Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Criteria for likely anaphylaxis?

A

An anaphylactic reaction is highly likely when the following 3 criteria are fulfilled:

Sudden onset and rapid progression of symptoms
Life-threatening Airway and / or Breathing and / or Circulation problems
Skin and/or mucosal changes (flushing, urticaria, angioedema)

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2
Q

Paediatric dosage of IM adrenaline to treat anaphylaxis?

A

1mg/mL (1:1000) concentration

> 12 years: 500 micrograms (0.5mL)
6-12 years: 300 micrograms (0.3mL)
6 months - 6 years: 150 micrograms (0.15mL)
Under 6 months: 100-150 micrograms (0.1-0.15)

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3
Q

Non shockable rhythms

A

Asystole

Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)

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4
Q

What is meant by allergy/allergen?

A

Allergy is an umbrella term for hypersensitivity of the immune system to allergens.

Allergens are proteins that the immune system recognises as foreign and potential harmful, leading to an allergic immune response.
These proteins are types of antigen.
Antigens are proteins that can be recognised by the immune system.

The body will come in contact with millions of different antigens, and very few will lead to a hypersensitivity reaction.

The ones that do are called allergens.

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5
Q

What is atopy?

A

Atopy is a term used to describe a predisposition to having hypersensitivity reactions to allergens.

It refers to the tendency to develop conditions such as eczema, asthma, hayfever, allergic rhinitis and food allergies.
These conditions are referred to as atopic conditions.
Patients often have more than one atopic condition, and atopy frequently runs in families.

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6
Q

The Importance of Establishing and Excluding Allergies

A

Having a food allergy can be a huge psycho-social burden, particularly in those who have anaphylaxis or an epipen. It means checking all food labels for ingredients, ensuring all those responsible for the child are aware (e.g. school, other parents and relatives) and being very cautious or avoiding eating out in restaurants or anywhere with unlabelled food, where allergens may have made their way into foods.

It is not uncommon for symptoms and histories of “allergy” to actually be a somatisation disorder rather than a true allergy. It is important to establish whether symptoms are down to an allergy, or more psychological, because an allergy diagnosis can lead to restrictive or unhealthy eating and do more harm than good. Allergy testing can play a role in reassuring patients that they do not have a true allergy to certain foods.

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7
Q

The skin sensitisation theory is currently the leading theory on the origin of allergies. This theory suggests which contributors to a child developing an allergy to a food?

A
  1. There is a break in the infant’s skin (from eczema or a skin infection) that allows allergens, such as peanut proteins, from the environment to cross the skin and react with the immune system.
  2. The child does not have contact with that allergen from the gastrointestinal tract, and there is an absence of GI exposure to the allergen.

The theory is that allergens entering through the skin are recognised by the immune system as being foreign and harmful proteins. The immune system reacts by becoming sensitised to that allergen, so that when it next encounters that allergen again it will launch a full immune response (an allergic reaction).

When a baby is weaned at around 6 months, if they are regularly eating foods that contain that allergen, their GI tract is regularly being exposed to that protein. The GI tract will recognise that allergen as a food and not a foreign or harmful protein, and inform the immune system that it is a safe thing to be exposed to.

The theory is that regular exposure to an allergen through food and preventing exposure to that allergen through the skin barrier can help prevent food allergies developing.

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8
Q

Examples of conditions that are due to hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Asthma
Atopic eczema
Allergic rhinitis
Hayfever
Food allergies
Animal allergies

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9
Q

The Coombs and Gell classification is used to describe the underlying pathology of different hypersensitivity reactions - what is meant by Type 1?

A

IgE antibodies to a specific allergen trigger MAST CELLS and BASOPHILS to release HISTAMINES and OTHER CYTOKINES

This causes an IMMEDIATE reaction

Typical food allergy reactions, where exposure to the allergen leads to an acute reaction, range from itching, facial swelling and urticaria to anaphylaxis.

