Clinical Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Hemolysis

A

The destruction of erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Icterus

A

yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes caused by an accumulation of bile pigment (bilirubin) in the blood
Also called jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lipemia

A

The presence of fatty material in plasma or serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Plasma

A

The fluid portion of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Reference range

A

Normal values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Serum

A

The fluid portion of blood after it has clotted
It does not contain cells or coagulation proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe proper sample processing for plasma samples

A
  1. Collect a blood sample in an appropriate container
  2. Mix the container with a gentle rocking motion
  3. Make sure the container is covered to prevent evaporation during centrifugation
  4. Centrifuge at 2000-3000 rpm for 10 minutes
  5. Carefully remove the fluid plasma layer from the bottom layer of cells with a capillary pipette
  6. Transfer the plasma to properly labeled container
  7. Process the sample immediately or refrigerate or freeze as needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe proper sample processing for serum samples.

A
  1. Collect a whole blood sample in a container that contains no anticoagulant
  2. Allow the blood to clot in its original container at room temp for 20-30 mins
  3. Gently separate the clot from the container by running a wooden applicator stick around the wall between the clot and the wall
  4. Cover the sample and centrifuge it at 2000-3000 rpm for 10 minutes
  5. Remove the serum from the clot with a capillary pipette
  6. Transfer the serum to an appropriately labeled container
  7. Refrigerate or freeze the sample as appropriate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Discuss the effects of sample quality in test results.

A

Lipemia: light scattering, volume displacement, or hemolysis
Hemolysis/blood substitutes: release of analytes, release of enzymes, reaction inhibition, increased optical density(absorbance), release of water
Icterus: spectral interference, chemical interaction
Hyperproteinemia: hyperviscosity, analyte binding, volume displacement
Medications: reaction interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List the common causes of sample compromise.

A

Lipemia
Hemolysis/blood substitutes
Icterus
Hyperproteinemia
Medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe how to minimize causes of hemolysis

A

Use a completely dry syringe
Remove the needle from the syringe before transferring the blood
Too much alcohol on the injection site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe how to minimize the causes of chemical contamination.

A

Tubes need to be chemically pure, and detergents completely rinsed from reusable tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe how to minimize the causes of improper labeling

A

ALWAYS label the tube with the date, time of collection, patient’s ID number or name
ALWAYS DOUBLE CHECK SAMPLE IDENTIFICATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe how to minimize the causes of improper sample handling.

A

All chemical measurements should be completed within 1 hour of sample collection or properly handled and stored
Samples cannot become too warm
If a sample is frozen, use gentle inversion after thawing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe how to minimize the causes of patient influences

A

Try to obtain sample from fasted animal
Water restriction is not necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Beer’s law

A

A principle that describes the relationship between light absorbance, transmission, and the concentration of a substance in a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

End point assay

A

A chemical reaction that proceeds to a stable end point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ion-selective electrode

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Kinetic assay

A

A chemical test that measures the rate of change of a substance in the test system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Optical density

A

The degree to which light is transmitted through a medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Reflectometer

A

an instrument for measuring quantities associated with reflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Spectrophotometer

A

A piece of equipment designed to measure the amount of light that is transmitted through a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the principle of refractometry

A

based on a transparent or translucent material’s ability to refract and shift light, also known as its refractive index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the principle of photometry

A

to measure the intensity of light by converting light into electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Differentiate between kinetic and end point assays

A

End-point essays form a stable product, while kinetic assays are more volatile
Kinetic assays use enzymes as reagents or are designed to measure enzyme concentrations
Kinetic assays are evaluated by measuring the difference in color changed at specific times after the reaction begins, while end-point assays use either a one-point calibration method or a standard curb to provide results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the features and benefits of dry system analyzers.

A

Include reagent-impregnated slides, pads, or cartridges
Most use reflectance assays
Have higher costs
Do not require reagent handling performing single tests is pretty simple
Can allow for loading large numbers of slides to minimize the time required to prepare the analyzer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List the features and benefits of liquid system analyzers.

