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Clin Path 2 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Active immunity

A

An animal’s production of antibody as a result of infection with am antigen or immunization

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2
Q

Antigen

A
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3
Q

Avidity

A

Refers to the strength of the binding of antigen and antibody

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4
Q

Cell-mediated immune system

A

Am immune system mechanism that involves actions of the cells of the immune system rather than antibodies

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5
Q

Complement system

A

A group of plasma proteins that function to enhance the activities of the immune system

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6
Q

Humoral immunity

A

An immune response that involves the production of specific antibody

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7
Q

Immunoglobulin

A

Antibodies
Plasma proteins produced against specific antigens

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8
Q

Immunologic tolerance

A

A state of nonresponsiveness to antigens, whether self or foreign

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9
Q

Inflammatory response

A

The defensive response of body tissues that is initiated by the release of histamine from damaged cells

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10
Q

Interferons

A

Small soluble proteins that enhance the function of the immune system

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11
Q

Natural killer (NK) cells

A

A subpopulation of lymphocytes that is capable of the direct lysis of cells that have been infected with antigen

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12
Q

Opsonization

A

The complement-mediated adherence of phagocytes to antigens that enhances the phagocytosis of the antigen

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13
Q

Passive immunity

A

A condition that involves receiving antibodies from colostrum or synthesized antibodies

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14
Q

Phagocytosis

A
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15
Q

Vaccination

A

Any injection of attenuated microorganisms (bacteria, virus, rickettsiae) that is administered to induce immunity or to reduce the effects of associated infectious diseases

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16
Q

Chemiluminescence

A

Describes a chemical reaction that results in the emission of light

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17
Q

Competitive ELISA

A

An immunoassay

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18
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

A

An enzyme immunoassay that makes use of an enzyme-labeled immunoreactant (antigen or antibody) and am immunosorbent (antigen or antibody bound to a solid support)

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19
Q

Immunochromatography

A
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20
Q

Lateral flow immunoassay

A
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21
Q

Latex agglutination

A
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22
Q

Rapid immunomigration

A
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23
Q

Sensitivity

A
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24
Q

Specificity

A

The ability of a test to evaluate a given parameter correctly

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25
Q

Alloantibodies

A

A naturally occurring antibody that is produced by an individual and that reacts with antigen of another individual of the same species

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26
Q

Blood group antigens

A

The antigens that are present ok the surface of erythrocytes and antibodies that may be present in serum

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27
Q

Crossmatching

A

A blood test designed to identify compatibility between donor and recipient samples before transfusion

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28
Q

Dog erythrocyte antigen (DEA)

A

A naming convention for canine blood types

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29
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

Hemolytic anemia of the newborn

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30
Q

Allergen

A
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31
Q

Angiodema

A
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32
Q

Histamine

A
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33
Q

Tuberculosis skin test

A
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34
Q

Uticaria

A
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35
Q

Wheals

A
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36
Q

Antibody titer

A

The level of a specific antibody that is present in the serum

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37
Q

Coombs test

A

An immunologic test designed to detect antibodies on the surface of erythrocytes (direct Coombs test) or antibodies against erythrocytes in plasma (indirect Coombs test)

38
Q

Fluorescent antibody

A

A specific antibody that has been labeled with a fluorochrome and that is used in immunoassays

39
Q

Immunodiffusion

A

An immunologic test that is performed by placing reactants in an agar plate and allowing them to migrate through the gel toward each other

40
Q

Polymerase chain reaction

A

A method that is used to replicate and amplify DNA molecules in a sample

41
Q

Radioimmunoassay

A

A technique that is used to determine the concentration of an antigen, antibody, or other protein in the serum
A radioactively labeled substance that is known to react in a certain way with the suspected protein is injected and any reaction is monitored

42
Q

Anaphylactic shock

A
43
Q

Atopy

A
44
Q

Hypersensitivity

A
45
Q

Immune-complex disease

A
46
Q

Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

A
47
Q

Lymphoma

A

A neoplastic disorder of the lymphoid tissue

48
Q

Innate immune system vs adaptive immune system

A

Innate immune system provides physical and/or chemical barriers to protect from invasion by antigens
Adaptive immune system uses biochemical enzymes systems that produce antibodies

49
Q

Describe the components of the innate immune system.

A

Physical barries:
- skin
- physical and biochemical components of the nasopharynx, gut, lungs, or GI tract
- inflammatory response- chemicals released at the infected site to help kill pathogens

50
Q

Describe the sequence of events that comprise the immune system inflammatory response.