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10
Q

The Coombs and Gell classification is used to describe the underlying pathology of different hypersensitivity reactions - what is meant by Type 2?

A

IgG and IgM antibodies react to an allergen and activate the COMPLEMENT SYSTEM, leading to direct damage to the local cells.

Examples are haemolytic disease of the newborn and transfusion reactions.

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11
Q

The Coombs and Gell classification is used to describe the underlying pathology of different hypersensitivity reactions - what is meant by Type 3?

A

IMMUNE COMPLEXS accumulate and cause damage to local tissues.

Examples are autoimmune conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

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12
Q

The Coombs and Gell classification is used to describe the underlying pathology of different hypersensitivity reactions - what is meant by Type 4?

A

CELL MEDIATED hypersensitivity reactions caused by T LYMPHOCYTES.

T-CELLS are inappropriately activated, causing inflammation and damage to local tissues. Examples are organ transplant rejection and contact dermatitis.

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13
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction example

A

Anaphylaxis
Asthma

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14
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction example

A

haemolytic disease of the newborn and transfusion reactions.

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15
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction example

A

Examples are autoimmune conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

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16
Q

Type 4 hypersensitvity reaction example

A

Examples are autoimmune conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

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17
Q

Important areas to cover in allergy history?

A

Timing after exposure to the allergen

Previous and subsequent exposure and reaction to the allergen

Symptoms of rash, swelling, breathing difficulty, wheeze and cough

Previous personal and family history of atopic conditions and allergies

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18
Q

What are the three main ways to test for allergy?

A

Skin prick testing

RAST testing, which involves blood tests for total and specific immunoglobulin E (IgE)

Food challenge testing

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19
Q

Strengths and weaknesses of various allergy tests?

A

Skin prick testing and RAST testing assess sensitisation and not allergy.
This is important, because it makes these tests notoriously unreliable and misleading.
They often come back showing that the patient is sensitised to many of the things you have tested for, and it becomes very challenging to explain to the child or their parents that the positive test results do not mean it is unsafe for the child to eat those foods.

Food challenge testing is the gold standard investigation for diagnosing allergy, however it requires a lot of time and resources and is only available in selected places.

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20
Q

Gold standard investigation for allergy diagnosis?

A

Food challenge

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21
Q

What does skin prick testing entail?

A

A patch of skin is selected, usually on the patients forearm.

Strategic allergen solutions are selected, for example peanuts, house dust mite and pollen.

A drop of each allergen solution is placed at marked points along the patch of skin, along with a water control and a histamine control.

A fresh needle is used to make a tiny break in the skin at the site of each allergen.

After 15 minutes, the size of the wheals to each allergen are assessed and compared to the controls.

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22
Q

How is patch testing performed and when is it useful?

A

Patch testing is the most helpful in determining an allergic contact dermatitis in response to a specific allergen. It is not helpful for food allergies. This could be for latex, perfumes, cosmetics or plants. A patch containing the allergen is placed on the patient’s skin.

The patch can either contain a specific allergen, or a grid of lots of allergens as a screening tool.

After 2 – 3 days the skin reaction to the patch is assessed.

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23
Q

What does RAST testing involve?

A

RAST testing measures the total and allergen specific IgE quantities in the patient’s blood sample. In a patient with atopic conditions such as eczema and asthma, the results will often come back positive for everything you test.

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24
Q

What does a food challenge involve?

A

A food challenge should be performed in a specialised unit with very close monitoring.

The child is gradually given increasing quantities of an allergen to assess the reaction, starting with almost non-existent quantities diluted further in other foods, for example mixing a small amount of peanut into a bar of chocolate.

Children are monitored very closely after each exposure.

This can be very helpful in excluding allergies for reassurance.

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25
Q

Allergy management?

