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Osha 2a > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Proteins secreted by immune and non-immune cells

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2
Q

What are the different types of cytokines?

A
  • Interferons
  • Interleukins
  • Colony stimulating factors
  • Tumour necrosis factors
  • chemokines
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3
Q

What is the role of interferons?

A

Induce a state of antiviral resistance in unaffected cells limiting the spread of infection

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4
Q

What is the role of interleukins?

A

Cause cells to divide, differentiate and secrete factors. Can be pro or anti-inflammatory.

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5
Q

What is the role of colony stimulating factors?

A

Stimulate growth and differentiation of immature leukocytes in bone marrow

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6
Q

What is the role of tumour necrosis factors?

A

Mediate a pro-inflammatory response in cytotoxic reactions

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7
Q

What are chemokines and what do they do?

A

Direct leukocyte movement, certain chemokines attract certain white blood cells.

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8
Q

What is innate immunity?

A
  • Rapid
  • non-specific
  • doesn’t depend on lymphocytes
  • present from birth
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9
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A
  • specific
  • learned
  • requires lymphocytes and antibodies
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10
Q

What are clinical indications of allergy?

A
  • Skin: swelling, itching, redness
  • Airways: mucus, bronchoconstriction
  • GI: bloating, vomiting
  • Anaphylaxis: airways, breathing, circulation
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11
Q

What is allergy?

A

abnormal response to harmless foreign material (antigens)

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12
Q

What is the pathogenesis of allergy?

A
  • involves IgE, IgG4 and IgA
  • genetic factors
  • mast cells, eosinophils, basophils
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13
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A
  • overreaction of the immune system to an antigen which would not normally trigger a response
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14
Q

What is type 1 hypersensitivity?

A
  • occurs on second exposure to antigen/drug
  • IgE antibodies formed after exposure to molecule
  • IgE becomes attached to mast cells/leucocytes, expressed as cell surface receptor
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15
Q

What happens upon re-exposure to an allergen?

A
  • mast cell degranulation
  • release of histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, platelet activating factor
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16
Q

What are the symptoms of anaphylaxis?

A
  • occurs with in minutes, lasts 1-2 hrs
  • vasodilation
  • inc vascular permeability
  • bronchoconstriction
  • urticaria
  • angio-oedema
  • 1-20% have biphasic response
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17
Q

What common diseases have vaccines?

A
  • diphtheria
  • mumps
  • tetanus
  • poliomyelitis
  • smallpox
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18
Q

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

I: Immediate: IgE antibodies
II: cytotoxic: IgG/IgM antibodies
III: Immune complex: IgG/IgM: IgM is released mainly in the primary response and IgG is released thereafter
IV: Delayed: T lymphocyte mediated

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19
Q

What is ABCDE in anaphylaxis?

A

airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure

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20
Q

What does IgG do?

A
  • most abundant
  • present on mature B cells and in serum
  • only antibody that can cross placenta and gives passive immunity
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21
Q

What does IgM do?

A
  • found on the surface of and secreted by B cells
  • 1st type produced in foetal development and against new infection
22
Q

What does IgA do?

A
  • most prevalent in secretions like saliva and mucus
  • resistant to enzymatic digestion and act as neutralising antibodies
  • forms barriers at mucosal surfaces preventing pathogenic invasion
23
Q

What does IgE do?

A
  • Mainly found on mast cells
  • associated with type 1 hypersensitivity
  • triggers histamine release from mast cells and basophils
  • part of response to parasitic infection
24
Q

What does IgD do?

A
  • present on surface of B cells
  • has a role in B cell and antibody production
25
Q

What are major histocompatibility proteins?

A
  • important in graft regeneration
  • very polymorphic
  • major role in initiating T cell responses
26
Q

What is the role of MHC 1?

A
  • expressed by all nucleated cells
  • displays antigen to CD8 positive (cytotoxic) T cells
27
Q

What is the role of MHC 2?

A
  • expressed by macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells
  • display antigen to CD4 positive (helper) T cells
28
Q

What is the process of T cell antigen recognition?