A

Chemicals are released from the infected site and cause the blood vessels to dilate and allow neutrophils to pass through the tissue to the infected site.
Neutrophils phagocytize the bacteria and kill the pathogens with chemicals stored in their cytoplasm.

51
Q

Describe the role of cytokines in the immune system.

A

small proteins that are crucial in controlling the growth and activity of other immune system cells and blood cells

52
Q

Humoral immunity vs. cell-mediated immunity

A

In humoral immunity responses, B cells produce antibodies after being activated by free antigens present in body fluids. In cell-mediated immunity responses, T cells attack infected body cells that display the antigens of pathogens on their surface.

53
Q

List the 5 classes of immunoglobulins.

A

IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE

54
Q

IgM

A

First antibody produced in response to an antigen
Structure: Pentameric molecule
Function: activation of complement

55
Q

IgG

A

Produced during the secondary immune response
Structure: small monomer
Function: neutralization of microbes and toxins; opsonization of microbes for phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils

56
Q

IgE

A

Structure: similar structure to IgG
Function: immediate hypersensitivity reactions and coating of helminth parasites for destruction by eosinophils

57
Q

IgA

A

Structure: dimer
Function: mucosal immunity and protection of respiratory, intestinal, and urogenital tracts

58
Q

IgD

A

Structure: monomer
Function: B lymphocyte surface antigen receptor in some species

59
Q

Describe the various populations of T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes and explain the role of each in the immune system.

A

T lymphocytes: helper T cells (recognize a phagocytized antigen as an antigen presenting cell) and cytolytic T cells (recognize antigen particles that are on the surface of infected body cells and that are able to lyse and kill the infected cells)
B lymphocytes: lymphoblast, prolymphocyte, and lymphocyte

60
Q

Passive vs. active immunity

A

Passive immunity: involves maternal antibodies in the colostrum or the injection of preformed antibodies
Active immunity: involves the introduction of vaccines to stimulate an immune response to a specific antigen

61
Q

Discuss sensitivity and specificity as they relate to immunologic test kits.

A

Sensitivity refers to the ability of the text to correctly identify all animals that are truly positive for a given reaction procedure.
Specificity is a measure of the numbers of false positives produced with the given reaction procedure.

62
Q

Describe sample collection and handling protocols for immunology testing.

A

Nearly all serologic tests require serum or plasma.
Whole blood should not be sent to the diagnostic laboratory.
Vacutainer preferred (red top for serum and lavender top for plasma)
Follow all directions for reference labs.

63
Q

List the types of diagnostic test kits that are available for the in-house veterinary practice laboratory.

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Rapid immunomigration or immunochromatigraphy (RIM)
Competitive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (CELISA)
Latex agglutination

64
Q

Describe the principle of ELISA testing.

A

Monoclonal antibody is bound to the well walls, test tray, or plastic wand
Antigen, if present, binds to the antibody and to a second enzyme-labeled antibody
Followed by rinsing
Color-producing substrates are added (reacts with the enzyme to indicate presence of antigen)
Relies on antibodies to detect a target antigen using highly specific antibody-antigen interactions

65
Q

Describe the principle of latex agglutination testing.

A

Uses small, spherical latex particles coated with an antigen suspended in water
If serum containing the correct antibody is added, agglutination occurs

66
Q

Describe the principle of rapid immunomigration testing.

A

Uses colloidal gold, enzymes, and color reagents or agglutinated latex particles
Antibodies present in the membrane of the test cassette where the sample is applied
Positive results show two areas of color, test, and control

67
Q

Describe the various blood group antigens of small and large animals.

A

RBC antigens are structures on the surface that react with antibodies in the plasma of other animals
Number of groups varies among species

68
Q

State the major blood groups of dogs.

A

More than a dozen groups
DEA 1
DEA 3
DEA 4
DEA 5
DEA 7

69
Q

State the blood group of cats.

A

AB system
A
B
AB

70
Q

Discuss the aspects of blood typing related to large animals.

A

Crossmatching should be done for breeding females to avoid potential production of antibodies against neonate RBCs

71
Q

Describe the tube method of blood typing.

A

The tube method involves mixing a suspension of red blood cells with antisera (or plasma, for reverse grouping) in a test tube. The mixture is centrifuged to separate the cells from the reagent, and then resuspended by gently agitating the tube. If the antigen of interest is present, the red blood cells agglutinate, forming a solid clump in the tube. If it is absent, the red blood cells go back into suspension when mixed.

72
Q

Describe the card agglutination method of blood typing.

