Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

HIV gp____binds to the T-cells _____ receptors. The viral gp_____ then binds to the coreceptor_______ or _______. The gp______ then fuses with the cellular membrane and the HIV virus enters the cell.

A

HIV gp120 binds to the T-cells CD4 receptors. The viral gp120 then binds to the corecptor CCR5 or CXCR4. The gp41 then fuses with the cellular membrane and the HIV virus enters the cell.

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2
Q

What are opportunistic infections?

A

Infections that take advantage of a weakened immune system (ie - HIV) and cause many problems (ie - Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia). Under normal conditions, these infections would be quickly eradicated by the immune system.

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3
Q

What component in the blood is used to determine if someone has been infected with HIV? When is this compound present?

A

Antibodies produced against the HIV virus. This typically occur 2-3 weeks after infection.

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4
Q

What 2 tests are conducted to confirm if someone has an HIV infection?

A
  1. Commercial EIA (enzyme immunoassay) detect antibodies to multiple HIV proteins. (highly sensitive)
  2. Western Blot assay idenfies antibodies against specific HIV proteins.

A positive EIA test requires a second test (western blot) to confirm an HIV infection.

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5
Q

What is seroconversion?

A

Seroconversion occurs when an individual presents antibodies to an infections like HIV. Prior to seroconversion, the individual is in a seronegative window and is highly infectious.

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6
Q

What are the 2 major coreceptors HIV uses to gain access to the host cell? What are the names given to these viruses? What type is more prevelant

A
  • CCR5 - macrophage tropic viruses (receptor is more prevelant on macrophages and langerhans dentritic cells)
  • CXCR4 - lymphotrophic viruses (receptors are more prevelant on CD4+ lymphocytes)
  • Some strains use both
  • CCR5 is the more prevelant type of HIV infection.

Approx. 15% of caucasians have a heterozygous mutation to CCR5. 1% who are of european decent are homozygous. This can lead to a resistance to macrophage tropic HIV virions.

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7
Q

HIV may lay dormant in a CD4 T-cell for years. What can trigger the virus to suddenly spring to life?

A

An infection that causes the T-Cell to activate.

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8
Q

What is the viral setpoint? What causes it to be high or low? What is the prognosis for someone who has a high viral set point?

A

The viral set point is the amount of HIV virus established in the blood serum after the initial immune response. The viral set point is determined by the CD8+ response of the host towards HIV infected cells (CD4 cells). People with higher set points will have a more rapid fall of CD4 over time which is correlated with a more rapid progression of AIDS.

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9
Q

Describe the cell mediated immune response to HIV

A

During an acute HIV infection, CD4 T-cells are presented with HIV antigens. Those that react positively, will proliferate and attempt to help kill HIV. However, proliferating/active CD4 T-cells are the best targets of HIV. HIV infects, replicates, and kills the very cells that are most likely to clear the virus.

With the lack of HIV specific CD4 T-cells, CD8 T-cells (who rely on the CD4 cells) will not be able to function properly. Without CD8 t-cells, the virus will persist in infected cells.

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10
Q

Describe what occurs in a hots immune response after treatment with anti-retro viral treatment (ART).

A
  • ART will decrease the level of viremia in the plasma
  • This increases the levels of CD4+ cells (no virus to kill them)
  • This improves immune response to opportunistic infections
  • However, less virus–>less antigens–>less HIV specific CD4 T-cells
  • HIV will remain dormant in memory T-cells (viral resovoir)
  • Stopping ART will cause an increase in replication and an explosion of HIV viruses.
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11
Q

In HIV infected patients, what is the CD4 count an indicator of? What is a normal CD4 count? What is the count for someone with AIDS?

A
  • The CD4 count is an indicator of immune system damage caused by HIV.
  • Normal ~1000 cells/mm
  • AIDS <200 cells/mm
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12
Q

On what chromosome are MHC molecules coded?

A

Chromosome 6

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13
Q

What is the purpose of MHC molecules?

A

For immune cells to distinguish self from non-self

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14
Q

What is an allogeneic transplant?