A

Use a lyophilized reagent or an already prepared liquid reagent
Rotor-based systems tend to be quite accurate
More cost-effective but cannot run single tests
All can be integrated into a software system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the features and benefits of dedicated-use system analyzers.

A

Available for certain tests
Utilize electrochemical technology
Can be used if only a single test is requested or emergency situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acute-phase proteins

A

Proteins, including serum amyloid A and C-reactive protein, that are produced by hepatocytes immediately following injury or inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Alanine transaminase

A

Cytoplasmic enzyme of hepatocytes released when hepatocytes are damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Albumin

A

A group of plasma proteins that comprises the majority of protein in plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Alkaline phosphatase

A

A group of enzymes that functions at an alkaline pH and catalyzes the reactions of organic phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aspartate transaminase

A

An enzyme that is present in body serum and in certain body tissues that catalyzes the transfer of an amino group from aspartic acid to alpha-ketoglutaric acid, thereby forming glutamic acid and oxaloacetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Bile acids

A

A group of compounds that are synthesized by hepatocytes from cholesterol that help with fat absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bilirubin

A

An insoluble pigment derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin, which is processed by hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cholesterol

A

A plasma lipoprotein that is produced primarily in the liver as well as ingested in food
Used in the synthesis of bile acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Conjugated bilirubin

A

Bilirubin that has been taken up by the liver cells and conjugated to form the water-soluble compound bilirubin diglucuronide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Gamma glutamyltransferase

A

An intracellular enzyme found in high concentrations in liver, pancreatic, and renal tubular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Globulins

A

A complex group of plasma proteins that have been designated as alpha, beta, or gamma
Include immunoglobulins, complement, and transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Glutamate dehydrogenase

A

A mitochondrial-bound enzyme that is found in high concentrations in the hepatocytes of cattle, sheep, and goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hepatoencephalopathy

A

Severe hepatic insufficiency that may induce a syndrome of excitability, tremor, compulsive walking, head pressing, and apparemt blindness, followed by coma and convulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hyperlipoproteinemia

A

A condition characterized by excess lipids in the blood
Also called hyperlipidemia and hyperlipemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hyperproteinemia

A

An increased protein level in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Hypoalbuminemia

A

A decrease in the circulating levels of albumin in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

A decreased plasma glucose level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hypoproteinemia

A

A condition characterized by an abnormally low level of protein in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Iditol dehydrogenase

A

An enzyme of the oxidoreductase class that catalyzes the oxidation of l-iditol to l-fructose
Occurs in significant quantities only in the liver, and its increased activity in serum is used as an indicator of parenchymal liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Jaundice

A

A condition characterized by hyperbilirubinemia and the deposition of bile pigments in the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Protein

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

List the potential causes of alterations in serum proteins.

A

Disease conditions such as liver and kidney
Age-related changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Describe the commonly performed tests to measure total protein and albumin.

A

Fibrinogen values
Total protein is usually measured with a Refractometer
Most common test for albumin is dye-binding assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe the common method for determining globulin concentration.

A

Direct measurement of globulin isn’t usually performed
Globulin concentration is calculated by subtracting the albumin concentration from the total serum protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

List the commonly performed tests for the evaluation of the hepatobility system.

A

Bile acids test
Enzymes analyses
Phosphatases
Transferases
Dehydrogenases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the metabolism of bilirubin.

A

1) production
2) uptake by the hepatocyte
3) conjugation
4) excretion into bile ducts
5) delivery to the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Differentiate between conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin.

A

Conjugated bilirubin is not reabsorbed from the proximal intestine as mentioned above; in comparison
unconjugated bilirubin is partially reabsorbed across the lipid membrane of the small intestinal epithelium and undergoes enterohepatic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

List the leakage enzymes.

A

Alanine transaminase (ALT)
Aspartate transaminase (AST)
Iditol dehydrogenase (ID)
Glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Explain the significance of altered enzyme activity.

A

Temperature
pH
Substrate concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe the circulation of bile acids and the significance of altered bile activity.