A

Helps classify positive or negative DEA-1 for dogs and classify feline blood types for cats
Rapid and accurate
Rapid Vet H canine and feline test kit

73
Q

Describe the immunochromatographic method of blood typing.

A

The control band detects a separate antigen on the RBCs to help determine blood types

74
Q

Describe the procedures for major and minor crossmatching.

A

Requires a serum sample and a whole blood sample.
RBC suspensions are prepared.
For major crossmatching, a few drops of serum from the recipient are added to a few drops of washed packed RBCs from the donor. The mixture is incubated and centrifuged. The macroscopic or microscopic presence of hemolysis or agglutination indicates a blood-type mismatch.
For minor crossmatching, donor serum and recipient RBCs are used.

75
Q

Describe the indications for intradermal testing.

A

Patients suffering from allergies

76
Q

Describe the procedure for performing intradermal skin testing to detect allergens.

A

The patient is shaved on the lateral thorax and felt tip marker is used to mark injection sites (at least 2cm apart)
Saline is used for a negative control and histamine is used for a positive control
A 26-guage needle containing the allergen is injected into the skin
The marks are evaluated every 15-30 mins and graded based on controls and the diameter of the wheal

77
Q

List common allergens of veterinary species.

A

Foods
Drugs
Antisera, bacterins, and vaccines
Stinging and biting insects
Blood transfusions
Plants
Intestinal parasites
Sunlight
Atopy

78
Q

Describe the tuberculin skin test.

A

Commonly performed on cattle and primates
Tuberculin is injected ID at a site in the cervical region or in a skinfold at the base of the tail.
A delayed local inflammatory reaction is observed if the animal has been exposed to Mycobacterium.

79
Q

Describe the role of mast cells and basophils in allergic reactions.

A

Basophils or mast cells contain granules filled with histamine and release them during an allergic reaction which triggers the inflammatory process.

80
Q

Describe the principles of the Coombs test.

A

Used to detect auto-antibodies (am antibody against an individual’s own tissue)
Direct Coombs test diagnoses hemolytic disease
Indirect Coombs test detects circulating auto-antibodies

81
Q

Describe the fluorescent antibody testing.

A

2 methods: direct and indirect
Direct Method: A patient sample is added to a test slide precoated with a fluorescent-dye-conjugated antigen, which combines with the specific antibody if present.
Indirect Method: The patient sample is incubated on a slide containing the specific test antigen. The slide is washed, and then fluorescent-labeled antiantibody is added before being microscopically examined.

82
Q

Describe the principles of immunodiffusion and radioimmunoassay.

A

For immunodiffusion, patient serum samples diffuse through agar in a gel plate and react with diffusing antigen from other wells if antibody is present.
Radioimmunoassay is similar to CELISA but uses a radioisotope instead of an enzyme. Helps determine the concentration of antigen in the patient’s serum.

83
Q

Describe the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and explain its usefulness in diagnostic testing.

A

Designed to detect very small segments of DNA by amplifying the segments in a sample and then separating the segments produced using electrophoresis.
Useful in identifying pathogens, classifying cancers, detecting genetic defects, verifying animal pedigrees, and determining bacterial contaminants in food science.

84
Q

Describe the general steps of the polymerase chain reaction.

A

(1) denaturation of the template into single strands
(2) annealing of primers to each original strand for new strand synthesis
(3) extension of the new DNA strands from the primers

85
Q

Explain antibody titers and give an indication for their use.

A

Provides an indication of the ability of the immune system to respond to specific viral or bacterial infections based on the activity of the associated antibodies.
Used in lieu of routine annual vax

86
Q

Describe the four types of hypersensitivity reactions

A

Type 1: immediate hypersensitivity
- immediate reaction which causes chemical mediators to be released by mast cells

Type 2: antibody-mediated diseases
-antibodies are directed against the animal’s own cells or components of the extracellular matrix

Type 3: immune complex-mediated diseases
- occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that are deposited in various blood vessels

Type 4: T cell-mediated diseases
- caused by the reaction of T lymphocytes against self-antigens in tissues

87
Q

List conditions caused by Type 1 hypersensitivity.

A

Atopy
Anaphylaxis

88
Q

List conditions caused by type 2 hypersensitivity.

A

Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (IMT)
Neonatal isoerythrolysis
Transfusion reactions

89
Q

List conditions caused by type 3 hypersensitivity.

A

Glomerulonephritis in the kidney
Systemic lupus erythematosus

90
Q

List conditions caused by type 4 hypersensitivity.

A

Type 1 Diabetes
Rheumatoid arthritis
Chronic infections such as tuberculosis

Clin Path 2 (3 decks)

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