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A S C P I > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Acetylcholine-receptor blocking antibodies

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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2
Q

Anti-myelin antibodies

A

Multiple Sclerosis

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3
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane Abs

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

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4
Q

Anti-mitochondrial Abs

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

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5
Q

Anti-smooth muscle Abs

A

Chronic Active Hepatitis

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6
Q

Anti-thyroglobulin and anti-microsomal (anti-thyroid peroxidase) Abs

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
⬆️ TSH
⬇️ T3,T4

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7
Q

Anti-TSH receptor Abs

A

Grave’s Dse

⬆️ T3,T4
⬇️ TSH

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8
Q

Play a role in CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY

A

T cells

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9
Q

Produce sensitized lymphocytes that secrete CYTOKINES

A

T cells

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10
Q

2/3 of peripheral T cells

A

CD4+ HELPER/INDUCER T CELLS

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11
Q

Normal value of CD4 CELLS

AND VALUE IN AIDS PX

A 
N = 1000/uL
AIDS = <200/uL
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12
Q

Other name for CD8 cells

A

Cytotoxic or Suppressor T cells

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13
Q

1/3 of peripheral T cells

A

CD8

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14
Q

Normal value CD4/CD8 RATIO

And in AIDS PX

A 
N = 2:1
AIDS = <0.5:1
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15
Q

Differentiate into memory cells and plasma cells

A

B cells

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16
Q

Functions of B cells (2)

A

Humoral Immunity and Antibody formation

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17
Q

Percentage of Px with hashimoto’s thyroiditis that express ANTI-TPO

A

90%

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18
Q

Percentage of Px with hashimoto’s thyroiditis that express ANTI-THYROGLOBULIN

A

20-50%

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19
Q

OUCHTERLONY DIFFUSION PATTERNS:

Arc (smooth curve) indicates that the 2 antigens are IDENTICAL

A

Serological Identity

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20
Q

OUCHTERLONY DIFFUSION PATTERNS:
Two crossed lines represent two different pption rxns.
Antigens share NO IDENTICAL DETERMINANTS (intersect)

A

Non-identity

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21
Q

OUCHTERLONY DIFFUSION PATTERNS:

Ag 1 shares a determinant that is part of Ag 2 (not as complex); (SPUR)

A

Partial Identity

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22
Q

1st step in agglutination

A

Sensitization

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23
Q

Involves ag-ab combination through single antigenic determinants on the particle surface

A

Sensitization

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24
Q

2nd step in agglutination which is the formation or cross-links that form the visible aggregates.

A

Lattice formation

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25
Q

Step in agglutination that represents ag-ab complexes with the binding together of multiple antigenic determinants

A

Lattice formation

26
Q

A rxn in which PARTICLES COATED WITH ANTIGENS not normally found on their surfaces clump together bc of combination with Ab

A

PASSIVE AGGLUTINATION

ANTIGEN to ANTIBODY

27
Q

A rxn in which CARRIER PARTICLES COATED WITH ANTIBODY clump together bc of a combination with Ag
(AB TO AG)

A

Reverse-Passive Agglutination

28
Q

Determines IN VIVO attachment of Ab or complement to RBCs, using AHG = visible agglutination rxn

A

DIRECT AHG TEST (DAT)

29
Q

Often uses as the 1st line DAT; detects RBCs with either IgG/Ig3 bound to them

A

Polyspecific AHG

30
Q

Positive test with anti-IgG;
Autoab bound in vivo to px’s RBCs,
Alloab to transfused RBCs,
Maternal ab bound to NEONATAL RBCs.

A

Monospecific AHG ANTI-IgG

31
Q

Positive test with Anti-C3:
IgG: Capable of binding the c’- usually IgG+
IgM: cold-reactive autoab

A

Monoclonal AHG ANTI-c3d

32
Q

Purpose of washing RBCs in DAT

A

To remove any unbound Ab

33
Q

Added to validate a negative result in DAT

A

Coomb’s control cells

34
Q

When IgG Abs are detected, what should the MT do next?