A

Establishing the correct allergen is essential

Avoidance of that allergen

Avoiding foods that trigger reactions

Regular hoovering and changing sheets and pillows
in patients that are allergic to house dust mites

Staying in doors when the pollen count is high

Prophylactic antihistamines are useful when contact is inevitable, for example hayfever and allergic rhinitis

Patients at risk of anaphylactic reactions should be given an adrenalin auto-injector

In certain cases, specialist centres may initiate a lengthy process of gradually exposing the patients to allergens over months, called immunotherapy, with the aim of reducing their reaction to certain foods or allergens.

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26
Q

Management of allergic reaction

A
  • Antihistamines (e.g. cetirizine)
  • Steroids (e.g. oral prednisolone, topical hydrocortisone or IV hydrocortisone)
  • Intramuscular adrenalin in anaphylaxis

Antihistamines and steroids work by dampening the immune response to allergens. Close monitoring is essential after an allergic reaction to ensure it does not progress to anaphylaxis.

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27
Q

What is anaphylaxis, and what causes it?

A

Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening medical emergency.

It is caused by a severe type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) stimulates mast cells to rapidly release histamine and other pro-inflammatory chemicals.

This is called mast cell degranulation.

This causes a rapid onset of symptoms, with airway, breathing and/or circulation compromise.

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28
Q

The key feature that differentiates anaphylaxis from a non-anaphylactic allergic reaction is what?

A

compromise of the airway, breathing or circulation.

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29
Q

Presentation on anaphylaxis?

A

Patients present with a history of exposure to an allergen (although it can be idiopathic).

There will be rapid onset of allergic symptoms:

  • Urticaria
  • Itching
  • Angio-oedema, with swelling around lips and eyes
  • Abdominal pain

Additional symptoms that indicate anaphylaxis are:

  • Shortness of breath
  • Wheeze
  • Swelling of the larynx, causing stridor
  • Tachycardia
  • Lightheadedness
  • Collapse
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30
Q

Once a diagnosis of anaphylaxis is established, what three medications given to treat the reaction?

A

Intramuscular adrenalin, repeated after 5 minutes if required

Antihistamines, such as oral chlorphenamine or cetirizine

Steroids, usually intravenous hydrocortisone

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31
Q

Anaphylaxis A-E

A

A – Airway: Secure the airway, once diagnosis established (ie. respiratory distress/haemodynamic compromise/airway compromise) give IM Adrenalin 1/1000 0.5ml

B – Breathing: Provide oxygen if required. Salbutamol can help with wheezing.

C – Circulation: Provide an IV bolus of fluids

D – Disability: Lie the patient flat to improve cerebral perfusion

E – Exposure: Look for flushing, urticaria and angio-oedema

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32
Q

Anaphylaxis - management post event

A

All children should have a period of assessment and observation after an anaphylactic reaction, as biphasic reactions can occur, meaning they can have a second anaphylactic reaction after successful treatment of the first. Children should be admitted to the paediatric unit for observation.

Anaphylaxis can be confirmed by measuring the serum mast cell tryptase within 6 hours of the event. Tryptase is released during mast cell degranulation and stays in the blood for 6 hours before gradually disappearing.

Education and follow-up of the family and child is essential. They need to be educated about allergy, how to avoid allergens and how to spot the signs of anaphylaxis. Parents should be trained in basic life support. Specialist referral should be made in all children with anaphylaxis for diagnosis, education, follow up and training in how to use an adrenalin auto-injector.

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33
Q

How can you confirm anaphylaxis after the event?

A

Anaphylaxis can be confirmed by measuring the serum mast cell tryptase within 6 hours of the event.

Tryptase is released during mast cell degranulation and stays in the blood for 6 hours before gradually disappearing.

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34
Q

Epipen, Jext and Emerade are trade names for what?

A

Adrenalin auto-injector devices.

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35
Q

Indications for an Adrenalin Auto-Injector?

A

They are given to all children and adolescents with anaphylactic reactions.