A

Bile acids are released when the gallbladder contracts in association with feeding. Most bile acids enter the intestinal tract, where they participate in fat absorption. Some bile acids are then excreted with the feces, and some are absorbed through the portal circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Allantoin

A

A crystalline substance produced by the oxidation of uric acid by uricase and present in the urine of most mammals except primates and Dalmation dogs

60
Q

Azotemia

A

The increased retention of urea in the blood

61
Q

Blood urea nitrogen

A

The principal end product of amino acid breakdown in mammals

62
Q

Creatinine

A

A waste product that is formed during normal muscle cell metabolism

63
Q

Effective renal plasma flow

A

The effective rate of blood flow through the kidneys
The determining factor relative to the rate of glomerular filtration

64
Q

Enzymuria

A

The presence of specific enzymes in urine

65
Q

Fractional excretion of electrolytes

A

A mathematical manipulation that describes the excretion of specific electrolytes relative to the glomerular filtration rate

66
Q

Glomerular filtration rate

A

The rate at which substances are filtered through the glomerulus and excreted in the urine

67
Q

Uric acid

A

A metabolic by-product of nitrogen catabolism

68
Q

Discuss the role of kidneys in maintaining homeostasis.

A

They maintain the volume and composition of extracellular fluid and are involved in the excretion of metabolic waste products and other chemicals

69
Q

Describe the commonly performed tests of kidney function.

A

Blood urea nitrogen
Serum creatinine
BUN/Crea ratio
UP/Crea ratio
Uric acid

70
Q

Describe the relationship between urea nitrogen and creatinine

A

BUN and CREA have an inverse logarithmic relationship
Can be used to track progress of disease and effectiveness of treatment

71
Q

Discuss the tests for effective renal plasma flow and glomerular filtration rate.

A

Exogenous creatinine clearance
Endogenous creatinine clearance
Effective renal plasma flow (ERPF)
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Iohexol clearance
Single injection inulin clearance
Fractional clearance of electrolytes
Water deprivation tests
Inorganic phosphorus (Pi)

72
Q

Discuss the breakdown of nitrogenous products and the role of kidneys

A

Urea is the end product of amino acid breakdown in mammals
Kidneys remove nitrogenous waste (urea) from blood

73
Q

Acinar

A

Pertaining to or affecting an acinus or acini
Refers specifically to glandular tissue with a structure that is often described as grapevine clusters

74
Q

Amylase

A

An enzyme derived primarily from the pancreas that functions in the breakdown of starch

75
Q

Amyloclastic

A

A method of measuring serum amylase by evaluating the disappearance of starch substrate

76
Q

Endocrine

A

A term that refers to the system of glands and other structures that secrete hormones directly into the circulatory system

77
Q

Fructosamine

A

A molecule formed as a result of the irreversible reaction of glucose bound to protein

78
Q

Glucagon

A

A hormone secreted by the alpha cells of thenislets of Langerhans in response to hypoglycemia

79
Q

Glucose

A

A monosaccharide that represents the end product of carbohydrate tolerance

80
Q

Glucose tolerance

A

A metabolic test of carbohydrate tolerance

81
Q

Glycosylated hemoglobin

A

The irreversible reaction of hemoglobin bound to glucose

82
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

An abnormally increased glucose level in the blood

83
Q

Insulin

A

A protein hormone that is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets in response to elevated blood levels of glucose and amino acids

84
Q

Lipase

A

A pancreatic enzyme that functions in the breakdown of fats

85
Q

Pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity

A
86
Q

Trypsin

A

A proteolytic digestive enzyme that is produced by the exorcize pancreas and that catalyzes the breakdown of dietary proteins into peptones, peptides, and amino acids in the small intestine

87
Q

Trypsinogen

A

The inactive precursor form of trypsin
It is secreted in pancreatic juice and converted into active trypsin through the action of enterokinase in the intestine

88
Q

Differentiate between the acinar and endocrine functions of the pancreas.

A

Acinar functions: amylase and lipase
Endocrine functions: glucose, fructosamine, and glycosylated hemoglobin

89
Q

List and describe the common tests for the evaluation of the exocrine pancreas.

