellular)

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2
Q

Bacteria with complex cell wall

A

Mycobacterium species (TB, para TB), thick waxy layer of mycolic acids, IDed with acid fast stain

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3
Q

Temperature to autoclave spores at

A

121 C

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4
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria are ________, but certain food borne pathogens are __________ (listeria monocytogenes)

A

Mesophiles(30-37C), Psychrophiles(10-15C)

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5
Q

What is a siderophore and what is their most relevant function

A

Small, molecular weight molecules secreted by bacteria.
Bind iron

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6
Q

List the shape, mode of transmission, and systems that disease from Leptospira impact

A

Spirochete
Contact with infected animal urine
Liver, renal, reproductive failure (also hemolysis)

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7
Q

Bacteria that is gram negative, rod shaped, and highly associated with foot rot

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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8
Q

Sulfa drugs are structural analogues of ____________ acid which bacteria use along with glutamic acid to make their own ________ acid

A

p-aminobenzoic, Folic acid

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9
Q

List the three bacterial cell structures

A

Cytoplasm, cell envelope, surface structures

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10
Q

List the three general aspects of cytoplasm

A

Genome (organized into nucleoid)
Plasmids (autonomously replicating, HGT)
Cytoskeleton (during cell division, MreB is an actin homolog, scaffold for Z ring)

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11
Q

Talking about the cytoplasmic membrane, what effect does saturated va unsaturated fatty acids have on rigidity

A

Saturated FAs = increased rigidity
Unsaturated FAs (esp cis) = increased fluidity (double bonds)

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12
Q

Most forms of life desaturate FAs (make C=C bonds) to modulate fluidity. What type of bacteria do not and what do they do instead

A

Low GC Gram positive bacteria
Use branched chain AAs to make branched chain FAs

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13
Q

Beta lactam antibiotics target what cell structure

A

Cell wall (peptidoglycan)

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14
Q

Capsules are __ antigens while Flagella are ___ antigens

A

K, H

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15
Q

Sex Pilli mediates ____ (donor cell has plasmid)
Type IV Pili allow _______ motility

A

Conjugation
Twitching

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16
Q

Type 3 secretion system is characteristic of what bacteria? The SCV stands for what and is made during T3SS -1 or T3SS-2

A

Salmonella enterica
T3SS1 = early invasion and salmonella containing vacuole (T3SS-2 = SCV trafficking, systemic infection)

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17
Q

T6SS use kin recognition systems for ________-________ killing.
In culture, _______’s phenomenon illustrates the black lines of intense competition.
Strains with T6SS cannot kill each other

A

Contact-dependent
Diene’s

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18
Q

DNA has a ____to _____ polarity (replication and transcription occur in this order) and the phosphodiester backbone has a net _____ charge

A

5’ to 3’
Negative

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19
Q

At the origin of replication :
DNA _______ unwinds
DNA ________ replicates
DNA _______ uncoils (tension from supercoiling)

A

Helicase
Polymerase
Gyrase

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20
Q

Quinolone antibiotics inhibit DNA _____

A

Gyrase

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21
Q

Bacterial genes are organized into operons. _____ factor of RNA polymerase binds to _____ and ______ regions in promoters

A

Sigma
-35, -10

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22
Q

RNA _________ co-transcribes operonic genes

A

Polymerase

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23
Q

Two Component Systems : external signals to internal changes.
1) Membrane-bound _________ _______ senses signal
2) ____________ itself then _______ regulator
3) Phosphorylated RR activates genes for response to signal
4) Regulate MANY different processes!

A

Histidine Kinase
Phosphorylates
Response

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24
Q

mRNA ________ bind ligands to regulate gene expression

A

riboswitches

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25
Q

What is transformation?
A bacteria capable of being transformed is called _____

A

Taking up DNA from environment
Competent

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26
Q

______ genetic elements = “jumping genes”
What is a major concern?

A

Transposable
Can encode antibiotic resistance

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27
Q

List the 5 main aspects of bacterial physiology that antibiotics target

A

1) Cell Wall (peptidoglycan, lipid membrane)
2) DNA synthesis
3) Transcription
4) Translation
5) Folate metabolism

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28
Q

Bacteriophages are obligate _______ parasites.
Name the two types and if they are virulent or not.