A
  • viral proteins broken down in cytosol and transported to ER
  • Bind to MHC1 and are presented on the cell surface
  • Activated cytotoxic T cells induce apoptosis
  • Helper T cell recognises peptide bound to MHC2
  • Peptides bind to MHC2 in endosomes and are presented
  • B cells induced
29
Q

What is the complement cascade and what are the 3 modes of action?

A
  • serum proteins secreted by the liver and activated as part of the immune response
  • direct lysis: membrane attack complex formation
  • opsonisation: inc phagocytosis
  • inflammation: macrophage chemotaxis
30
Q

What are the 3 modes of action of the complement cascade?

A
  1. direct lysis
  2. attract more leukocytes to site of infection
  3. coat invading organism
31
Q

How do T cells recognise antigens in association with MHCs?

A
  • MHC molecule presents peptide
  • antigen peptide bound to MHC molecule
  • T cell receptor recognises MHC and peptide
32
Q

What can secreted antibody do?

A
  • neutralise toxin by binding to it
  • increase opsonisation > phagocytosis
  • activate complement
33
Q

What are pathogen associated molecular patterns?

A
  • substances unique to pathogens
  • dsRNA
34
Q

What are TLRs?

A
  • pattern recognition receptors on cells of the innate immune system that allow them to recognise PAMPs
35
Q

What is the role of natural killer (NK) cells?

A

Release lytic granules that kill virus infected cells

36
Q

What are some features of active immunity?

A
  • produced by host immune system
  • durable, effective protection
  • effective after lag period
  • immunological memory
  • negative phase
37
Q

What are some features of passive immunity?

A
  • pooled antibodies transferred into host
  • transient (lasts short time) and less effective
  • no lag period or memory
  • no negative phase
38
Q

What is immunodeficiency?

A
  • the failure of the immune system to protect the body from infection
  • due to a defect in immune function or a deficiency in a component of the immune system
39
Q

What is autoimmunity?

A
  • a breakdown of immune tolerance
  • this is the unresponsiveness of the immune system to self antigens
40
Q

How do B cells mature?

A
  • arise from common lymphoid progenitor in bone marrow
  • selection processes
  • migrate from BM to lymphoid follicles in spleen and areas of lymphoid activation and defence
41
Q

What is positive selection in B cells?

A
  • only functional receptors develop further
  • B cells successfully bind to its ligand and induce survival signals
42
Q

What is negative selection in B cells?

A
  • B cells respond to self antigens in BM
  • undergo receptor editing, anergy, apoptosis
  • reduces risk of autoimmune reactions
43
Q

Where are B cells commonly found?

A
  • Peyer’s patches of colon
  • mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
  • BALT (bronchial)
  • mucosal linings
44
Q

What type of PAMPs do these TLRs identify and which pathogens are they found on:
- TLR 2
- TLR 4
- TLR 5
- TLR 9?

A
  • TLR2: peptidoglycans on gram +ve bacteria
  • TLR 4: lipopolysaccharide on gram -ve bacteria
  • TLR 5: flagellin on bacteria
  • TLR 9: dsDNA on viruses
45
Q

What do the cytokines interferon α and β do?

A
  • released by T cells, B cells, macrophages
  • inhibit viral replication
46
Q

What are monocytes?

A
  • phagocytes found in the bloodstream
  • differentiate into macrophages
  • kidney bean shaped nucleus
47
Q

What are macrophages?

A
  • derived from monocytes, found in tissues
  • phagocytose cellular debris
  • antigen presenting, induce inflammation, recruit cells
  • e.g. microglia, Kupffer cells
48
Q

What are neutrophils?

A
  • most abundant WBC
  • phagocytic, 1st in acute inflammation
  • release cytokines and induce inflammation
49
Q

What is a basophil?

A
  • Mature into mast cells
  • Express surface IgE and release histamine
  • Role in allergies and immunity
  • prevent coagulation and agglutination
  • NON phagocytic
50
Q

What is an eosinophil?

A
  • phagocytic
  • neutralise histamine and restrict inflammatory response
  • antagonist to basophils
  • present in parasitic infection

Osha 2a (15 decks)

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