A

Amylase
Lipase
Amylase and lipase in peritoneal fluid
Trypsin
Serum trypsinlike immunoreactivity
Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity

90
Q

Explain the relationship between insulin, glucagon, and blood glucose.

A

Glucagon is a hormone that your pancreas makes to help regulate your blood glucose (sugar) levels. Glucagon increases your blood sugar level and prevents it from dropping too low, whereas insulin, another hormone, decreases blood sugar levels

91
Q

Describe the common tests that are used to evaluate patients for hyperglycemia

A

Fructosamine
Glycosylated Hemoglobin (Hemoglobin A1C)
B-hydroxybutyrate
Glucose tolerance

92
Q

Discuss the general concepts involved in the performance of glucose tolerance tests

A

Aid in diagnosing diabetes mellitus and in determining insulin regimens for diabetic patients
All tests require the patient to be given glucose (PO or IV) and then serial determinations of blood glucose levels are determined
It challenges the pancreas with a glucose load and measures the effect by evaluation of blood or urine concentrations
Prolonged hyperglycemia or glucosuria after a glucose tolerance test indicates diabetes mellitus

93
Q

Acid-base balance

A

A state of equilibrium between the acidity and alkalinity of the body fluids
Also called hydrogen ion balance

94
Q

Acidosis

A

A pathologic decrease in pH of blood or body tissues as a result of the accumulation of acids or a decrease in bicarbonate

95
Q

Alkalosis

A

A condition in which the blood pH is higher than 7.45

96
Q

Anion

A

A negatively charged ion

97
Q

Anion gap

A

Used to evaluate a patient’s acid-base status
Calculation is based on subtracting the sum of measured major serum anions from the sum of measured major serum cations

98
Q

Base excess

A

The amount of acid or base required to titration a sample of whole arterial blood to the normal pH of 7.4

99
Q

Bicarbonate

A

An electrolyte in plasma
Part of the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system that maintains the blood pH in equilibrium

100
Q

Buffers

A

A substance that increases the amount of acid or alkali necessary to produce a unit change in pH

101
Q

Calcium

A

The most abundant mineral in the body
Important cation in intracellular and extracellular fluid
Essential to normal clotting of blood, maintenance of normal heartbeat, and the initiation of neuromuscular and metabolic activities

102
Q

Cation

A

A positively charged ion

103
Q

Chloride

A

The principal anion in extracellular fluid and gastric juice

104
Q

Electrolytes

A

Any substance that dissociated into ioms when in solution

105
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

An increased plasma calcium level

106
Q

Hypercapnia

A

Am excess of carbon dioxide in the blood that is indicated by an elevated PCO2 level as determined by blood gas analysis and that results in respiratory acidosis

107
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

An increased plasma potassium level

108
Q

Hypernatremia

A

An increased plasma sodium level

109
Q

Hyperphosphatemia

A

An excessive amount of phosphates in the blood

110
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

A decreased plasma calcium level

111
Q

Hypocapnia

A

A deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood

112
Q

Hypokalemia

A

A decreased plasma potassium level

113
Q

Hyponatremia

A

A decreased plasma sodium level

114
Q

Hypophospatemia

A

A decreased amount of phosphates in the blood

115
Q

Describe the blood buffer systems and their role in the maintenance of the acid-base balance

A

Blood buffers counteract imbalance by altering H+ concentration to regulate the pH in acid-base balance

116
Q

Explain the effect of respiratory rate on the acid-base balance

A

a reduced respiratory rate will lead to a decreased pH; the more carbon dioxide is exhaled, the less carbon dioxide is present for this reaction

117
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

a condition that occurs when your lungs can’t remove all of the carbon dioxide produced by your body

118
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

a condition marked by a low level of carbon dioxide in the blood due to breathing excessively

119
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

A condition in which too much acid accumulates in the body

120
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

a disease state where the body’s pH is elevated to greater than 7.45 secondary to some metabolic process

121
Q

List the major cations in plasma and describe their roles.