A

Cells or tissues are transplanted from one individual to another, need therapeutic intervention to prevent rejection

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15
Q

What is an autologous transplant?

A

An individual receives a transplant of cells or tissues from one’s self (common in bone marrow transplants), biologically equivalent to transplant from genetically identical individual (twin)

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16
Q

What are the structural differences between MHC class I and MHC class II molecules?

A

MHC class I: 1 chain (different for each isotype), 1 beta-2 microglobulin molecule (the same molecule for all isotypes

MHC class II: 1 alpha chain, 1 beta chain

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17
Q

On what cells in the body are MHC class I molecules present? MHC class II?

A

MHC class I: all cells in the body (except RBCs and neurons)

MHC class II: antigen-presenting cells (dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells)

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18
Q

What is an alloantigen? What are 2 examples?

A

Proteins that vary between members of the same species

Examples: HLA molecules and AB antigens on RBCs

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19
Q

Describe the endogenous (cytosolic) pathway.

What MHC class is used? What cells do they present to? Against what pathogen types is this pathway mostly used?

A

MHC class I molecules present antigens derived from proteins MADE IN CELL, therefore used mostly against viruses and tumor cells

  1. Intracellular proteins are broken down into peptides in proteosomes (protein complexes that degrade unneeded, damaged, or excess proteins in cells) in cytoplasm
  2. Peptides are loaded into empty MHC class I molecules in ER (transported there by transporter associated with antigen processing, TAP) and transported to cell surface
  3. Antigens are presented to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
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20
Q

Describe the exogenous (endosomal) pathway.

What MHC class is used? What cells do they present to? Against what pathogen types is this pathway mostly used?

A

MHC class II molecules present antigen from peptides phagocytosed by APCs, therefore mostly used against bacteria

  1. Extracellular proteins are endocytosed by phagocytic cells
  2. Endosomes fuse w/ lysosomes and proteases degrade proteins into peptides
  3. MHC class II molecules in late endosomes are loaded with peptides and transported to cell surfaces
  4. Antigens are presented to CD4+ T helper cells to help other adaptive immune cells work better
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21
Q

What is HLA restriction?

A

There is a limited ability for peptides to fit into MHC molecules, and even when they do there will be a limited repertoire of T cells that recognize that specific peptide/MHC complex

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22
Q

What is the role of macrophages?

A

Macrophages stay in tissue, process and present antigen, and produce cytokines and chemokines to attract neutrophils to the site of infection

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23
Q

What is the role of dendritic cells?

A

Dendritic cells phagocytose debris, process and present Ag, and leave the site of infection to take antigen to lymph nodes

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24
Q

How do macrophages and dendritic cells recognize pathogens? What happens as a result?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells use pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), they contain receptors on their surfaces for molecules that are present on pathogen surfaces that aren’t present on human cell surfaces (LPS receptors, Toll-like receptors, mannose receptors, scavenger receptors, complement receptors)

As a result, dendritic cells upregulate MHC molecules and costimulatory molecules (B7 or CD80/86)

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25
Q

How do B cells internalize pathogens?

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

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26
Q

What is thymic education? When does the thymus work best?

A

Ability to generate a diverse repertoire of T cells that distinguish between self and non-self. The ability of the thymus to make new naïve mature T cells decreases w/ age.

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27
Q

What 4 cell types does the thymus contain?

A

Developing thymocytes

Thymic stroma (epithelial cells)

Dendritic cells

Macrophages

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28
Q

What cytokine is produced by thymic stromal cells and what does it do?

A

IL-7, initial step in thymocyte differentiation that commits a CD34+ progenitor cell to being a T cell

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29
Q

How do undifferentiated progenitor cells enter the thymus?

A

The express CD34

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30
Q

Describe the first rearrangement process that a T cell goes through.

Which chains rearrange? What are the two possible outcomes? How often does each happen?