They may also be considered in children with generalised allergic reactions (without anaphylaxis) with certain risk factors:

  • Asthma requiring inhaled steroids
  • Poor access to medical treatment (e.g. rural locations)
  • Adolescents, who are at higher risk
  • Nut or insect sting allergies are higher risk
  • Significant co-morbidities, such as cardiovascular disease
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36
Q

How to Use an Adrenalin Auto-Injector

A

The first step is to confirm the diagnosis of anaphylaxis.

Prepare the device by removing the safety cap on the non-needle end. There is a blue cap on EpiPen and a yellow cap on Jext.

Grip the device in a fist with the needle end pointing downwards. The needle end is orange on EpiPen and black on Jext. Do not put your thumb over the end, because if the device is upside down you will inject your thumb with adrenalin and could risk losing it.

Administer the injection by firmly jabbing the device into the outer portion of the mid thigh until the device clicks. This can be done through clothing. EpiPen advise holding it in place for 3 seconds and Jext advise 10 seconds before removing the device.

Remove the device and gently massage the area for 10 seconds.

Phone an emergency ambulance. A second dose may be given (with a new pen) after 5 minutes if required.

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37
Q

How long after the first dose of adrenalin should the second dose be given if required?

A

5 minutes

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38
Q

What is allergic rhinitis and why does it occur?

A

Allergic rhinitis is a condition caused by an IgE-mediated type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.

Environmental allergens cause an allergic inflammatory response in the nasal mucosa.

It is very common and can significantly affect sleep, mood, hobbies, work and school performance and quality of life.

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39
Q

How might allergic rhinitis be situational/variable?

A

Seasonal, for example hay fever

Perennial (year round), for example house dust mite allergy

Occupational, associated with the school or work environment

40
Q

Presentation of allergic rhinitis?

A

Allergic rhinitis typically causes:

  • Runny, blocked and itchy nose
  • Sneezing
  • Itchy, red and swollen eyes

Allergic rhinitis is associated with a personal or family history of other allergic conditions (atopy).

Diagnosis is usually made based on the history. Skin prick testing can be useful, particularly testing for pollen, animals and house dust mite allergy.

41
Q

Common triggers of allergic rhinitis?

A

Tree pollen or grass allergy leads to seasonal symptoms (hay fever)

House dust mites and pets can lead to persistent symptoms, often worse in dusty rooms at night.

Pillows can be full of house dust mites.

Pets can lead to persistent symptoms when the pet or their hair, skin or saliva is present

Other allergens lead to symptoms after exposure (e.g. mould)

42
Q

Management of allergic rhinitis?

A

Avoid the trigger. Hoovering and changing pillows regularly and allowing good ventilation of the home can help with house dust mite allergy. Staying indoors during high pollen counts can help with hay fever symptoms. Minimise contact with pets that are known to trigger allergies.

Oral antihistamines are taken prior to exposure to reduce allergic symptoms:
- Non-sedating antihistamines include cetirizine, loratadine and fexofenadine
- Sedating antihistamines include chlorphenamine (Piriton) and promethazine

Nasal corticosteroid sprays such as fluticasone and mometasone can be taken regularly to suppress local allergic symptoms.

Nasal antihistamines may be a good option for rapid onset symptoms in response to a trigger.

Referral to an immunologist may be necessary if symptoms are still unmanageable.

43
Q

Nasal spray technique

A

The aim when administering a nasal spray is to get a good coating throughout the nasal passage.

Hold the spray in the left hand when spraying into the right nostril and vice versa.

Aim to spray slightly outward, away from the nasal septum.

Do NOT sniff at the same time as spraying, as this sends the mist straight to the back of the throat.

The patient should not taste the spray at the back of the throat. If they do, that means it has gone too far.

44
Q

What age is typically affected by cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

Infants and children under 3 years

45
Q

Mediation of hypersensitivity reaction in cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

IgE mediated: rapid reaction to cow’s milk, occurring within 2 hours of ingestion

Non-IgE medicated: with reactions occurring slowly over several days.

46
Q

In which patients is cow’s milk allergy more common?