A

Sodium: plays a role in water distribution and body fluid osmotic pressure maintenance
Potassium: important in normal muscular function, respiration, cardiac function, nerve impulse transmission, and carbohydrate metabolism
Calcium: found in bone
Magnesium: activates enzyme systems
Hydrogen:

122
Q

List the major anions in plasma and describe their roles

A

Chloride: plays a role in maintenance of water distribution, osmotic pressure, and normal anion/cation ratio
Bicarbonate: help keep a normal acid-base (pH) balance
Phosphate: energy storage, involvement in carbohydrate metabolism

123
Q

List common conditions related to altered serum electrolyte levels

A

Calcium: hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia
Chloride: hyperchloremia and hypochloremia
Magnesium: hypermagnesemia and hypomagnesemia
Phosphate: hyperphosphatemia or hypophosphatemia
Potassium: hyperkalemia and hypokalemia
Sodium: hypernatremia and hyponatremia

124
Q

Describe the anion gap evaluation and explain how it is calculated.

A

Any difference between the total positive charges and the total negative charges
(Na+K) - (Cl+HCO3) = Anion Gap

125
Q

ACTH stimulation test

A

A test designed to test the response of the hormone that stimulates adrenocorticol growth and secretion

126
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

A hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that has a stimulating effect in the adrenal cortex

127
Q

Cortisol

A

A steroid hormone produced by the adrenal glands

128
Q

Creatinine kinase

A

An enzyme that is found predominantly in cells of the heart, brain, and skeletal muscle
Released when cells are damaged

129
Q

Dexamethasone suppression test

A

An endocrine system test designed to detect hyperadrenocorticism

130
Q

Ethylene glycol

A

A solvent with a sweet, acrid taste that is found in many products such as antifreeze, drying agents, and inks
Ingestion or excessive skin exposure can be toxic

131
Q

Hematochezia

A

The presence of blood in the feces

132
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Disease)

A

The abnormally increased secretion of adrenocorticol hormones

133
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease)

A

A deficiency in the production of mineralcorticoid or glucocorticpid steroid hormones

134
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

A condition that is caused by the excessive production of iodinated thyroid hormones

135
Q

Lactate

A

The anionic form of lactic acid
A salt of lactic acid

136
Q

Melena

A

dark sticky feces containing partly digested blood

137
Q

Mucin clot test

A

The adding of acetic acid to normal synovial fluid, which causes clot formation
Compactness of the clot and the clarity of the supernatant fluid are the criteria on which the result is based

138
Q

Plumbism

A

A chronic form of lead poisoning that is caused by the absorption of lead or lead salts

139
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

A

A substance secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that controls the release of thyroid hormone and that is necessary for the growth and function of the thyroid gland

140
Q

Thyroxine

A

A hormone of the thyroid gland that is derived from tyrosine and that influences the metabolic rate

141
Q

Describe the relevance of creatine kinase testing for the diagnosis of liver or skeletal muscle damage.

A

Creatine kinase is produced in striated muscle cells and leaks out of damaged muscles
The test doesn’t reveal which muscle is damaged

142
Q

Describe the use of lactate evaluation for critical patients.

A

Presence of lactate does not indicate a specific disease but does indicate hypoxia or hypoperfusion

143
Q

Discuss the indications for ACTH stimulation and Dex suppression tests.

A

ACTH: evaluates the degree of adrenal gland response to administration of exogenous ACTH
Dex suppression: confirms or replaces ACTH response test for hyperadrenocorticism

144
Q

Discuss the production and action of thyroxine

A

Composed of T3 and T4
controls how much energy your body uses (the metabolic rate); it’s also involved in digestion, how your heart and muscles work, brain development and bone health

145
Q

Describe the chemical tests of gastrointestinal function.

A

Monosaccharide absorption tests
d-Xylose absorption
Fecal occult blood
Serum folate and cobalamin

146
Q

Describe the handling of samples for toxicology testing.

A

Samples must be free of contamination by environmental compounds and debris
Make sure it is LABELED!

147
Q

Describe common toxicology testing.

A

Nitrate or nitrite poisoning: diphenylamine test
Anticoagulant and reodenticides: coagulation panel
Chemicals that denatured hemoglobin: demonstration of Heinz bodies on a blood smear
Ethylene glycol: Urine sediments