A

Beta (B), gamma (y), delta (d) rearrangement

  1. If y and d chains rearrange successfully BEFORE B chain, the cell will expresses a yd T cell receptor. This cell is considered mature and naïve and it goes through NO ADDITIONAL MATURATION PROCESS. This happens in only 1-5% of T cells.
  2. If the B chain rearranges successfully first, gene rearrangement stops, the cells co-express CD4 and CD8 (double positive T cells), and the maturation process continues. This happens in more than 95% of T cells.
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31
Q

Describe the second rearrangement process that a T cell goes through.

Which chains rearrange? What are the two possible outcomes?

A

Alpha (a), gamma (y), delta (d) rearrangement only happens in uncommitted double positive cells that express B chain and CD4 and CD8 receptors

  1. If the y and d chains rearrange first, a yd T cell receptor is expressed (B chain is not expressed anymore).
  2. If the alpha chain rearranges first, the a and B chains are expressed together to make an aB T cell receptor
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32
Q

What segments rearrange in the beta chain of T cell receptors and in what order?

A

Beta chain undergoes rearrangement of V, D, J segments

  1. Specific D and J segments come together.
  2. V segment comes together with the DJ segment that already rearranged
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33
Q

What segments rearrange in the alpha chain of T cell receptors and in what order?

A

Alpha chain undergoes rearrangement of V and J segments

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34
Q

Describe the process of positive selection.

What cells undergo positive selection? Where does it occur? What is the outcome? What is the purpose?

A

T cells that express the alpha-beta T cell receptor undergo positive selection

Positive selection occurs in the cortex of the thymus

T cells interact w/ MHC molecules expressing self-peptides on surface of epithelial cells– if a strong interaction occurs, the cell survives; if a strong interaction does not occur, the cell dies. Most T cells are eliminated at this point.

A T cell that can’t recognize self-MHC is USELESS

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35
Q

During positive selection, if a double positive T cell had positive interaction w/ MHC class I, ______ is upregulated, ______ is downregulated, and the cell becomes ______.

A

During positive selection, if a double positive T cell had positive interaction w/ MHC class I, CD8 is upregulated, CD4 is downregulated, and the cell becomes a CD8+ T cell.

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36
Q

During positive selection, if a double positive T cell had positive interaction w/ MHC class II, ______ is upregulated, ______ is downregulated, and the cell becomes ______.

A

During positive selection, if a double positive T cell had positive interaction w/ MHC class II, CD4 is upregulated, CD8 is downregulated, and the cell becomes a CD4+ T cell.

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37
Q

Describe the process of negative selection.

What cells undergo positive selection? Where does it occur? What is the outcome? What transcription factor is especially important in this process? What is the purpose?

A

T cells that have undergone positive selection then undergo negative selection.

Negative selection occus in the corticomedullary junction of thymus.

T cells interact w/ MHC molecules expressing self-peptides on dendritic cells and macrophages– if tight binding occurs, the cell dies; if low binding occus, the cell survives

Autoimmune regulator (aire) is the transcription factor expressed in thymus that promotes the expression of many genes in the thymus to produce a wide variety of proteins at very low levels. This is important to be sure that T cells do not recognize self proteins from anywhere in the body.

The purpose of negative selection is to destroy any self-reactive T cells.

38
Q

What is DiGeorge’s syndrome?

A

Deletion in chromosome 22 causes patients to fail to develop a thymus

Patients are severely immuno-compromised and have other developmental disorders

39
Q

What is Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (SCID)?

A

Mutations in IL-7 receptor on T cells prevent T cell development and result in a complete loss of the adaptive immune system (lack of T cells AND B cells)

40
Q

What is bare lymphocyte syndrome?

A

A condition in which an individual doesn’t express MHC class I or class II molecules b/c of a mutation in molecules that transport MHC to cell surface. As a result, no MHC is expressed at the cell surface, T cells can’t be activated, and patients are severely immuno-compromised

41
Q

What is Autoimmune Polyendocrinopathy-Candidiasis-Ectodermal Dystrophy?

A

Caused by a mutation in the aire gene, patients die b/c of severe autoimmune diseases (susceptibility to infection, especially yeast infection), ectodermal malformations

42
Q

How do naive T cells traffic to lymphoid tissue?