A

formula fed babies
those with a personal or family history of other atopic conditions

47
Q

How does cow’s milk intolerance differ from cow’s milk allergy

A

Cow’s milk allergy involves hypersensitivity to the protein in cow’s milk

People with cow’s milk protein allergy do not have an allergy to lactose. Lactose is a sugar, not a protein. Cow’s milk intolerance is not an allergic process and does not involve the immune system.]

Cow’s milk intolerance presents with the same gastrointestinal symptoms as cow’s milk allergy (bloating, wind, diarrhoea and vomiting), however it does not give the allergic features (rash, angio-oedema, sneezing and coughing).

Infants with cow’s milk allergy will not be able to tolerate cow’s milk at all, as it causes an allergic reaction, whereas infants with cow’s milk intolerance will be able to tolerate and continue to grow and develop, but will suffer with gastrointestinal symptoms whilst having cow’s milk.

Infants with cow’s milk intolerance will grow out of it by 2 – 3 years. They can be fed with breast milk, hydrolysed formulas and weaned to foods not containing cow’s milk. After one year of age they can be started on the milk ladder.

48
Q

Before what age does cow’s milk protein allergy present?

A

Before 1 year

49
Q

When might cow’s milk protein allergy become apparent?

A

It may become apparent when weaned from breast milk to formula milk or food containing milk.

It can present in breastfed babies when the mother is consuming dairy products.

50
Q

Signs/symptoms of cow’s milk protein allergy

A

Gastrointestinal symptoms:

  • Bloating and wind
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Vomiting

General allergic symptoms in response to the cow’s milk protein:

  • Urticarial rash (hives)
  • Angio-oedema (facial swelling)
  • Cough or wheeze
  • Sneezing
  • Watery eyes
  • Eczema

Rarely in severe cases anaphylaxis can occur.

51
Q

Diagnosis of cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

The diagnosis is made based on a full history and examination. Skin prick testing can help support the diagnosis but is not always necessary.

52
Q

Management of cow’s milk protein allergy

A

Avoiding cow’s milk should fully resolve symptoms:

  • Breast feeding mothers should avoid dairy products
  • Replace formula with special hydrolysed formulas designed for cow’s milk allergy
    Hydrolysed formulas contain cow’s milk, however the proteins have been broken down so that they no longer trigger an immune response.
    In severe cases infants may require elemental formulas made of basic amino acids (e.g. neocate).

Most children will outgrow cow’s milk protein allergy by age 3, often earlier.

Every 6 months or so, infants can be tried on the first step of the milk ladder (e.g. malted milk biscuits) and then slowly progress up the ladder until they develop symptoms. Over time they should gradually be able to progress towards a normal diet containing milk.

53
Q

By what age do most children outgrow cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

Most children will outgrow cow’s milk protein allergy by age 3, often earlier.

54
Q

What is considered a normal number of respiratory infections in a child?

A

It is normal for a healthy child to have 4 – 8 respiratory infections per year.

When starting nursery or school and during winter months children are likely to pick up recurrent infections.

55
Q

Most children with recurrent infections have a normal immune system.

Other features associated with recurrent infections may make you consider investigating further for immunodeficiency and other pathology. Children with what features should be referred to a specialist for further assessment?

A

Chronic diarrhoea since infancy

Failure to thrive

Appearing unusually well with quite a severe infection, for example afebrile with a large pneumonia

Significantly more infections than expected, particularly bacterial lower respiratory tract infections

Unusual or persistent infections such as cytomegalovirus, candida and pneumocystis jiroveci

56
Q

INvestigating recurrent infections?

A

Full blood count: low neutrophils suggest a phagocytic disorder and low lymphocytes suggest a T cell disorder

Immunoglobulins: abnormalities suggest a B cell disorders

Complement proteins: abnormalities suggest a complement disorder

Antibody responses to vaccines, specifically pneumococcal and haemophilus vaccines

HIV test if clinically relevant

Chest xray for scarring from previous chest infections

Sweat test for cystic fibrosis

CT chest for bronchiectasis

57
Q

What is SCID?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is the most severe condition causing immunodeficiency.