A

intracellular
1) Lytic - virulent
2) Lysogenic - avirulent

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29
Q

CRISPER used for bacterial ______ immunity. Needs ___ sequence to cut

A

adaptive
PAM

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30
Q

Name one major pro to Phage therapy

A

Most phages are specific to one strain, and the limited host range allows the pathogen to be killed and the microbiome to be spared

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31
Q

CRISPR phages target _____ and remove _____ modules

A

plasmids
lysogeny

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32
Q

The central dogma of molecular biology says …

A

DNA to RNA to protein

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33
Q

Morphology bacterial classification:
Measurement : ________
Resolution : ________

A

microscopy (flow cytometry)
low

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34
Q

Pathogenicity bacterial classification : explain the difference between primary and opportunistic pathogens.
Measurement : __________
Resolution : __________

A

Primary : will cause disease if they get a foothold in host
Opportunistic : may be commensal at times, but will take advantage of chances to become pathogenic

Measurement : patient symptoms
Resolution : variable

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35
Q

Metabolism bacterial classification:
Measurement : _________
Resolution : _________

A

M : culture
R : low-moderate

36
Q

List 5 different Metabolic classes

A

1) aerobes/anaerobes/facultative anaerobes
2) Fermenters/respirers
3) Lactic acid producers
4) Sulfer reducers
5) Methane producers (methanogens)

37
Q

Cell structure bacterial classification :
Measurement : _____________
Resolution : ____________

A

microscopy (+ staining), motility tests, proteomics
Low to high

38
Q

Structural Classes of bacteria :
1) flagella/no flagella
2) Gram +/Gram - cell wall
3) _______________
4) Pilus presence and type
5) Vacuoles
6) ____________

A

S-layer on cell surface
Magnetosomes

39
Q

Genetics and Genomics bacterial classification :
Measurement : _____________
Resolution : _____________

A

DNA sequencing (marker gene(s), whole genome)
moderate to very high

40
Q

King Philip Came Over For Good Spaghetti

A

Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
(strain sometimes)

41
Q

In subspecies taxonomy. Serovars = differing _____ ______ ______

A

antigenic surface proteins

42
Q

Testing for bacterial growth in defined conditions = ________ _____

A

Selective culture

43
Q

Microscopy cannot resolve beyond the _____ level

A

Species

44
Q

_______ content : Mass-spec comparison to a reference database (“_____-____”).
Resolution limited beyond ________ level

A

Protein
MALDI-TOF
Species

45
Q

Targeted Genes : testing for the presence of a characteristic gene sequence using _____. No resolution beyond species level if using a _____ sequencing technique.

A

PCR
16S

46
Q

Whole genome sequencing depended on ________ _____. Max resolution : provable that two isolates are related within X generations

A

Successful Culture

47
Q

“Is this infection caused by pathogen A or B?” Answered by :

A

Selective culture for A/B

48
Q

“Is this outbreak connected to that previous outbreak?”
Answered by :

A

Whole genome sequencing

49
Q

List the 5 characteristics used to organize bacteria into groups

A

1) Morphology
2) pathogenicity
3) metabolism
4) cell structure
5) genome

50
Q

List 5 bacterial ID methods

A

1) Selective culture
2) Microscopy
3) Protein Content
4) Targeted Genes
5) Whole Genome Sequencing

51
Q

Sequence-based measurements :
1) A microbial census : marker gene + metagenomic sequencing
2) _______ sequencing : all microbes in community
3) ______-_____ sequencing : example) 16s rRNA in everything
4) _______ sequencing : tons of dashes everywhere

A

community
marker-gene
shotgun

52
Q

When present, a healthy microbiome restricts _________ + ______ to invading pathogens

A

physical space + nutrients

53
Q

“germ-free” animals have (increased/decreased) long-term susceptibility to various kinds of infection

A

increased

54
Q

What bacteria is the #1 hospital-acquired infection and why does it become a problem?