A

Naïve T cells express chemokine receptor CCR7, lymph nodes produce chemokines CCL19 and CCL21. These chemokines bind to CCR7, so T cells preferentially migrate to lymph nodes

Adhesion molecules and selectins present on surfaces of T cells and vascular endothelial cells in blood vessels in lymph nodes facilitate T cell entrance

43
Q

What are the 2 signals that cause T cell activation?

A

Signal 1: T cell receptor binds to compatible peptide/MHC complexes on dendritic cells (MHC class I binds to CD8+ T cells, MHC class II binds to CD4+ T cells)

Signal 2: B7 (CD80/CD86) on dendritic cells interacts with CD28 on T cells

44
Q

What is the immunological synapse?

A

Region of contact and communication between T cell and antigen-presenting cell

45
Q

How does T cell receptor signaling cause gene transcription?

A

T cell receptors are associated w/ immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMS), which are associated w/ protein tyrosine kinases (PTK)

When a T cell receptor binds to a peptide/MHC complex, the ITAMs are phosphorylated, releasing signaling molecules that enter the nucleus and cause gene trascription

46
Q

How do T cells proliferate?

A

After 2 signal activation, T cells (which express a low affinity IL-2 receptor consisting of a beta and a gamma chain) release the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor, which binds to the low affinity receptor and creates a high affinity receptor

IL-2 is released and acts in an autocrine fashion to stimulate further gene transcription

47
Q

What is clonal expansion?

A

Proliferation of an antigen-specific T cell (produces lots of the exact same T cell with the exact same T cell receptor)

48
Q

What is the purpose of CTLA-4 and how does it act?

A

CTLA-4 limits T cell proliferation by binding B7 20 times stronger than C28, preventing costimulation and activation of T cells

49
Q

T cell differentiation: In an environment rich in ______, the T cell becomes a Th1 cell and produces ______.

A

In an environment rich in IFNy and IL-12, the T cell becomes a Th1 cell and produces IFNy, IL-2, and lymphotoxin (LT).

50
Q

T cell differentiation: In an environment rich in ______, the T cell becomes a Th2 cell and produces ______.

A

T cell differentiation: In an environment rich in IL-4, the T cell becomes a Th2 cell and produces IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13.

51
Q

T cell differentiation: In an environment rich in ______, the T cell becomes a Th17 cell and produces ______.

A

T cell differentiation: In an environment rich in IL-6, the T cell becomes a Th17 cell and produces IL-21 and IL-17.

52
Q

What is the major function of a CD4+ T cell?

A

To help other cells of the immune system function better

53
Q

What type of T cell helps macrophages become better pathogen killers and how does it do this?

A

Th1 cells

CD40L on T cell surface interacts with CD40 on macrophage surface, IFNy from T cell binds to IFNy receptor on macrophage surface– these signals (in addition to the traditional T cell and MHC/peptide recognition) stimulate macrophages to produce more microbicidal enzymes

54
Q

What is tuberculoid leprosy and what T cell produces cytokines that contribute to this response?

A

Caused by Mycobacterium leprae, causes undetectable levels of bacterium and low infectivity, granulomas wall off infection and lead to a positive outcome

Result of cytokines produced by Th1 cells (IFNy and IL-2)

55
Q

What is lepromatous leprosy and what T cell produces cytokines that cause this?

A

Caused by Mycobacterium leprae, the organism continues to grow, causes high infectivity, disseminated infection, and hypergammaglobulinemia

Result of cytokines produced by Th2 (IL-4, IL-5)– this inappropriate response to M. leprae can be elicited by underlying conditions (such as allergies or parasites, which activate Th2 cells)

56
Q

What is the major function of a CD8+ T cell?

A

To lyse infected cells, mostly acts on virally-infected cells

57
Q

What 2 enzymes are released from CD8+ T cells and what do they do?