Children with SCID have almost no immunity to infections.

It is a syndrome caused by a number of different genetic disorders that result in absent or dysfunctioning T and B cells.

58
Q

How does severe combined immunodeficiency present?

A

SCID will present in the first few months of life with:

  • Persistent severe diarrhoea
  • Failure to thrive
  • Opportunistic infections that are more frequent or severe than in healthy children, for example severe and later fatal chickenpox, Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and cytomegalovirus
  • Unwell after live vaccinations such as the BCG, MMR and nasal flu vaccine
  • Omenn syndrome
59
Q

What causes SCID?

A

More than 50% of cases are caused by a mutations in the common gamma chain on the X chromosome that codes for interleukin receptors on T and B cells. This has X-linked recessive inheritance.

There are many other gene mutations that can lead to SCID including:

  • JAC3 gene mutations
  • Mutations leading to adenosine deaminase deficiency
60
Q

What causes most cases of SCID?

A

Mutations in the common gamma chain on the X chromosome that codes for interleukin receptors on T and B cells.

This has X-linked recessive inheritance.

61
Q

What is Omenn syndrome?

A

Omenn syndrome is a rare cause of SCID.

It is the result of a mutation in the recombination-activating gene (RAG 1 or RAG 2) that codes for important proteins in T and B cells.

It has autosomal recessive inheritance.

The syndrome is caused by abnormally functioning and deregulated T cells that attack the tissues in the fetus or neonate.

This leads the classic features of Omenn syndrome:

  • A red, scaly, dry rash (erythroderma)
  • Hair loss (alopecia)
  • Diarrhoea
  • Failure to thrive
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
62
Q

What are the features of Omenn syndrome?

A
  • A red, scaly, dry rash (erythroderma)
  • Hair loss (alopecia)
  • Diarrhoea
  • Failure to thrive
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
63
Q

How is SCID managed?

A

SCID is fatal unless successfully treated.

Management should be in a specialist immunology centre.

Management involves treating underlying infections, immunoglobulin therapy, minimising the risk of new infections with a sterile environment, avoiding live vaccines and performing haematopoietic stem cell transplantation.

64
Q

What is the role of B cells, and what problems arise when they are abnormal?

A

B cells are responsible for producing antibodies, an essential component of the specific immune system.

Abnormal B cells lead to a deficiency in immunoglobulins (antibodies).

Deficiency in immunoglobulins is called hypogammaglobulinemia.

Clinically, this leads to a susceptibility to recurrent infections, particularly lower respiratory tract infections.

65
Q

What is the most common immunoglobulin deficiency?

A

Selective Immunoglobulin A Deficiency

66
Q

Selective Immunoglobulin A Deficiency immunoglobulin levels?

A

Patients have low levels of IgA and normal levels of IgG and IgM.

67
Q

Where is IgA found and what is its role?

A

IgA is present in secretions of the mucous membranes, such as saliva, respiratory tract secretions, GI tract secretions, tears and sweat.

IgA protects against opportunistic infections of these mucous membranes.

68
Q

Why is Selective IgA deficiency rarely diagnosed?

A

Selective IgA deficiency is a mild immunodeficiency.

Patients are often asymptomatic and never diagnosed.

Patients have a tendency to recurrent mucous membrane infections, such as lower respiratory tract infections, and autoimmune conditions.

The place you are likely to come across IgA deficiency is when testing for coeliac disease. The blood tests for coeliac disease are the IgA levels of anti-TTG and anti-EMA antibodies. When you test for these antibodies, it is important to also test for total immunoglobulin A levels. If the total IgA is low due to an IgA deficiency, the coeliac test will be negative, even when they have coeliac disease. In this circumstance, you can test for the IgG version of anti-TTG or anti-EMA antibodies or simply do an endoscopy with biopsies.

69
Q

What causes common variable immunodeficiency?