A

DISSOCIATE abs from the RBC surface to allow for ID

35
Q

Are used to RELEASE, CONCENTRATE and PURIFY Abs

A

Elution techniques

36
Q

Changes caused by methods used to remove Ab cause? (3)

A
  1. thermodynamics of the environment;
  2. Attractive forces between Ag and Ab;
  3. Structure of the RBC surface
37
Q

Dissociates IgG from RBCs with little or no damage to the RBC membrane

A

Chloroquine Diphosphate

38
Q

2 rgts useful in stripping Ab from the RBC surface, while leaving the membrane INTACT to allow PHENOTYPING

A

Chloroquine Diphosphate and ACID GLYCINE (EDTA)

39
Q

Positive result for COOMB’S CTRL CELLS/CHECK CELLS

A

Agglutination

40
Q

Potential reasons for a false-negative result in DAT (No agglutination with Check Cells - INVALID) -(3)

A
  1. Failure to add the antiglobulin rgt to test
  2. Failure of the added antiglobulin rgt to react
  3. Failure to wash RBCs adequately
41
Q

Measurement of TOTAL IgE

A

RIST

42
Q

Determining Specific IgE

A

RAST/FAST

43
Q

RPR: NR
VDRL: Reactive

A

Late, latent or previous syphilis

44
Q

Immune status evaluation

A

Rubella: women of childbearing age;
Syphilis Testing: obtain marriage license;
CMV: transplant donor & recipient

45
Q

Immunologic manifestation of HAV infxn

A

Stool HAV ➡️ IgM anti-HAV (acute) ➡️ IgG anti-HAV (Immunity)

46
Q

An excellent indicator of chronicity in hepatitis infxn

A

PERSISTENCE OF SURFACE ANTIGEN

Chronic infxn: surface Ab does not appear, surface Ag persists

47
Q

2 diseases caused by HTLV-I

A
  1. Adult T-cell Ieukemia/lymphoma (ATL)

2. HLTV-associated myelopathy/Tropical spastic paraparesis (HAM/TSP)

48
Q

Screening test for HTLV

A

ELISA (if + retested by ELISA)

49
Q

Confirmatory test for HTLV

A

Western Blot

50
Q

Detectable within DAYS of HIV infxn

A

VIRAL RNA

51
Q

Detectable in 2-3wks; Undetected when Abs develop; becomes detectable AGAIN in LATE STAGES (Immune system fails; Virus replicates)

A

p24 Ag

52
Q

Detected, peaks and becomes undetectable: IgM (HIV)

A

D: 2-8wks
P: 1-2wks
UD: 1-2wks later

53
Q

Detected and increase: IgG Ab (HIV)

A

D: shortly after IgM
Gradual increase on titer over SEVERAL MONTHS.
LONG LASTING

54
Q

Confirmatory for HIV

A

Western Blot

55
Q

Reasons why Western blot is not recommended for initial screening (3)

A
  1. Labor intensive
  2. Relatively insensitive
  3. Long TATB
56
Q

Positive for WESTERN BLOT (HIV)

A

At least 2/3 bands present:

p24, gp41, gp120/gp160

57
Q

If an INDETERMINATE TEST RESULT IS OBTAINED IN HIV WESTERN BLOT, it is recommended that

A

Test be repeated with the same or a fresh specimen

58
Q

Used for improved specificity in detecting LYME DSE

A

Western Blot

59
Q

Aids in dx of Congenital Toxoplasmosis (newborns)

A

Detectable IgM antibody (newborns);

Supported with the presence of ⬆️ IgM titers in the mother’s serum

60
Q

Mental retardation, most have large head size, prominent ears, jaw and macro-orchidism

A

Fragile X syndrome

61
Q

Molecular dx of Fragile X syndrome

A

SOUTHERN BLOT OR METHYLATION ANALYSIS

A S C P I (7 decks)

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