Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

WP CLUES > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Which cytokine is released when a macrophage is activated?

A

IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which cytokines do T-helper cells stimulate?

A

All IL’s except IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which enlarged lymph nodes are most likely malignant?

A

Supraclavicular, Epitrochlear (above the elbow), inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is CD8?

A

T-killer or T-suppressor cell

Responds to MHC-1 complex (self)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of your cells express MHC-1?

A

All nucleated cells except the immune-privileged cells/tissues, RBC’s and Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the classifications of MHC-1?

A

HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the Immuno-privileged sites?

A

Areas of the body that have no lymphatic flow, no antigens, and these areas can be transplanted without fear of rejection (brain, cornea, thymus, and testes) they do not express MHC-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which cells express MHC-2?

A

Antigen presenting cells

macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the classifications of MHC-2?

A

HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are CD4 cells?

A

T-helper cell - Responds to MHC-2 (foreign attack)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of immunity does TH1 provide?

A

Enhances cell mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of immunity does TH2 provide?

A

Enhances humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do B cell deficiency patients die of?

A

Bacterial infection?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Common Variable Immuno. Def?

A

Young adults with B cells that do not work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia?

A

Kids ( < 1 y/o because decreased maternal IgG) with defective tyrosine kinase; they have no antibodies and have x-linked transmission
pg116FA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Job’s Syndrome?

A

Seen in red headed females

they are stuck in the IgE stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A

Multiple osteolytic lesions
Increased IgG and kappa light chains
Rouleaux formation seen on slide
FA pg 419

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Heavy Chain Disease?

A

IgA and Multiple Myeloma of the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is selective IgG2 Deficiency?

A

Seen in patients with recurrent encapsulated infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Selective IgA Deficiency?

A

Seen in transfusion, anaphylaxis, and mucus membrane infections (and immunodeficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Hairy Cell Leukemia?

A

Cells have a fried egg/ Sunburst appearance and TRAP +

FA420
Adult males,
Mature B-cell tumor, causes marrow fibrosis (dry tap on aspiration)
Patient usually present with massive splenomegaly/pancytopenia
treatment: cladribine, pentostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Patients have low IgA and neurological problems, difficulty ambulating and spider like blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Hyper IgM Syndrome?

A 
High IgM and all other Ig's are low
"defective CD40L" on Th cells (class switching defect)

FA117
*Severe pyogenic infections early in life; opportunistic infection with Pneumocystis, Cryptosporidium, and CMV.
Failure to make germinal center (mature B cells proliferate, differentiate, and mutate their antibody genes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do T cell deficiency patients die of?

A

Viral infections, fungal, etc

except bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

No Thymus, inferior Parathyroid and low calcium

FA116
22q11 deletion; failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches-> absent thymus/parathyroid
No function of MHC 1 and 2, recurrent viral/fungal infections (t-cells deficiency)
Conotruncal abnormalities (tetralogy of Fallot, truncus arteriosus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis?

A

T-cell defect against Candida Albicans and chronic fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is SCID?

A 
"Severe Combined Immunodeficiency"
No Thymus (no T-cells)
frayed long bones (no B-cells)
baby dies by 18 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Wiskott-Aldrich?

A 
Low IgM/IgG, 
Low Platelets
High IgA, IgE
Eczema
Petechiae (a small red or purple spot caused by bleeding into the skin)
X-linked recessive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does the viral load tell you?

A

Progression of HIV

30
Q

What organs have the most CD4 receptors?

A 
Blood vessels
brain
testicles
cervix
rectum
31
Q

What are the 3 tests used to screen for HIV?

A

ELISA: Detects IgG Ab to p24 Ag
Western Blot: Proteins
PCR: Detects Virus (used in babies)

32
Q

What is the definition of AIDS?

A

CD4 count less than 200 or defining illness

33
Q

What are the LIVE Vaccines?

A 
"Bring Your Own Very Small Virus and MMR"
B - BCG
Y - Yellow Fever
O - OPV (Sabin) = oral polio
V - Varicella (chicken-pox/shingles) 
S - Smallpox (poxvirus)
V - Rotavirus
M - Measles = Rubeola
M - Mumps
R - Rubella = German 3 day measles
34
Q

What is a Neutrophil?

A

The Phagocyte (it has Antimicrobials, most abundant)

35
Q

What is an Eosinophil?

A

The parasite destroyer(helminths) and allergy inducer (major basic protein=helminthotoxin)
FA396

36
Q

What is a Basophil?

A

The allergy helper (IgE receptor - histamine release)

37
Q

What is a Monocyte?

A

The destroyer - macrophage (has hydrolytic enzymes and a coffee bean nucleus)
FA397

38
Q

What is a Lymphocyte?

A

The warrior - T, B, and NK cells

39
Q

What is a Platelet?

A

The clotter (has no nuclei and smallest cells) + fibrinogen to from platelet plug.
Directly derived from Megakaryocytes
Lifespan 8-10 days

40
Q

What is a Blast?

A

Baby hematopoietic cell
“An immature cell that can develop into all types of blood cells, including white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. Hematopoietic stem cells are found in the peripheral blood and the bone marrow.”

41
Q

What is a Band?

A

Baby Neutrophil

42
Q

What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

A

NADPH Oxidase deficiency - they have recurrent Staph / Aspergillus infections
(Nitro-blue Tetrazolium Stain Negative= stays yellow color) or
Dihydrorhodamine flow and Cytometry test

FA117
Decrease reactive oxygen species (superoxide) and decrease respiratory burst in neutrophils
X-linked
Can also be related to penthose phosphate pathway (G6PD disease- G6PD is absent)

43
Q

What does MPO (Myeloperoxidase) deficiency cause?