A

Perforin: creates holes in the target cell membrane

Granzyme: enters target cell through holes created by perforin, degrades proteins in the cell to initiate apoptosis

58
Q

True or False: Effector T cells (that have already undergone activation and proliferation) require costimulation.

A

FALSE.

59
Q

What is immune surveillance?

A

After T cells perform their effector functions, some remain in body in spleen, blood, and tissues in a resting state, patrolling for re-infection by the same pathogen

60
Q

What is CTLA-4 deficiency?

A

Causes lymphoproliferative disease and autoimmunity

61
Q

What are the 4 functions of a B cell?

A
  1. Neutralization
  2. Opsonization
  3. IgE-mediated release of histamine
  4. Antibody-Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity
62
Q

What is neutralization?

A

Antibody binds to foreign antigen and prevents that antigen from binding to receptor on cell surface, preventing infection

63
Q

What is opsonization?

A

Antibody binds to bacterium (or virus or another antigen) and coats it –> Fc region of antibody (bottom of Y) binds to Fc receptors on surface of phagocytic cell –> stimulates cell to phagocytose/work better

Used for antigens that aren’t very highly antigenic

64
Q

How is histamine released during an allergic reaction?

A

IgE is generated during first exposure to allergen, but upon second exposure IgE has already deposited itself on Fc receptors on mast cells –> binding of allergen causes crosslinking –> generates release of histamine

65
Q

What is Antibody-Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity?

A

Antibody binds to antigen on tumor cell –> activates NK cell that has a specific Fc receptors for a certain antibody –> releases molecules that kill cells

Used when we need to protect ourselves against tumor cells

66
Q

What are the 5 isotypes of antibodies? Where are they found? What are their characteristics?

A
  • IgM: low affinity antibody, found in the blood and heart, first antibody produced and secreted, can activate the classical complement pathway
  • IgG: high affinity antibody, found throughout the body, can be neutralizing or opsonizing, can cross placenta and contribute to immunity of fetus, activates classical complement pathway
  • IgD: found on surface of cell initially but goes away when it encounters antigen and is never secreted
  • IgE: released to precipitate release of histamine from mast cell, can occur throughout the body
  • IgA: released at mucosal membranes (saliva, gut)
67
Q

How does antigen binding to a B cell receptor cause gene transcription?

A

Antigen binds to B cell receptor –> crosslinking of B cell receptors –> pulls immunoglobulin receptors together –> phosphorylation of tyrosine kinase associated w/ ITAM –> cascade of signaling molecules –> activation of transcription factors that change gene expression

68
Q

What steps are necessary to initiate a T cell-dependent antibody response?

A
  1. Binding of pathogen/antigen to B cell receptor and cross linking of B cell receptors
  2. Binding of B cell coreceptor CR2 to C3d deposited on pathogen surface, phosphorylation of CD19 by associated tyrosine kinase receptors.
  3. B cell receptor and antigen are endocytosed –> antigen processing and presentation in MHC class II molecules to CD4+ cell (usually Th2)
  4. T cell upregulates CD40L, interacts with CD40 on B cell– THIS TELLS CELL TO START MAKING ANTIBODY
  5. T cell releases cytokines to tell B cell what isotype to make
69
Q

How does a B cell know what isotype of antibody to produce?

A

Cytokines secreted by CD4+ T cell

70
Q

How can we induce high affinity antibodies against T cell independent antigens?

A

Create a polysaccharide that mimics bacterial coating of the T cell independent antigen and attach it to toxoid protein in the lab that will mediate immune response

The polysaccharide binds to BCR and is endocytosed endocytosis –> protein gets degraded –> peptides can be presented on surface of cell and activate T cells specific for toxoid protein –> cytokines released by T cell that cause B cell to release high affinity antibody against polysaccharide AND antibody against toxoid protein

71
Q

Where do cognate pairs of antigen-induced B cells and helper T cells form and where do they subsequently migrate?

A

Cognate pairs form in the T cell zone of the lymph node and migrate to the medullary cords to divide and differentiate.

72
Q

What is the term for the area of rapidly proliferating B and T cells and in what part of the lymph node is it?

