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WP CLUES > Complete Deck Part 3 > Flashcards

Complete Deck Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the basic amino acids?

A

Lys, Arg, His

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2
Q

What does Vitamin D do?

A

Helps in calcium absorption from the GI tract

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3
Q

What is an Apt Test?

A

Detects HbF in the Vagina, detects baby’s hemoglobin (Alkali denaturation test)

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4
Q

What is seen in Zinc deficiency?

A

Dysgeusia, anosmia, Poor wound healing

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5
Q

What cardiomyopathy has Pulsus Alternans?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

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6
Q

What is a Monocyte?

A

The destroyer - macrophage (has hydrolytic enzymes and a coffee bean nucleus)

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7
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) Deficiency?

A

Megaloblastic anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils, Neuropathy

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8
Q

What are the indications for Metoclopramide?

A

Diabetic and post-surgery gastroparesis

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9
Q

What is a Target Cell/ Codocyte?

A

These have less Hb (seen in Thalassemias or iron deficiency)

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10
Q

What is seen in Diamond-Blackfan Anemia?

A

They have low RBCs and double jointed thumbs

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11
Q

What is associated with Yersinia Pestis?

A

Rats & Flease = Bubonic Plague

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12
Q

What is cor-pulmonale?

A

Pulmonary HTN leads to Right ventricular failure

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13
Q

What is associated with EPEC?

A

Pathogenic = newborn diarrhea

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14
Q

What is Chlamydia?

A

Obligate intracellular bacteria. Can present asymptomatic or PID Cervicitis (yellow pus)Conjunctivitis

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15
Q

What do Clotting problems cause?

A

Bleeding into cavities

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16
Q

Waht is associated with S. Saprophyticus?

A

Female with UTI’s (2nd cause), honeymooner’s cystitis

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17
Q

What are the adverse effects of fibrates?

A

Myositis, hepatotoxicity (increase LFT’s) cholesterol gallstones

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18
Q

What is Depersonalization Disorder?

A

“Out of Body” experiences, Deja Vu

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of death in the Low Energy State?

A

Heart Failure

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20
Q

What is assocaited with Campylobacter Jejuni?

A

Raw chicken and eggs, dog poop, bloody diarrhea, comma, “seagull” shaped buginactivated by gastric juice and can precipitate Guillain BarreTreat with Erythromycin

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21
Q

What are the adverse effects of 1st generation H1 blockers?

A

Sedation, antimuscarinic, anti-alpha-adrenergic

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22
Q

What do Chylomicrons do?

A

They take Triglycerides (TG) from GI to liver and endothelium

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23
Q

What diseases have high Monocytes (>15%)?

A

“STELS”Syphilis: chancre, rash, wartsTB: Hemoptysis, night sweatsEBV: Teen sick for a monthListeria: Sick babySalmonella: Food poisoning

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24
Q

What is Active Transport?

A

Goes against concentration gradientRequires ATP

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25
Q

What are the diastolic rumbling murmurs?

A

Tricuspid StenosisMitral Stenosis

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26
Q

What is Face Presentation?

A

Mentum Anterior preform forceps delivery

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27
Q

What is Zero-order kinetics?

A

Metabolism independent of concentration (rate of elimination is constant)

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28
Q

What is Mumps?

A

Parotitis (Red Stenson’s Duct)

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29
Q

What does the Bulbourethral/ Cowper’s Glands secrete?

A

Bicarb to neutralize lactobacilli, if sperm is too acidic. (Infertility until corrected)

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30
Q

What is Type and Cross?

A

Blood that is matched by blood type and cross-reacted with the patient’s blood for rejection

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31
Q

How do you treat A1 Gestational DM?

A

Diet

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32
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogen Phosphorylase. Occurs in the Cytoplasm of Liver and Muscle

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33
Q

What bugs cause Loeffler Syndrome?

A

“NASSA”N - Necator AmericanusA - Ancylostoma DuodenaleS - SchistosomiasisS - StrongyloidesA - Ascaris Lumbricoides

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34
Q

What has Fat Casts?

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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35
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the Breast?

A

Rash and ulcer around the nipple, breast CA

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36
Q

What is the only Crescent Shaped Protozoa?

A

Giardia Lamblia

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37
Q

What produces Currant Jelly stool?

A

Intussusception

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38
Q

What is associated with R. Akari?

A

Mites

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39
Q

What are Braxton-Hicks Contractions?

A

Irregular contractions with closed cervix. (preparing for birth)

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40
Q

What is Krabbe’s?

A

Galactocerebrosidase deficiencyperipheral neuropathyoptic atrophygloboid bodiesaccumulation of Galactocerebroside and Psychosine

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41
Q

What are the adverse effects of methylxanthines?

A

Cardiotoxicity, Neurotoxicity

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42
Q

How do I know the patienthas a Vitamin K Deficiency?

A

Bleeding, Loss of gamma-carboxylation

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43
Q

What is a Meningomyelocele?

A

Sacral pocket with meninges and nerves in it

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44
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Osmotic Laxatives?

A

Diarrhea, dehydration, may be abused by bulimics

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45
Q

What is the color of fluid or a solid on X-ray?

A

White “radiopaque”

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46
Q

What is the MOA of a Growth Hormone?

A

Stimulates liver production of insulin-like growth factors and gastric emptying

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47
Q

What is Ferning?

A

Estrogen crystallizes on slide. (Amniotic fluid)

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48
Q

What are the essential fatty acids?

A

Linolenic, Linoleic

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49
Q

What is Hunter’s?

A

Iduronate Sulfatase deficiencymilder formXLRno corneal cloudingaggressive behaviorAccumulation of Heparin and Dermatan Sulfate

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50
Q

What does a Western blot detect?