A

A genetic mutation in the genes coding for components of B cells.

70
Q

Immunoglobulin levels in common variable immunodeficiency?

A

Deficiency in IgG and IgA, with or without a deficiency in IgM

71
Q

What does common variable immunodeficiency lead to?

A

This leads to recurrent respiratory tract infections, typically leading to chronic lung disease over time.

Patients are unable to develop immunity to infections or vaccinations.

They are also prone to immune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, and cancers such as non-Hodgkins lymphoma.

Management is with regular immunoglobulin infusions and treating infections and complications as they occur.

72
Q

How is common variable immunodeficiency managed?

A

Management is with regular immunoglobulin infusions and treating infections and complications as they occur.

73
Q

What is X-linked agammaglobulinaemia?

A

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia is also known as Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia. This is an X-linked recessive condition.

It results in abnormal B cell development and deficiency in all classes of immunoglobulins.

It causes similar issues to common variable immunodeficiency.

74
Q

Which disorder causes deficiency in all classes in immunoglobulins?

A

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia

75
Q

Conditions that cause abnormal or absent T cells will result in immunodeficiency. Examples of these disorders are?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
Purine Nucleos
Ataxic Telangiectasiaide Phosphorylase Deficiency
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

76
Q

What is the abnormality and it’s consequence in DIGeorge Syndrome?

A

DiGeorge syndrome, also called 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, results from a microdeletion in a portion of chromosome 22 that leads to a developmental defect in the
third pharyngeal pouch and third branchial cleft

One of the consequences of this is incomplete development of the thymus gland.

An underdeveloped thymus gland results in an inability to create functional T cells.

77
Q

Features of DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Features of DiGeorge syndrome can be remembered with the CATCH-22 mnemonic:

C – Congenital heart disease
A – Abnormal facies (characteristic facial appearance)
T – Thymus gland incompletely developed
C – Cleft palate
H – Hypoparathyroidism and resulting Hypocalcaemia
22nd chromosome affected

78
Q

What inheritance pattern does purine nucleoside phosphorylase have?

A

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency is an autosomal recessive condition.

79
Q

What is the abnormality in PNP deficiency

A

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency is an autosomal recessive condition.

PNPase is an enzyme that helps breakdown purines. Without this enzyme, a metabolite called dGTP builds up.

This metabolite is exclusively toxic to T cells.

Increased levels of dGTP causes low levels of T-lymphocytes.

There are normal levels of B cells and immunoglobulins.

Clinically, patients immunity to infection gradually gets worse. They become increasingly susceptible to infections, particularly viruses and live vaccines.

80
Q

T cell, B cell and immunoglobulin levels in PNP deficiency

A

Low-levels of lymphocytes

There are normal levels of B cells and immunoglobulins.

81
Q

What is the clinical consequence of PNP deficiency

A

Clinically, patients immunity to infection gradually gets worse. They become increasingly susceptible to infections, particularly viruses and live vaccines.

82
Q

What is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked recessive condition with a mutation on the WAS gene.

It causes abnormal functioning of T cells.

83
Q

Clinical features of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)?

A

Thrombocytopenia

Immunodeficiency

Neutropenia

Eczema

Recurrent infections

Chronic bloody diarrhoea

84
Q

What is Ataxic telangiectasia?

A

Ataxic telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive condition affecting the gene coding for the ATM serine/threonine kinase protein on chromosome 11.

This protein is important in several functions of DNA coding, meaning that a mutation in this gene leads to problems coding for many other genes.

85
Q

Clinical features of ataxic telangiectasia?

A

Low numbers of T-cells and immunoglobulins, causing immunodeficiency and recurrent infections.

Ataxia: problems with coordination due to cerebellar impairment

Telangiectasia, particularly in the sclera and damaged areas of skin

Predisposition to cancers, particularly haematological cancers

Slow growth and delayed puberty

Accelerated ageing

Liver failure

86
Q

What are complement disorders?