A

C. diff
2ndary bioacids that suppress C. diff spores are wiped out by antibiotics

55
Q

in the rumen microbiome, methane is produced by _______ ________ inhabiting the rumen

A

archaean methanogen

56
Q

List 5 examples of non-host-derived compounds

A

-rumen microbiome
-secondary bile acids in gut
-toxic byproducts of some chemotherapeutics
-SCFA in gut
-lactic acid in the vagina

57
Q

Gut microbiome prevents pathogen ______

A

blooms

58
Q

List the 7 steps in pathogenesis

A

1) exposure
2) adhesion
3) colonization
4) invasion
5) evasion of host defenses
6) damage to host tissue
7) +/- transmission

59
Q

______ : organism that normally inhabits inanimate environments shared with animals (aka opportunistic)

A

Saprophyte

60
Q

Products produces by the pathogen that facilitate pathogenesis

A

virulence factor

61
Q

Virulence factors allow for
1) Colonization (ex : _______)
2) Invasion (ex: ________)
3) Evasion (ex: _______, ________)
4) Suppression (ex: _______, _______)
5) Acquisition (ex: _______) - gets nutrients

A

1) Colonization (ex : Adhesions)
2) Invasion (ex: invasins)
3) Evasion (ex: enzymes, toxic molecules)
4) Suppression (ex: enzymes, toxic molecules)
5) Acquisition (ex: siderophores)

62
Q

Where are pathogenicity islands found?
Where are Virulence plasmids found?

A

bacterial chromosomes
plasmids in bacerial cytoplasm

63
Q

Give two examples of Adhesins

A

Fimbrial proteins
Pili

64
Q

ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)
- have ______ adhesions
- secrete ____ ____ (LT) and ____ _____ (ST) enterotoxins
- FUNCTIONAL change ONLY (not structural)

A

fimbrial
Heat Labile
Heat Stable

65
Q

What do LT and ST enterotoxins do? (ETEC) give physiological steps (4 steps)

A

disrupt function of cell membrane electrolyte/fluid transport
1)open Cl channels in enterocyte membranes
2) Cl moves to lumen
3) H2O follows
4) secretory diarrhea

66
Q

Most relevant toxin to humans from Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (carried by cattle)

A

Shiga toxin (cook your burgers well!)

67
Q

Bacterial mechanisms of spread (give 4)

A

1) direct
2) lymphatic/blood vessels
3) organ architecture (bronchial tree, bile ducts, nerves)
4) within phagocytes

68
Q

The bacteria that is Gram-negative, aerobic, facultative intracellular rods that cause Glanders in equids

A

Burkholderia mallei

69
Q

What is Glanders?

A

Systemic pyogranulomatous disease in equids

70
Q

How is Burkholderia mallei spread?

A

via lymphatics within macrophages (can survive and replicate in cytosol)

71
Q

Is Mycobacterium tuberculosis slow or fast growing and how does it evade the immune system

A

slow
prevent phagosomal acidification and lysosomal function when phagocytized so they are NOT degraded

72
Q

Listeria species are Gram -______, facultatively ________ rods, and grow at ____ temperatures

A

positive
intracellular
cooler (think poor quality silage : pH >5.5)

73
Q

What 3 main issues can Listeria sp cause in ruminants?

A

septiciemia, encephalitis, abortion

74
Q

Listeria enters _______ nerve endings, migrate to the CNS, and form _________

A

peripheral
microabcesses

75
Q

How can Listeria sp translocate the intestine

A

enter enterocytes and M cells –> escape phagosome –> use ActA to polymerize host actin to move in cell –> enter next cell via protrusion –> avoid immune response

76
Q

Abscess = aggregate of live and dead ______, typically in response to __________ bacteria

A

neutrophils
extracellular

77
Q

Staphylococcus = Gram ____ cocci, facultative ______

A

positive
anaerobes

78
Q

_______-______ S. aureus (MRSA) common problem in hospitals. Chronic skin infection in _____

A

Methicillin-resistant
dogs

79
Q

S. _____ (humans/animals)
S. ________ (dogs/cats)

A

S. aureus
S. pseudintermedius

80
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

focal aggregate of large, epithelioid macrophages (+/- multinucleated giant cells)

81
Q

Granulomas typically cased by _____ bacteria, and ________ species

A

intracellular
Mycobacterium

82
Q

Johne’s disease caused by Mycobacterium avium ssp. ________
and affects ______ _____ (villi damaged), leading to diarrhea

A

Paratuberculosis
Small Intestine

83
Q

What is described by an aggregate of microbes embedded within a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric substance

A

Biofilm

84
Q

True/False Biofilms can only grow on living surfaces

A

FALSE
can grow on living or nonliving
can develop antibiotic resistance and pass it on :(

85
Q

Which mechanism of immune evasion does Mycobacterium tuberculosis use?

A

Phagosomal maturation inhibition

86
Q

How does Listeria spread from cell to cell while avoiding immune response?

A

Polymerizing host actin

87
Q
A

Animal Health & Disease (5 decks)

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