A

The germinal center is the area of rapidly proliferating B and T cells (centroblasts become centrocytes) and it is in the B cell zone of the lymph node.

73
Q

What happens in the germinal center?

A

B cells develop into plasma cells, producing IgM initially, but eventually producing more high affinity antibodies, such as IgG.

74
Q

What is isotype switching? Where does it occur and what stimulates it?

A

Rearrangement of the constant region of an immunoglobulin at the DNA level that results in production of different anitbodies.

It occurs in the germinal center and is stimulated by T helper cells.

75
Q

True or False: The antigen-specificity of the immunoglobulin remains the same upon isotype switching.

A

TRUE.

76
Q

What does the enzyme AID do?

A

AID sits at switch regions in the DNA and causes nicks in the DNA, indicating which switch regions will be recombined. The DNA between those two switch regions will loop out and be cut off.

77
Q

Which cytokine causes the production of neutralizing antibodies (like IgG1)?

A

IL-4

78
Q

What cytokine causes the production of complement-fixing antibodies (like IgG2a)?

A

IFNy

79
Q

What is somatic hypermutation and where does it occur?

A

Rapid proliferation of B cells in germinal center causes mistakes in DNA/mutations, some of which occur in the antigen-binding site (variable region).

80
Q

What is affinity maturation? Where does it occur and what specialized cell does it involve?

A

Affinity maturation selects only for mutations that cause higher affinity. Specialized follicular dendritic cells (FDC) in the germinal center express high levels of Fc receptors (which bind antibodies). Antigen-antibody complexes bind to FDC and activate B cells– if receptors on the B cells bind poorly to the antigen-antibody complex on FDC, those B cells will die by apoptosis; if receptors on the B cells bind tightly, those B cells will survive and proliferate.

81
Q

What is hyper-IgM syndrome?

A

Mutation in CD40L causes lack of expression on T cells. High levels of IgM will be produced, but little or no IgG or IgA. The patient will have no immune response to T-dependent antigens and are at high risk for infection

82
Q

What contributes to the heterogeneity in the alpha-beta chain T cell receptor?

A
  1. Multiple V, D (for B chain), and J segments that can be paired in different ways
  2. Addition or deletion of bases during gene rearrangement
  3. Pairing of different a and B chains in any given T cell
83
Q

Which chain rearranges first in the B cell receptor?

A

Heavy chain

84
Q

What is the rearrangement process for the heavy chain of the B cell receptor?

A
  1. D and J segments rearrange in early pro-B cell stage
  2. V and DJ segments rearrange in late pro-B cell stage
85
Q

What is a pre-B cell?

A

A B cell that expresses only a rearranged heavy chain

86
Q

What is an immature B cell?

A

A B cell that expresses a heavy chain and a light chain

87
Q

What is the rearrangement process that results in the formation of a functional B cell receptor on the B cell surface?

A
  1. Heavy chain rearrangement
  2. Heavy chain combines with surrogate light chains and moves towards the cell surface, stimulating light chain rearrangement
  3. Light chain rearrangement.
  4. Light chain attaches to heavy chain through disulfide bonds
  5. Functional B cell receptor
88
Q

What enzyme is critical for gene rearrangement to occur in B cell heavy and light chains and how does it work?

A

Recombination activating gene-1 and -2 (RAG-1 and RAG-2) are expressed mostly in pro-B cells. They produce enzymes that tell cells where to make recombinations (enzymes bind to a specific combination of nucleotides –> the two enzymes match up with each other and form a loop of DNA –> loop of DNA is cut out and V/D/J segments come together)

89
Q

What are the 2 checkpoints during B cell development?

A
  1. After heavy chain gene rearrangement, if no pre-B-cell receptor OR if receptor recognizes something (self) = apoptosis
  2. After light chain gene rearrangement, if no B-cell receptor OR if receptor recognizes something (self) = apoptosis
90
Q

What cytokine causes isotype switching to IgG? IgA? IgE?

A

IgE: IL-4

IgA: IL-5

IgE: IL-4