A

Complement disorders affect the complement proteins that make up the complement system, which helps destroy pathogenic cells.

Complement proteins are most important in dealing with encapsulated organisms, such as:

Haemophilus influenza B
Streptococcus pneumonia
Neisseria meningitidis

87
Q

Complement proteins are most important in dealing with encapsulated organisms, such as?

A

Haemophilus influenza B

Streptococcus pneumonia

Neisseria meningitidis

88
Q

What problems do complement deficiencies cause?

A

Deficiencies in complement proteins result in a vulnerability to certain infective organisms, leading to recurrent infections with these organisms.

Complement deficiencies make children particularly susceptible to infections of the respiratory tract, ears and throat.

Complement deficiencies are also associated with immune complex disorders, such as systemic lupus erythematous, as an incomplete complement cascade leads to immune complexes building up and being deposited in tissues, leading to chronic inflammation.

Vaccination against encapsulated organisms is very important in patients with complement deficiencies.

89
Q

What is the most common complement deficiency?

A

C2 deficiency

90
Q

What is C1 Esterase Inhibitor Deficiency (Hereditary Angioedema)?

A
  • An absence of C1 esterase causes intermittent angioedema in response to minor triggers, such as viral infections or stress, or without any clear trigger at all.
  • Bradykinin is part of the inflammatory response. It is responsible for promoting blood vessel dilatation and increased vascular permeability, leading to angioedema.
  • Part of the action of C1 esterase is to inhibit bradykinin.

Angioedema often affects the lips or face but can occur anywhere on the body, including the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract. The swelling can last several few days before self resolving. Angioedema can occur in the larynx and compromise the patients airway. Patients can be treated with intravenous C-1 esterase inhibitor as prophylaxis before dental or surgical procedures or in response to acute attacks of angioedema.

91
Q

How can C1 Esterase Inhibitor Deficiency (Hereditary Angioedema) be managed?

A

Patients can be treated with intravenous C-1 esterase inhibitor as prophylaxis before dental or surgical procedures or in response to acute attacks of angioedema.

92
Q

What is Mannose-Binding Lectin Deficiency and when does it cause problems?

A

A deficiency in mannose-binding lectin leads to inhibition of the alternative pathway of the complement system.

It is relatively common in the general population and in otherwise healthy individuals, it seems to be relatively unimportant and does not seem to cause major immunodeficiency.

In patients who are otherwise susceptible to infection (e.g. cystic fibrosis) this can lead to a more severe variant of their existing disease.

93
Q

Which children are at risk of undervaccination

A
  • Children in large families.
  • Children with lone or single parents.
  • Looked after children.
  • Children in mobile families.
  • Migrant/asylum seeking children.
  • Children with disabling or chronic conditions.
  • Children in ethnic minority groups.
94
Q

Contraindications for vaccination

A

Previous anaphylaxis to a vaccine or vaccine component (e.g. neomycin, gelatine). True
allergic reactions to vaccines can occur to any vaccine BUT are very rare (0.5-3/million
vaccine doses).
* Primary or acquired immunodeficiency. Live vaccines can cause severe or even fatal
infections in immunocompromised individuals due to excessive replication of the vaccine
strain. Live vaccines available in the UK are:
* BCG
* Influenza
* Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
* Rotavirus
* Typhoid
* Varicella and Shingles
* Yellow fever
* Immunosuppressive therapy. e.g. immunosuppressive chemotherapy or radiotherapy,
immunosuppressive biologicals, high-dose steroids).
* Contact with individuals with immunodeficiency or current/recent immunosuppressive
therapy

Temporary deferral:
* Acutely unwell e.g. with fever >38.5°C. Postpone immunisation until well.
* Immunoglobulin therapy. May interfere with immune response of live vaccines.

95
Q

Temporary defferal of vaccination

A
  • Acutely unwell e.g. with fever >38.5°C. Postpone immunisation until well.
  • Immunoglobulin therapy. May interfere with immune response of live vaccines.