A

Protein, “snoW, droP”

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51
Q

What are the four Painful Genital Lesions?

A

HerpesChancroid (It makes you cry… H. Ducreyi) Lymphogranuloma VenereumLymphogranuloma Inguinale

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52
Q

What are the indications for Bile Acid Resins?

A

Slightly increase HDL and triglyceridesDecrease LDL

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53
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson?

A

Defective Bilirubin storageBLACK LIVERIncreased conjugated bilirubin

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54
Q

Snowman-shape on x-ray?

A

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return

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55
Q

What is the MOA of H2 blockers?

A

Reversible block of histamine H2 receptors to decrease H+ secretion by parietal cells

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56
Q

What are the Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors?

A

Acarbose and Miglitol

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57
Q

What is Early Deceleration?

A

Normal due to head compression

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58
Q

What is Hepatorenal Syndrome?

A

Build up of liver toxins that cause renal failure

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59
Q

What organ has the lower AVO2 difference?

A

Kidney

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60
Q

What bug causes multiple liver abscesses?

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

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61
Q

What is Conversion?

A

Neurological manifestations of internal conflict, indifferent to disability, blindness/mutism triggered by a stressor. Patient is unconcerned about his impairmentTx: Psychotherapy

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62
Q

What is a Xanthelasma?

A

Triglyceride build up and is seen under the eyes (Xanthoma subtype)

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63
Q

What are the indications for Prazosin?

A

Pheochromocytoma, HTN

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64
Q

What is Cystinuria?

A

Defect of AA transporter in PCT and GIm prevents reabsorption of Cysteine, Ornithine, Lysine, Arginine (COLA)Hexagonal (Cysteine) stones in urine (urinary Cyanide nitroprusside test is Dx)

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65
Q

What are the indications for antileukotriene?

A

Asthma, aspirin induced asthma

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66
Q

What is Regression?

A

Immature behavior, go back in development

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67
Q

What are the sounds made from diastolic murmurs?

A

Blowing and rumbling

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68
Q

what is the Central Nervous System?

A

Brain and spinal cord, Myelination by the oligodendrocytes

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69
Q

What is Laryngomalacia?

A

Epiglottis rolls in from side to side

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70
Q

Where does a Type A thoracic aortic dissection occur?

A

Ascending Aorta, (occurs in Cystic medial necrosis and Syphilis)

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71
Q

What diagnosis has primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid Adenoma

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72
Q

What does a mid-systolic click tell you?

A

MVP- Mitral valve prolapse

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73
Q

What is a Schwannoma?

A

CN-8 tumor, unilateral deafness

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74
Q

What does auscultation of stridor tell you?

A

Extrathoracic narrowing (seen on inspiration on X-Ray)

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75
Q

What is ADHD?

A

Over activity, short attention span, difficulty in school, must be identified in two different locations (home and school). Tx: First line- methylphenidate and dectroamphetamine; Second line- Atomoxetine (SNRI)

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76
Q

What are the indications for Sulfonylureas?

A

NIDDM (Type 2)

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77
Q

When is Beta HCG found in Urine?

A

2 weeks after fertilization

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78
Q

What does auscultation of crackles tell you?

A

Blowing collapsed alveoli open (restrictive lung disease)

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79
Q

What is a Xenograft?

A

1 species to another species (pig heart into humans)

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80
Q

What makes Esophageal Spasms Unique?

A

Increased Peristalsis

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81
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Gluconeogenesis?

A

Fructose - 1,6 Bisphophatase

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82
Q

What is the most common cause of first trimester maternal death?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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83
Q

What does Vit K do?

A

ClottingSynthesized by intestinal flora

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84
Q

What serum pH does emesis have?

A

Alkalotic because you vomit out HCl-

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85
Q

What is the MOA of coricosteroids?

A

Inhibits leukotriene synthesis -> reduces inflammation and leads to bronchodilation

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86
Q

What bugs can cause walking pneumonia?

A

“Come My Love for a Walk”0-2 mos: Chlamydia Pneumonia10-30 years old: Mycoplasma Pneumonia>40 years old: Legionella pneumoniaAIDS and PREMIES: Pnemonia Carinii

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87
Q

What is associated with R. Tsutsugamushi?

A

Chiggers (Mites) = Scrub Typhus

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88
Q

What is the MOA of Hexamethonium?

A

Nicotinic Ganglionic blocker

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89
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in TCA Cycle?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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90
Q

What are the Gram Negative Capsules?

A

“Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules”S - SalmonellaK - KlebsiellaH - H. Influenza B (HiB)P - PseudomonasN - NeisseriaC - Citrobacter

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91
Q

What causes Cryoglobulinemia?

A

“I AM He”I - InfluenzaA - AdenovirusM - MycoplasmaH - Hepatitis B and C

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92
Q

What is the indication for muscarinic antagonist?

A

Asthma, COPD

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93
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Octreotide?

A

Nausea, cramps, steatorrhea

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94
Q

What serum pH does diarrhea have?

A

Acidosis because stool has bicarb

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95
Q

What are the indications for adenosine?

A

Dx. and tx. of AV nodal arrhythmias

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96
Q

What is Word Salad?

A

Unrelated combinations of words

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97
Q

What are the Vasodilators?

A

Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Nifedipine, Verapamil, Nitroprusside, Diazoxide

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98
Q

What is Frotteurism?

A

Rubs penis against fully clothed women

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99
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase-1 (CPS-1)

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100
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of PTU and Methimazole?

A

Agranulocytosis, skin rash and Aplastic Anemia

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101
Q

What is Molluscum Contagiosum

A

Flesh colored papules with a central dimple

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102
Q

What is the indication for Albuterol?

A

Acute exacerbation

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103
Q

What does Gastrin do?

A

Stimulates parietal cells to release intrinsic factor (IF) and H+

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104
Q

What is Turner’s Syndrome (XO)?

A

High FSH, LOW E2, Ovarian Dysgenesis, Webbed Neck, Coarctation of the Aorta, Cystic Hydroma, bicuspid Aortic valve

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105
Q

What murmur has Pulsus Tardus?

A

Aortic stenosis

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106
Q

How do you predict a due date with Nagele’s rule?

A

Subtract 3 mo. from LMP (last menstrual period)Add 7 days, if her cycle is 28 days (i.e: LMP Jan 7, 2016 would have an estimated date of Oct. 14, 2016)If her cycle is more than 28 days add 1 day for each extra day of the cycle

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107
Q

What is the Acrosomal reaction?

A

Sperm release enzymes to eat the Corona Radiata

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108
Q

Function of what cells is necessary for the action of Sulfonylureas?

A

Requires some islet cell function so drugs used less in Type 1 DM

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109
Q

What is Conjugated Bilirubin?

A

Water soluble and direct Bilirubin

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110
Q

What is the MOA of the Ca2+ blockers?

A

Decreases conduction velocity of the AV node, increases ERP and PR interval

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111
Q

What is associated with Legionella Pneumoniae?

A

Found in AC ducts, silver stains lung, CYEAPontiac Fever, Legionnaire’sPneumonia

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112
Q

What are the Megaloblastic Anemias?

A

Vitamin B-12 Deficiencyfolate deficiencyalcohol

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113
Q

What is Double Depression?

A

Depression followed by dysthymia

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114
Q

What is familial Hypocalciuria Hypercalcemia?

A

Patients with decreased calcium excretion

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115
Q

What are some causes of Cold Autoimmune?

A

MonoMycoplasma infectionAntibody (IgM) bind to RBC’s membranecold temp and causes agglutination

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116
Q

What has Muddy Brown Casts?

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

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117
Q

What are the indications for Bosentan?

A

Pulmonary HTN

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118
Q

What is Circumstantiality?

A

Digresses but finally gets back to the point

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119
Q

What are the adverse effects of B-blockers?

A

Impotence, asthma, bradycardia, AV block, heart failure, sedation, sleep alterations

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120
Q

What are the Steroid Hormones?

A

Progesterone, Estradiol (E2), Testosterone, Cortisol, and Aldosterone

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121
Q

What is associated with Bacteroides Fragilis?

A

Post Op bowel abscess, grows in blood clots

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122
Q

Explain Restrictive Lung Disease:

A

Restrictive: Interstitial problem that causes trouble breathing in (small stiff lungs)Pulmonary Function Test’s: FEV1/FVC greater than 0.8, decrease vital capacityABG: decreased pH, decreased PO2, decreased PcO2 (increased respiratory rate)Chest X-Ray: reticulonodular pattern, ground glass appearanceMost common cause of death is Cor-pulmonaleTreatment: PEEP ventilator, increased O2, increased respiratory time

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123
Q

When performing a high dose dex. Test, if positive…

A

Patient has a pituitary tumor

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124
Q

What does the Prostate Secrete?

A

The prostate HAZ it.H- HyaluronidaseA- Acid PhosphataseZ- Zinc

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125
Q

What are the Gram-negative exotoxins?

A

H. InfluenzaBordatella Pertussis

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126
Q

What is Meniere’s Disease?

A

Same presentation as Labyrinthitis but is a chronic condition with remitting and relapsing episodes

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127
Q

How does Granuloma Inguinale present?

A

Spreading ulcer, Donovan bodies, due to Klebsiella Granulomatis (rod shaped), oval organism that can be seen in the Cytoplasms of Phagocytes or in tissue of people with grauloma inguinale

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128
Q

What are the Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s drugs?

A

Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone

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129
Q

What is Concrete Thinking?

A

Can’t interpret abstract proverbs, only sees the facts

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130
Q

Explain Obstructive Lung Disease:

A

Obstructive: Airway structure problem that causes trouble breathing out (mucus filled lungs)PFT’s: FEV/FVC is less tha 0.8, increased RV; Reid index increased (thick airway)ABD: decreased pH, normal to low PO2, increased PCO2Most common cause of Death is BronchiectasisTreatment: ventilator to increase respiratory rate and expiratory time, increase oxygen only if needed

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131
Q

What is the MOA of Methyldopa?

A

Alpha 2 agonist = decreases peripheral resistance

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132
Q

What drugs cause Pulmonary Eosinophilia?

A

Nitrofurantoin and Sulfonamides

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133
Q

What is Hirschprungs Disease?

A

Failure of innervation to the rectum (No Auerbach’s Plexus), lack of meconium passage in the newborn, Neural crest cell migration problem

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134
Q

What is the MOA of Guanethidine?

A

Interferes with norepinephrine release

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135
Q

What is pseudo-pseudo-hypoparathyroidsm?

A

G-Protein defect, and there is no calcium problem

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136
Q

What is Malingering?

A

Fake illness for monetary gain or getting out of jail, avoids medical treatmentTx: Supportive Psychotherapy

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137
Q

What does alpha one anti-trypsin do?

A

Inhibits Elastase

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138
Q

What GI disease has a String Sign on X-Ray?

A

Pyrloric Stenosis and Crohn’s Disease

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139
Q

What is DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

No Thymus, inferior Parathyroid and low calcium

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140
Q

What is a Meningocele?

A

Sacral pocket with meninges in it

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141
Q

What does auscultation of rhonchi tell you?

A

Mucus in the airway (obstructive airway disease)

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142
Q

What is the indication for Osmotic Laxatives?

A

Constipation

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143
Q

What is Suppression?

A

Consciously block memory

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144
Q

What is Placenta Previa?

A

The placenta is implanted wholly or partially in lower uterine segment

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145
Q

Which of your cells express MHC-1?

A

All nucleated cells except the immune-privileged cells/tissues, RBC’s and Platelets

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146
Q

What are the Indications for Desmopressin (DDAVP)/ADH?

A

Antidiuresis and Central (pituitary) DI

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147
Q

What are the atypical (no cell wall) Bacteria?

A

“CLUMsy”C - ChlamydiaL - LegionellaU - UreaplasmaM - Mycoplasma

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148
Q

When performing a low does dexamethasone test, a depression in ACTH levels occur, what does that tell you?

A

Patient is either depressed, obese, or it’s a normal variant, if the low dose Dexamethasone test does not suppress…

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149
Q

What is seen in Warm Autoimmune?

A

Anti-Rh Ab Dapsone, PTU, antimalarials, and sulfa drugsAntibody (IgG) binds to RBC’s membrane in warm temp

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150
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

Early stop codon

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151
Q

What bug loves the posterior fossa?

A

TB

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152
Q

Banana-shape on x-ray?

A

IHSS

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153
Q

What is a Hyperacute Rejection?

A

Autoimmune response within 12 hours, preformed antibodies respondedThis is a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

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154
Q

What is Sadism?

A

Gives physical and psychological pain

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155
Q

What is persistent eye drainage since birth usually due to?

A

Blocked Duct

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156
Q

What is a Tamponade?

A

Decreased breathe sounds and blood pressure, distant muffled heart soundsicnreased JVD

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157
Q

What is Whipple’s Disease?

A

Tropheryma Whipplei (T. Whipplei) destroy the GI tractCausing Malabsorption/Arthralgia, PAS (+)

158
Q

What is Pneumonia?

A

Consolidation of airway

159
Q

What are the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

Lovastatin, Pravastatin, Simvastatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin

160
Q

What is associated with S. Pneumoniae?

A

Otitis Media, red bulging TM

161
Q

What is the MOA of Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors?

A

Inhibits intestinal brush border Alpha-Glucosidases, Delays sugar hydrolysis and Glucose absorption from the guy, Decreases postprandial hyperglycemia

162
Q

What do white diaper crystals suggest?

A

Excess Orotic acid

163
Q

Where is a Morgagni Hernia?

A

Anterior/middle of diaphragm, bowel sounds in thorax, seen on US in uterosurgery to fix immediately after birth

164
Q

How do you measure efferent renal function?

A

BUN or PAH

165
Q

What is Pityriasis Rosea?

A

Herald Patch that migrates along skin lines in a Christmas Tree appearance

166
Q

What are the indications for B-blockers

A

HTN, Angina, MI, Antiarrhythmic

167
Q

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia III (2B)?

A

Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Carcinoma of the Thyroid, Mucosal Neuromas/ Marfanoid body habitus. (tumor marker RET)

168
Q

What is Congenital Hip Dysplasia?

A

Hip dislocation may be developed in uterus during delivery, found during new born eval, gluteal fold asymmetricThe Barlow/Ortolani maneuver test: there is a palpable “clunk: or click as the hip is dislocated in a posterior-superior direction

169
Q

What does a Northern blot detect?

A

RNA, “sNow, dRop”

170
Q

What is associated with EIEC?

A

Inflammatory = loose stool

171
Q

What is Cullen’s SIgn?

A

Bruising around the umbilicusCaused by hemorrhagic pancreatitis (late sign)

172
Q

What Hepatitis B labs indicate an acute recent infection?

A

HBcAg+, HBsAg+, (HBcAb+/-)

173
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier?

A

Baby with bleeding from skin and mucosa(Big platelets and LOW GP-1b)

174
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

Gluconeogenesis by proteolysis and thins the skin, prevents and immune response, and decrease bone mass

175
Q

What are the most common infections of the Low Energy State?

A

UTI and respiratory infections

176
Q

What are the Comma (curved) shaped bugs?

A

Vibrio, Campylobacter, Listeria, H. Pylori

177
Q

What is Dysmenorrhea?

A

PG-F causes painful menstrual cramps. (Teenagers miss school / work)

178
Q

What is Asperger’s?

A

Good communication skills, impaired relationships, no mental retardation

179
Q

What is the most common cause of first trimester spontaneous abortions?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities

180
Q

What is Familial Polyposis?

A

100% ridk of Colon Cancer, APC gene defect and annual Colonoscopy start at 5 years of age

181
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

Located in the Substantia Nigra, bradykinesia, pill rolling tremor, shuffling gait, Lewy Bodies

182
Q

What is associated with Bordetella Pertussis?

A

Whooping cough, ADP ribosylates Gi

183
Q

When can you tell the sex of the baby by US?

A

Week 16

184
Q

What is Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Anti-islet cell antibody /GAD (Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase) antibody.

185
Q

What hormones produce Acidophilus?

A

“GAP”: GH, Acidophilus, and Prolactin

186
Q

What are the most common causes of third trimester spontaneous abortions?

A

Anti-Cardiolipin Ab, placenta probelms, infection, incompetent cervix

187
Q

What is the most common cause of a White Reflex?

A

Retinoblastoma

188
Q

What is Truncus arteriosus?

A

Spiral membrane did not develop, there is one Aortic Pulmonary trunk, mixed blood, needs PDA

189
Q

What is an Epstein’s Pearl?

A

White pearls on hard palate

190
Q

What is seen in RPGN?

A

Crescents

191
Q

What does a Synthase do?

A

Consumes two substrates

192
Q

What is asthma?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease of the airwayscharacterized by variable and recurring symptoms, wheezing on expiration, elevated IgE and Eosinophils

193
Q

What is Autism?

A

Poor eye contact, repetitive movements, lack of verbal skills and bonding, symptoms since birthTx: Behavioral modification, use antipsychotic if have aggressive behavior

194
Q

What are Mongolian spots?

A

Melanocytes on lower back

195
Q

What is a Factor V - Leiden?

A

Protein C cannot break down Factor V

196
Q

What disease has exophthalmos?

A

Grave’s disease

197
Q

When can you first detect fetal heart tones?

A

Week 20

198
Q

What is Multiple Personality Disorder?

A

They have 5-10 alters, usually associated with incest

199
Q

What is the job of the TAL of Henle?

A

Makes the concentration gradient by reabsorbing Na, K, Cl, Mg, and Ca without water. (Impermeable to H2O)

200
Q

What is the most common Nephrotic disease complication with cancer?

A

Amyloidosis

201
Q

What are CD4 cells?

A

T-helper cell - Responds to MHC-2 (foreign attack)

202
Q

What is the APGAR test?

A

Neonatal Rating Scale (0-10) Greater than 7Test @ 1 minute and 5 minutesA - Appearance (Color)P - PulseG - GrimaceA - ActivityR - Respiration

203
Q

What symptoms does a “more likely to depolarize” state have?

A

Brain: Psychosis, seizures, jitterinessSkeletal Muscle: muscle spasms, tetanySmooth Muscle: diarrhea, then constipationCardiac: tachycardia, arrhythmia

204
Q

Whata re the anabolic pathways that store energy? (occur in the cytoplasm)

A

Fatty acid synthesis, Glycolysis, HMP shunt, translation

205
Q

Whata re the indications for Guanethidine?

A

Severe HTN

206
Q

Which cytokines do T-helper cells stimulate?

A

All IL’s except IL-1

207
Q

What is seen in newborn with HSV-2 in utero infections?

A

Temporal Lobe encephalitis, must offer C-section to mom with active lesions

208
Q

What is the Primary Diabetes Insipidus (DI)?

A

Too much water (urinates a lot)

209
Q

What is Merocrine?

A

Cell is maintained. (exocytosis)

210
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Thyroidectomy

211
Q

What are the Silver Stainer’s?

A

“HaLV-C”H - H. PyloriL - ListeriaV - VicrioC - Campylobacter

212
Q

What has WBC Casts and RBC Casts?

A

Glomerulonephritis

213
Q

What are the 3 kinds of generalized seizures?

A

Tonic-clonic “Grand Mal”Absence “Petit Mal”Status Epilepticus

214
Q

What are the side effects of Progesterone?

A

Acne, depression, HTN, increase appetite, acne causes dilution anemia, quiescent uterus, PICA, hypotension, melisma (AKA Chloasma)

215
Q

What is Ficticious Disorder by Proxy?

A

Mom makes the child or another person ill for emotional support, noted to move frequently

216
Q

What is associated with ETEC?

A

Traveler’s Diarrhea = rice water diarrhea

217
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Levothyroxine (T4)/Triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Tachycardia, heat intolerance, tremors and Arrhythmias

218
Q

What is the Somatic Nervous System?

A

Moving your muscles

219
Q

What state does Estrogen mimic?

A

The Neuromuscular disease stateEstrogen is a muscle relaxant

220
Q

What is the most common Nephrotic disease in diabetics?

A

Nodular Sclerosis

221
Q

What is Placenta Accreta?

A

Placenta is attached to the endometrium

222
Q

What is Polymenorrhea?

A

Too many periods

223
Q

What do you see in CMV in utero infections?

A

Spastic diplegia of legs, hepatosplenomegaly, blindness, central calcifications

224
Q

What diseases have Hemoptysis?

A

Bronchiectasis, Bronchitis, Pneumonia, TB, Lung CA, Goodpasture’s, Wegener’s

225
Q

What are the Immuno-privileged sites?

A

Areas of the body that have no lymphatic flow, no antigens, and these areas can be transplanted without fear of rejection (brain, cornea, thymus, and testes) they do not express MHC-1

226
Q

What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Leukemia’s?

A

Acute: started out in the bone marrow, squeezes RBC out of the marrowChronic: started in the periphery, not constrained and will expand

227
Q

What is Lochia?

A

Endometrial slough. (normal discharge and uterus after birth)

228
Q

What does fixed wide S-2 splitting tell you?

A

ASD

229
Q

What is Cryptorchidism?

A

Testes never descended out of abdomen, sterility after 15 months, predisposed to seminomas and CA

230
Q

What is the MOA of Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Na+ channel blocker

231
Q

What is the function of ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)?

A

Stimulates Cortisol and Androgen releases from the adrenal gland

232
Q

What is the indication for Salmeterol?

A

Long acting agent for prophylaxis

233
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Beta Oxidation?

A

Carnitine Acyltransferase -1 (CAT-1)

234
Q

What do the IgA protease bugs cause?

A

Sinusitis, Otitis Media, Pneumonia/Bronchitis

235
Q

What are the causes of Hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Sepsis, ABO Incompatibility, Hypothyroidism and Breast-feeding

236
Q

What does a Hydroxylase do?

A

Adds-OH group onto substrate

237
Q

What is Mittelschmerz

A

Pain with ovulation

238
Q

What is the MOA of Ezetimibe?

A

Prevents cholesterol reabsorption at small intestine brush border

239
Q

What is Barrett’s Esophagus?

A

Metaplasia of the lower esophagus increased risk of Adenocarcinoma

240
Q

How do you diagnose Rheumatic Fever?

A

JONES CriteriaJ - Joint InvolvementO - MyocarditisN- Nodules, subcutaneousE - Erythema MarginatumS- Sydenham Chorea

241
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

Mistaken amino acid substitution (i.e. SS disease Valine for Glutamic Acid)

242
Q

What are the adverse effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

Hepatotoxicity (increase LFT’s)Rhabdo

243
Q

What is Masochism?

A

Receives pain (Humiliation)

244
Q

What other diseases can have exophthalmos?

A

Horner’s and Marfan’s

245
Q

What vessels have the highest capacitance?

A

Veins and Venules

246
Q

Waht does the Surface Ag tell you?

A

Alone it means it’s been occupied/ with other markers it means it is a current infection, if present for > 6 months it’s chronic

247
Q

What is seen in iron deficiency?

A

Anemia

248
Q

What is Celiac Sprue?

A

Found in the JejunumWheat AllergyVillous atrophAnti-gluter-gliadin antibodies

249
Q

What is uremia?

A

Azotemia (renal failure) with symptoms

250
Q

What is Urge incontinence?

A

Urgency leads to complete voiding detrusor spasticity leads to small bladder volume

251
Q

What does epinephrine (Epi) do?

A

Drives gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

252
Q

What bug is associated with cat saliva?

A

Pasteurella Multocida

253
Q

What is a Corticotrope?

A

ACTH

254
Q

What is Ductal Carcinoma?

A

Worst prognosis Breast CA

255
Q

What is associated with C. Tetani?

A

Rusty nail wounds - inhibits GLY release, respiratory failure, Risus Sardonicus, tennis racquet shaped appearance

256
Q

What is Meig’s Syndrome?

A

Pleural effusion, ovarian fibroma, ascites

257
Q

What blood level should be monitored in patients taking statins?

A

Liver enzymes every 3 months and Serum Cr

258
Q

What is the most common cause of Polyhydramnios?

A

Neuromuscular problem: Werdnig HoffmanGI problem: Duodenal atresia

259
Q

What is Hairy Cell Leukemia?

A

Cells have a fried egg/ Sunburst appearance and TRAP +

260
Q

What does motilin do?

A

Stimulates segmentation, primary peristalsis, and migrating motor complexes (MMC)

261
Q

What is Pneumothorax?

A

Absent breath sounds on one side

262
Q

What is Identification?

A

To be like or to become like another (aspect, property or attribute of another)

263
Q

What is the most common cause of post-coital Vaginal Bleeding in Pregnant women?

A

Placenta previa

264
Q

What are the adverse effects of Hydralazine?

A

Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention, Lupus like syndrome, contraindicated in Angina/CAD because of compensatory tachy

265
Q

What does an AFI >20 indicate?

A

Polyhydramnios (DM)

266
Q

What is Somatization?

A

Psychological trigger gets them sick, but no medical finding (Pain in 4 parts, 2 GI problems)Tx: Psychotherapy

267
Q

What is the second generation Sulfonylureas?

A

Glyburide, Glimepiride, and Glipizide

268
Q

What can you measure to test afferent arteriole’s function?

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or Inulin

269
Q

What does a wide S-2 split tell you?

A

Increases OxygenIncreased right ventricular volumeDelayed pulmonic vlave opening

270
Q

What are the indications for administering Potassium?

A

Digoxin toxicity, activated charcoal: binds digoxin in the intestineDigibind: binds to digoxin in the bloodstream

271
Q

What is Tracheitis?

A

“Acute URI”Patients look toxicGrey PseudomembraneLeukocytosis

272
Q

What is the common side effect of the ERCP procedure?

A

Pacreatitis from blocking the pancreatic duct during the procedure

273
Q

What amino acid turns yellow on Ninhydrin reaction?

A

Pro

274
Q

What is the job of the late Distal Tubule and Collecting Duct?

A

Final concentration of urine by reabsorbing water and excretion of acid

275
Q

What separates unconjugated bilirubin from albumin?

A

Sulfur (no Sulfur Rx in pregnancy)

276
Q

What is Caput Succedaneum?

A

Bleeding under scalp (edema will cross suture lines)

277
Q

What are the indications for Levothyroxine (T4)/Triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Hypothyroidism and Myxedema

278
Q

What is an Autograft?

A

Twin to twin (spare parts)

279
Q

What are the H2 blockers?

A

Cimetidine, Ranitidine, Famotidine, and Nizatidine

280
Q

How does a Subdural Hematoma present?

A

Headache 4 weeks after trauma, elderly (loose brain)

281
Q

What GI disease has a RUQ Olive Mass?

A

Pyloric Stenosis

282
Q

How would you know the patient has a Vitamin A (retinoic Acid) Deficiency?

A

Poor night vision, Hypoparathyroidism, dry skin

283
Q

What is Histiocytosis X?

A

Histiocyte proliferation Kid with Eczema, skill lesionsHand-Schuller-Christian disease

284
Q

What is Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

A

Imagined physical defect, causing impaired function in a social or occupational activityTx: SSRI

285
Q

What happens when there is a biotin Deficiency?

A

Loss of carboxylase function

286
Q

What is the MOA of Methylxanthines?

A

Inhibit Phosphodiesterase -> decreases cAMP hydrolysis promoting bronchodilation

287
Q

How does a Somatostatinoma present?

A

Constipation

288
Q

What are the types of VWD?

A

Type 1 (AD): Decreased VW FActor ProductionType 2 (AD): Decreased VW Activity(+ Ristocetin Aggregation test)Type 3 (AR): No VWF

289
Q

What does Calcitonin do?

A

Inhibits Osteoclasts and binds to calcium

290
Q

What is Countertransference?

A

Doctor views patient as child

291
Q

What does Sudan Black Stain test for?

A

Steatorrhea (fat malabsorption), patient seen with chronic pale, greasy, malodorous diarrhea and no evidence of infection

292
Q

What tests are used for following Pancreatitis?

A

Amylase (sensitive) breaks down Carbohydrates and Lipase (specific) breaks down Triglycerides

293
Q

What is Postpartum Psychosis

A

Hallucinations, suicidal/infaticidal thoughts

294
Q

What color is stool with an Upper GI Bleed?

A

Black (Dark Red) (Melena)

295
Q

What are the most common signs of the Low Energy State?

A

Tachypnea and Dyspnea

296
Q

What is the Adverse Effect of Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s?

A

Weight gain, edema, hepatotoxicity, increases LDL and triglycerides, CHF and Contraindicated

297
Q

What is the MOA of Octreotide?

A

Long-acting somatostatin analog

298
Q

What is Plummer’s Syndrome?

A

Hyperthyroid adenoma

299
Q

What is aspergillosis?

A

Mold, compost piles, associated with peanuts

300
Q

How does Diverticulitis present?

A

Pain in LLQ, no visible blood and may cause peritonitis

301
Q

What has WBC Casts?

A

Nephritis

302
Q

What are the cholesterol Absorption blockers?

A

Ezetimibe

303
Q

What murmurs occur during systole?

A

Holosystolic or pansystolic

304
Q

What is Acting out?

A

expression of impulse, “Temper Tantrums”

305
Q

What is the Intermediate Acting Insulin drug?

A

NPH and Lente

306
Q

What is Schatzki’s Ring?

A

Esophageal webs in the lower EsophagusDysphagia (mucosal tissue)

307
Q

What is McArdle’s?

A

Myophosphorylase deficiency(skeletal muscle Glycogen Phosphorylase)muscle cramps w/ exercise, increased Glycogen in muscle only, blood glucose NLSecond wind phenomenon

308
Q

What is inevitable Abortion?

A

Cervix is open, baby is intact

309
Q

What is pseudo-hypoparathyroidism?

A

Bad kidney, PTH receptor, decreased urinary, cAMP

310
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

A

Iron deposits in organsleads to hyperpigmentation, bronze diabetes, and arthritis

311
Q

What do B cell deficiency patients die of?

A

Bacterial infection?

312
Q

What are the adverse effects of Guanethidine?

A

Contraindicated in patients taking TCA’s

313
Q

What affects Potency?

A

Km (EC50)

314
Q

What does blood type A tell you?

A

They have the A antigen and B antibodies

315
Q

What does Vit B4 do?

A

Glycolysis, no known diseases

316
Q

What is Illusion?

A

Misinterprets stimulus

317
Q

What is Repression?

A

Subconsciously block memory

318
Q

What is Thought Withdrawal?

A

Believes that others are taking thoughts out of his head

319
Q

What does S-2 splitting tell you?

A

Normal on inspirationPulmonic valve closing later

320
Q

What is open-angle glaucoma?

A

Overproduction of fluid, painless Ipsilateral dilated pupil, gradual tunnel vision, optic disc cupping

321
Q

What is Pseudomembranous Colitis?

A

Overgrowth of C. DiffDue to normal flora being killed off from long term antibiotic use

322
Q

What are the indications for H2 blockers?

A

Peptic ulcer, gastritis and esophageal reflux

323
Q

What is a Necrophile?

A

Someone who has sex with corpses

324
Q

What is associated with R. Rickettsii?

A

Ticks = Rocky Mountain spotted fever

325
Q

What is associated with Shigella?

A

Day care outbreaks, seizures, destroys the 60S ribosome, infects M-cells

326
Q

What is Post-Renal Failure?

A

Obstruction (hydronephrosis)

327
Q

What is a Bezoar?

A

Mass of non-digestible product (i.e. Hair) causing an occlusion at the pylorus

328
Q

What is a Hemangioblastoma?

A

In the cerebellum, associated with VHL

329
Q

What will you see with Iron Deficiency Anemia?

A

Increased TIBC associated with menses, GI bleeding, and Koilonychia

330
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B5 (Pantothenic Acid) Deficiency?

A

No deficiency state

331
Q

What is a fetish?

A

High attraction for inanimate objects

332
Q

What is a possible cause if pulse rises more than 10 bpm in repositioning from lying to sitting?

A

Hypervolemia

333
Q

What does the Hep B Core Ag tell you?

A

Gone before patient has symptoms (present from 0-2 months)

334
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss?

A

Tearing of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), associated with chronic vomiting, cough up a little blood and possible visible varices

335
Q

What is Cushing’s disease?

A

High ACTH due to pituitary tumor or Small cell carcinoma of the lungs

336
Q

What is a Craniopharyngioma?

A

Motor oil biopsy, tooth enamel, Rathke’s Pouch, ADH problem, Bitemporal Hemianopsia

337
Q

What Does Vit E do?

A

Antioxidantacts as an tagonist to Vit K in high levels

338
Q

What are the Foot Ulcer Risk Factors?

A

Poor glycemic control (HbA1C >7), smoking, bony abnormalities, previous ulcers

339
Q

What GI disease has a Thumb Print on X-Ray?

A

Toxic Megacolon

340
Q

What is Silicosis?

A

Sandblasters and glassblowers

341
Q

What is Tropical Sprue?

A

Found in the distal iliumCaused by bacterial or viral, amoeba or parasitic infectionVillous atrophy

342
Q

What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids?

A

Osteoporosis, Cushingoid reaction, psychosis, glucose intolerance, infection, HTN, cataracts

343
Q

What is Holocrine?

A

The whole cell is secreted. (except sebaceous gland)

344
Q

What is Acromegaly?

A

Growth hormone tumor producing increased IGF-1 causing: bone growth in adults, coarse facial features, large furrowed tongue, deep husky voice, jaw protrusion

345
Q

When is B-HCG found in Blood?

A

8-10 days after fertilization

346
Q

What does Chymotrypsin cut?

A

Phe, Tyr, Trp

347
Q

What is Backward Typing?

A

Used Antigens to detect Antibodies

348
Q

What are the ketogenic amino acids?

A

Lys, Leu

349
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of GLP-1 Analogs?

A

Nausea, Vomiting and Pancreatitis

350
Q

What makes Scleroderma Unique?

A

Can have a decreased LES pressure or and increased LES pressure

351
Q

What is epiglottitis?

A

inflammation of the epiglottisthumb sign on x-rayexcessive drooling

352
Q

Waht is associated with Brucella?

A

Seen in farmers/ Vets, Animal placentas are the vector, Spiking fever 5 times a day

353
Q

What GI disease has Barium Clumping on X-Ray?

A

Celiac Sprue

354
Q

What are the Short Acting Insulin drugs?

A

Aspart and Lispro

355
Q

What is seen in Measles (Rubeola)?

A

CCCK: Cough, Coryza (runny nose), Conjunctivitis, Koplik SpotMorbilliform blotchy rash

356
Q

What is an Insulinoma?

A

Insulin secreting tumor, labs show increased insulin and C-peptide

357
Q

What ion has the greatest movement at rest?

A

Potassium

358
Q

What is seen with Fluoride deficiency?

A

Poor teeth and bone growth

359
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate immunization >2/52 weeks?

A

HBsAb+

360
Q

What valves make noise at the end of systole?

A

Aortic and Pulmonic

361
Q

What is Riedel’s Struma?

A

“Woody” connective tissue in neck, death due to suffocation and must rule out CA

362
Q

What is the MOA of Digoxin?

A

Direct inhibition of Na+/K= ATPase leads to indirect inhibition of Na+/Ca2+ exchanger, positive inotrope, stimulates vagus nerve

363
Q

What does a Thio do?

A

Breaks S bonds

364
Q

What is Hungry Bone Syndrome?

A

Removal of PTH and the bone sucks in calcium

365
Q

What do high GABA levels lead to?

A

Bradycardia, lethargy, constipation, impotence, memory loss

366
Q

What is Shoulder Dystocia?

A

Head is out of vagina, shoulder is stuck. (Occurs in late term deliveries and DM in mom)

367
Q

What structures have Fake sphincters?

A

Ureters, LES, Ileocecal valve

368
Q

What does Endocrine mean?

A

Secreted into bood

369
Q

What are the indications for Misoprostol?

A

Prevents NSAID-induced peptic ulcers, maintenance of a Patent Ductus ArteriosusInduce labor

370
Q

What is the Indication for PTU and Methimazole?

A

Hyperthyroidism

371
Q

What are the expectorants?

A

Guaifenesin, N-acetylcysteine

372
Q

What does an epimerase do?

A

Creates an epimer, which differs around one chiral carbon

373
Q

What is the MOA of Guaifenesin?

A

Removes excess sputum but does not suppress cough reflex

374
Q

What are the indications for Pseudoephedrine, Phenylephrine?

A

Reduces Hyperemesis, edema, nasal congestion, and opens obstructed Eustachian tubes

375
Q

What has Crescents?

A

RPGN

376
Q

What are wide sutures due to?

A

Hypothyroidism and Down’s Syndrome

377
Q

What is a Transvestite?

A

Dress up as opposite sex, no identity crisis

378
Q

What does SAM donated methyl groups for?

A

All other reactions

379
Q

When do valves make noise under normal physiology?

A

When the valves close

380
Q

What is systole?

A

Ejection of blood from the heart, Decreased blood flow to Coronary arteries, more extraction of Oxygen Phase 1 Korotkoff

381
Q

What is Homocystinuria?

A

No Homocysteine -> Cysteine(Cystathionine Synthase Deficiency)or Homocysteine Methyltransferase(Methionine Synthase) Deficiency or decreased Affinity of Cystathionine Synthase for Pyridoxal PhosphateIncreased Homocysteine in urinMarfanoid Habitusdownward dislocation of lensincreased risk stroke/MI

382
Q

What is associated with Bacillus Anthracis?

A

Black Eschar, Wool Sorter’s Lung diseaseD-Glu, boxcar-like spore, treat with Cipro

383
Q

What type of immunity does TH1 provide?

A

Enhances cell mediated immunity

384
Q

What are the adverse effects of Prazosin?

A

Orthostatic Hypotension

385
Q

What is the most common cause of post-coital Vaginal Bleeding?

A

Cervical CA

386
Q

What are the Leopold Maneuvers?

A

To determine the position of the babyFeel the fundusFeel the baby’s neckFeel the pelvic inletFeel the baby’s head

387
Q

What is the function of Inhibin?

A

Inhibits FSH so there is no menstruation

388
Q

What is a Transsexual?

A

Gender Identity crisis

389
Q

What are the Survival Hormones?

A

Cortisol: permissive under stress. TSH: permissive under normal

390
Q

What is the cause of Symmetrically small babies?

A

In Early onset: Chromosomal Abnormalities or TORCHES

391
Q

What will you see in Lead Poisoning?

A

Decreased dALA dehydrogenasedecreased Ferrochelataseblue lines on x-rayhistory of eating old paint chips

WP CLUES (22 decks)

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