A

Catalase positive infections
Catalase degrades H2O2 into H20 and bubbles of O2 before it can be converted to microbicidal products by the enzyme myeloperoxidase.

FA128 EXAMPLES: Cats(cat-alase) Need PLACESS to Belch their Hairballs.
(Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergillus, Candida, E. Coli, Staphylococci, Serratia, B. cepacia, H. pylori)

44
Q

What is Chediak Higashi syndrome?

A

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome (Lysosomal trafficking regulator gene-LYST)
(Lysosomes are slow to fuse around bacteria)
FA117
Giant granules;
PLAIN: Progressive neurodegeneration, lymphohistiocystosis, albinism (partial), recurrent pyogenic Infections by staphylococci and streptococci, peripheral Neuropathy

45
Q

What is the most common transplant?

A

Blood transfusion

46
Q

What is an Autograft?

A

Twin to twin (spare parts)

47
Q

What is an Allograft?

A

Human to human transplant

48
Q

What is a Xenograft?

A

1 species to another species (pig heart into humans)

49
Q

What is a Hyperacute Rejection?

A

Autoimmune response within 12 hours, preformed antibodies responded
This is a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

50
Q

What is an Acute Rejection?

A

Occurs 4 days to months later. T-cell and macrophage response

51
Q

What is Chronic Rejection?

A

Occurs months to years later and fibroblasts are present

52
Q

What is Graft vs. Host Disease?

A

When the graft attacks the body (T-Killer cells and macrophages responded)

53
Q

What Diseases have a low LAP (Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase)?

A

CML (chronic myeloid leukemia) &

PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia)

54
Q

What has high LAP (Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase)?

A

Leukemoid reaction

55
Q

What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Leukemia’s?

A

Acute: started out in the bone marrow, squeezes RBC out of the marrow
Chronic: started in the periphery, not constrained and will expand

56
Q

What is the difference between Myeloid and Lymphoid Leukemia’s?

A

Myeloid: increased RBC, WBC, platelets, macrophages
(decreased Lymphoid cells) and bone marrow biopsy
Lymphoid: increased NK, T, B cells
(decreased Myeloid cells) and do lymph node biopsy

57
Q

What defines Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/lymphoma (ALL)?

A

0-15 year old males, bone pain, + PAS stain and +TdT(marker for pre-T and pre-B cells).
CALLA antigen positive
T (12;21) good prognosis

FA420
Associated with Down Syndrome
May spread to CNS and testes

58
Q

What defines Acute Myeologenous Leukemia (AML)?

A 
15-30 y/o males 
Sudan Stain
Auer Rods, (CD30)
APL: t(15;17) (formerly D M3 AML subtype)
treat with ATRA

FA420
Myeloperoxidase positive
Risk factor: Down syndrome, chemotherapy, radiation, myeloproliferative disorders
Responds to all-trans Retinoic acid (vitamin A)
DIC is a common presentation (Disseminated intravascular coagulation)

59
Q

What defines Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?

A

30-50 y/o females
Philadelphia Chromosome t(9;22)
BCR-ABL

FA420
presents with dysregulated production of granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, myelocytes, metamyelocytes)
May accelerate and transform to AML or ALL (Blast crisis)
Treatment: Imatinib, Dasatinib (bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitors)

60
Q

What defines Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

A

50+ y/o males with lymphadenopathy
soccer ball nuclei
Present with autoimmune Hemolytic anemia

FA420
Smudge cells (Crushed Little Lymphocytes)
Can turn into aggressive lymphoma (Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma)
61
Q

What defines Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

EBV and may have Reed-Sternberg cells

62
Q

What are the B cell Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphomas?

A

Follicular: t(14;18) and bcl-2
Burkitt: t(8;14), c-myc, Starry sky,
Macrophages in american kids: abdominal mass
in african kids: jaw mass

63
Q

What are the T-cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas?

A

Mycosis Fungoides: total body rash

Sezary Syndrome: Cerebreform cells in the blood

64
Q

What is Myelofibrosis?

A

Megakaryocytes, fibrotic bone marrow, teardrop cells (RBC’s) and extramedullary Hematopoiesis

65
Q

What are Plasma Neoplasms?

A

They produce many antibodies

66
Q

What is Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

A

IgM and Hyperviscosity of the blood

67
Q

What is Monoclonal Gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)?

A

Old Person with Gamma Spike (from years of building up)

Build up of abnormal protein in blood- Monoclonal protein

68
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A 
Male >40 with lower back pain
Serum M protein (IgG)
Bence-Jones Proteins in the urine
Rouleaux formation
Punched out lesions on x-ray
69
Q

What is Heavy Chain Disease?

A

Increased IgA

70
Q

Monocyte -> Macrophage Name?

  1. Brain
  2. Lungs
  3. Liver
  4. Kidneys
  5. Spleen
  6. Lymph nodes
  7. Skin
  8. Bone
  9. Bone marrow and blood
  10. Peyers patches
  11. Connective Tissue
A
  1. Brain= Microglia
  2. Lungs= airway-clara (alveoli- dust cells)
  3. Liver= kupffer cells
  4. Kidneys= mesangial cells
  5. Spleen= red pulp macrophages
  6. Lymph nodes= dendritic cells
  7. Skin= langerhans cells (dendritic cells)
  8. Bone= osteoclasts
  9. Bone marrow and blood= monocytes
  10. Peyers patches= M-cells (aggregate lymph nodules located in GI tract- distal jejunum/ileum; usually affected by prion disease)
  11. Connective Tissue= Giant cells, histiocytes, epithelioid cells (scar formation)

WP CLUES (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions