Immunological Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Allergic disease - definition

A

Innocuous antigens - not harmful

In sensitized host - mast cells primed with IgE

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2
Q

Antibody mediated hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type 1 - 3

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3
Q

Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type 4

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4
Q

Type 1 hypesensitivity also known as?

A

Anaphylatic

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5
Q

Type 2 known as?

A

Cytotoxic

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6
Q

Immune complex hyper sensitivity reaction?

A

Type 3

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7
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivty is also known as?

A

delayed type

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8
Q
Antibodies involved in the hypersensitivity reactions:
Type 1
Type 2 
Type 3
Type 4
A

1 = Ige
2 and 3 = IgG and IgM
4 = NONE

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9
Q

Diseases that cause each type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type 1 - allergic asthma - hay fever
Type 2 - autoimmune, penicillin allergy
Type 3 - lupus and vascilitis
Type 4 - RA, MS and IBD

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10
Q

Signs of each hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 1 - weal and flare
Type 2 - lysis and necrosis
Type 3 - Erythema and odema
Type 4 - oedema

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11
Q

Immune cells involved in each type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1 - eosinophils and basophils
Type 2 - compliment + natural killers
Type 3 - complement + neutrophils
Type 4 - lymphocytes and monocytes

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12
Q
Components of the immune response that normal combat parasites? (4)
Antibodies
Inflammatory
Lymphocytes
Interleukins
A

IgE antibodies
Inflammation = eosinophils, mast cells basophils
Lymphocytes = T cells CD4+ type 2
Interleukin = 4, 5, 13

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13
Q
Hygiene theory (3)
Body creating Th2 > Th1
A

More siblings = less allergies
More parasitic infections = less allergies (geographic)
More infection ‘experience’ = body is able to dampen down immune response –> no ‘over the top’ reaction

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14
Q

Genetic predisposition to allergies?

A

Polymorphisms in IL 4, 5, and 13 and receptors to IgG

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15
Q

Th2 cells release which cytokines?

- Type one reaction

A

IL 4 and 5

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16
Q

Affect of IL (in sensitization)
4
5

A
4 = class switching from IgM to IgE
5 = degranulation of eosinophils
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17
Q

What do cytokines stimulate the release of in the ‘Late phase’ of type 1 sensitivity reaction

A

Leukotrines and prostaglandins

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18
Q
Affects of an allergic reaction?
Eyes
nose
mouth
airways
Skin
GI
A
eyes = conjunctivitis
nose = rhinitis
mouth = oral allergy syndrome - tingling
airways = asthma - bronchospasm, constrictions and mucosal hyperplasia
skin = dermatitis
GI = food allergies - V&D
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19
Q

Atopic triad?

A

Asthma
Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Rhinitis

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20
Q

Diagnosis what kind of hypersensitivity?

A

TIME AFTER exposure to the allergen

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21
Q

Test of allergies? (6)

Gold standard?

A

Blood test - IgE specific
Skin Prick - response > 3mm
Intradermal
Oral challenge - GOLD STANDARD for food allergy
Basophil Activation test - culture basophils
Component resolved diagnosis - test specific parts of proteins against IgEs

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22
Q

Treatments for allergies (in order of increasing severity) (4)
+ Specific immunotherapy (sublingual and subcutaneous) = just for bee stings, animal hair and hay fever

A

Avoidance
Antihistamines
Steroids
Adrenaline

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23
Q

Food allergies most common in children (80% grow out of)

A

milk and eggs

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24
Q

Food allergies that you don’t grow out of

A

Soya beans and peanuts

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25
Signs of food allergies (no seen in food intolerance) | NOTE: V&D seen in both
Bronchospasm Oral symptoms Rhinitis Urticaria - bumpy rash that itches
26
Autoimmunity is what type of immune response?
Adaptive
27
Roll of T cells B cells In autoimmiune disease?
T cells = recognize self antigens | B cells and plasma cells = make Auoantibodies
28
When does inflammatory response start in autoimmune diseases?
After the action of lymphocytes and autoantibodies
29
Genetic component of autoimmune disease?
MHC Class II polymorphism = predispose
30
Environmental components (environmental triggers) of autoimmune disease? (3) Reason it present later in life Trigger a genetic factor
Infection (eg. Rheumatoid disease) Trauma Smoking - replaces AA in the bodies proteins so they are recognized as non self
31
Immunoregulation (physiological) component of autoimmune disease
Autoimmunity attacks cancer cells that present with self antigens = protective
32
Process of developing tolerence
Lymphocytes produces to be nondescriminant Exposed to self antigens Either destroyed or mature depending on response
33
during the development of tolerance: Negatively selected? Positively selected mean?
Negatively selected = cell response to the self antigens and is destroyed Positively selected = cell doesn't respond to self antigens and matures to a T/B Cell
34
Regulatory T cells - results in developing tolerance? | Action in immune response?
Has slight reaction to self antigen - is kept | Regulate an immune response
35
where is central tolerance developed in B cells T cells
B cells = bone marrow | T cells = Thymus
36
Regulatory T cells are coded for by which gene
FOXP3
37
Causes of autoimmune disease (6)
Genetics - MHC class II F>M Age - advanced Sequestered self antibodies - lymphocytes that aren't exposed to pathogens very often (Eg. in eye) Environmental trigger Continuation of inflammation - uncontrolled immune response
38
2 classifications of autoimmune disease
Organ specific | Systemic
39
Organ specific autoimmune diseases
Hashimoto thyroiditis - hypothryoid Graves disease - hyper thyroid Myasthenia Gravis - neuromuscular junction Pernicious anaemia - low B12
40
Action of autoantibodies in | Hashimoto thyroiditis
Cause inflammation
41
Action of autoantibodies in Grave's disease
Mimic TSH and stimulates the thryoid gland
42
Action of autoantibodies in Myasthenia Gravis
Mimics ATcH and blocks receptors at neruomuscular jnct = can't move facial muscles
43
Action of autoanitbodies in Pernicious aneamia
Bind to intrinsic factor so B12 can't be taken up
44
Systemic autoimmune conditions (2)
Systemic Lupus erythematous (SLE or Lupus) | Connective tissue disorders eg. Scleroderma
45
Disease process of lupus? (2 processes)
UV light --> damages skin --> releases nucleic contents --> stimulates sequestered antinucleaic self antibodies = rash Antibodies + antigen immune complex accumulate in the blood vessels = type 3 hypersensitivity and kidney damage
46
Autoinflammatory disorders? Eg. Polygenic crohn's Cause?
Rare disease with an overactive innate immune response No source of infection Due to polymorphism in Compliment and cytokines
47
Serum compliment (C4 and C5) is a measure for?
Flare ups of Lupus
48
Elevated ferritin in the blood signifies?
an inflammatory response
49
ANA? what does it stand for? What does it diagnose?
Antinucelar antibodies Diagnoses Lupus NOTE: is an immunofluorescence assay that shows there are antinuclear antibodies present NOT their specific targets
50
Muliplex? what is it for?
Identifying the type of aninucleaic antibodies in lupus NOTE: uses Synthetic Extractable nucleaic Antigens (ENA) incubated with the patient serum
51
Rheumatoid factor in the blood - what is it? what does it diagnose?
Antibody Vs Fc protein on IgG antibodies Non specific for Rheumatoid arthritis and also vascilitis
52
Serum Anti - CCP - what is it? What does it diagnose? what is it used for?
Immunoassay for antibody against CCP Specific for Rheumatoid arthritis Prognostic measure
53
Anti- neutrophillic cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) - diagnoses what? 2 types of staining
Vascilitis | Cytoplasmic or perinuclear = type of antibodies involved
54
Organ specific autoimmune testing method for liver disease?
Tissue block - using rodent tissue and ELISA (enzyme linked immuno assay)
55
Organ specific test for Primary biliary sclerosis?
Anti-mitochondrial antibodies assay
56
Organ specific test for Autoimmune hepatitis?
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies assay
57
Immunodeficiency definition?
The immune system is not effective enough to clear a pathogen
58
What is Primary Secondary Immunodeficiency?
Primary - inherted/ genetic cause = RARE | Secondary - due to external cause = more common
59
Causes of Secondary immunodeficiency (5)
``` Break down of physical barriers - CF, Burns, Age = thin skin Drugs Protein loss eg. Burns Malignancy - lymphomas and myeloma Infection - HIV and TB ```
60
Drugs that cause secondary immunodeficiency (6)
Steroids Disease modifying Anti-Rheumatic drugs (DMARD) Anticonvulsants Myelinsupressants - Chemo Rituximab Antibiotics = kills of commensal gut flora
61
MyD88 and IRAK4 - in the innate immune response
intracellular signal proteins that cause cytokines to be produced
62
IRAK4 deficiency (genetic) results in
``` Recurrent infections (staph and strep) NO raised CRP ```
63
Chronic Granulomatous disease - what is? what does it result in?
Lack of NAPDH complex in the phagolysomes | Phagocytosis can't occur --> granulomas of macrophages not able to perform an immune response
64
Common sites of Granulomas | Common bugs in granulomas
Lung, liver, skin and gut | Staph, Kelbsiella and aspergillus
65
Test for Chronic Granulomatous disease
Blood serum + Nitroblue Tetrazolium chloride --> goes dark blue
66
C4 and C5 compliment deficiency results in?
SLE, infection and myositis (muscle inflammation)
67
C5-C9 (in MAC) compliment deficiency results in?
recurrent meningitis - N. meningitis
68
X - linked agammaglobinaemia? Adaptive immune system genetic mutation What is it? - what Igs are lost? Results in?
Lack of maturation of Bcells = no IgA or IgG | Recurrent infections
69
Treatment of X linked agammaglobinaemia?
Subtaneous IgG injections
70
CVID - what does it stand for? what is it? eg.
Common variable immunodeficiency Other B cell abnormalities Eg. IgA deficiency
71
X-linker hyper IgM syndrome What doesn't happen? What are the effects?
Class switching can't occur | Loss of antibody secretion + recurrent sinopulmonary infections
72
SCID - what does it stand for?
Severe combined immunodeficiency
73
SCID what is it? (3)
Loss/ reduced B and T cells Loss/defected t cells molecules Loss/ defected MHC II proteins
74
SCID effect?
VERY RARE and severe Frequent opportunistic infections 'Bubble babies' - only survive with haemopoietin stem cell transplant
75
Action of Rituximab? = Secondary immundeficiency
Targets CD20 on Bcells --> kills them
76
Action of HIV? = secondary immunodeficiency
Kills CD4+ T helpers
77
Role of immunotheraputics?
Manipulate immune response to achieve desired immune response
78
Actions of immunotheraputics? (5)
Suppress Stimulate Guide in a certain way Induce tolerance
79
Biologic drugs
Genetically engineered proteins made from human genes | Target the immune system
80
3 classes of biologic drugs?
Mimic proteins - replace, increase amount or more potent Monoclonal antibodies Fusion proteins
81
Immunopoteniation mean?
To stimulate the immune system
82
Examples of immunopoteniation therapy? (2)
Vaccinations - Live (attenuated) and inactivated (suspensions) Replacement therapy
83
Examples of Replacement Therapies (4)
HNIG - human normal immunogloblin (injection supplement Ig against specific pathogen) G-CSF and GM-CSF = injected into bone marrow to create neurophils IL-2 = T cell activation Interferons - Hep C, B and MS
84
Immunosupression? when used?
Reducing the immune response | Autoimmune disease, Transplants
85
Effects of Cortico steroids (immunosupressors) On Innate system (3) On Adaptive system (3)
Innate = decrease: - neutrophil migration - Cytokine production - Arachidonic acid production for phagocytosis Adaptive = decreases: - Lymphocytes levels - lymphopenia - T cells proliferation - Ig Production
86
Side effects of Corticosteroids? (7)
``` Diabetes Hypolipideamia Reduced protein synthesis Reduced wound healing psychiatric issues Cataracts osteoporosis ```
87
Uses of Corticosteroids? (4)
Autoimmune disease = CTD, Vasculitis, RA Inflammatory disorders = Crohns, polymyalgia Rheumatic Lymphoma Allograft rejections
88
What results in reversible immunosurpession by target transcriptional factors that activate T cells
Calcinerurin in inhibitors and Tacrolimus
89
Examples of mTOR (prevent t cell proliferation)
Sirolimus and Rapamycin
90
Cytotoxic immunosupressors: antimetabolites - what do they do? Examples?
Prevent DNA replication Methrotroxate (folate) cyclophosphamide (DNA cross linking)
91
Uses of antimetobilte immunosupressive drugs? | Side effects?
``` Methrotroxate = RA Cyclophosphamide = IBD ``` Also SLE and vascilitis Attack other fast dividing cells - bone marrow, GI
92
Types of DMARDs (5) Usually monoclonal antibodies
``` Anti-cytokines (TNF, IL6 and IL1) Anti-B therapies - Rituximab Anti T cell activation Anti-adhesion Complement inhibitors ```
93
Adoptive immunotherapy - include? | Used for?
Bone marrow and stem cell transplants Lymphomas and Leukaemias
94
Immunomodulatory therapy - used to treat? | What types?
Allergies Steroids Allergen specific immunotherapy Monoclonal antibodies against immunogloblins
95
Allergen specific immunotherapy - what is it/ how does it work?
switching from Th2 - Th1 T cells = more regulatory cells and tolerance Sublingual and subcutaneous NOTE: side effects = anaphylaxis
96
Examples of Monoclonal antibodies against Immunoglobins - What Ig and what for?
Omalizumab - IgE. Vs. Asthma and chronic hives | Mepolizumab - IL-5 prevents eosinophil activation
97
Opportunistic infections - what are they?
Are infections causes by pathogens with low pathogenicity
98
Why are babies considered immunocompromised?
Under developed immune system
99
Pathogens that commonly infect burns (2)
Psuedomonas and Group A strep
100
Neutropenia? what causes this?
Low Neutrophils | Cancer treatments
101
Results of Neutropenia? (5)
``` Prolong infection Lethal psuedomona infections Ulcerations in mouth and bowel Systemic Candida and aspillergillus Recurrent skin infections - coagulase negative staph ```
102
Treatments for Neutropenic patients (3)
Prophylatic penicillin (in case of psuedomonas) Gentamicin Broad spectrum carbapenem
103
T cell deficiency are either?
Acquired Congenital Gestational - last trimester
104
Opportunistic infections in T cell deficient patients? (4)
Intracellular bacterial infections - listeria monocytogenes and TB Viruses in transplant patients HSV, CMV, VZV Candida Cryptococcal Menengitis in HIV
105
Treatment of infections in T cell deficient patients?
Same AnitB's used in healthy patients | Prophylactic acyclovir and ganciclovir in transplant patients
106
Opportunistic infections in hypogammaglobinaemias (low antibodies - genetic)?
``` Encapsulated bacteria (S. Pneumonia) Parasites - Giardia Lamblia ```
107
Opportunistic infections in Compliment deficiencies?
Neisseria Meningitis | Recurrent S. Pneumonia
108
Splenotomy patients - opportunistic infections?
Strep Pneumoniae Haemophillus influenza type A and B N. meningitis Malaria
109
Treatments for splenotomy patients?
Vaccinate against HIB and malaria | Prophylaxis penicillin
110
``` Organ transplant patients - infections when: incision made? From organ Early immunosupression Later immunosupression ```
``` Incision = s. Aureus Organ = toxoplasmosis and CMV Early = CMV and aspergillus Late = zoster virus and listeria ```
111
MHC - major histocompatability complex - purpose?
On the cell service of all body cells to express self and non self antigens for inspection by T cells receptors
112
MHC are coded for on which chromosome and by which group of genes?
6p21.3 | HLA - human leukocyte antigen
113
Class I gene regions code for which HLAs? + what type of MHC?
``` HLA - A, B and C antigens MHC class I proteins - on all body cells ```
114
Class II gene region codes for which HLAs and what MHC type?
HLA - DR, DQ and DP | MHC Class II dedritic cells --> APC
115
Inheritance of MHCs?
Mendelian Co -dominant 1 set of A, B, C, DR, DQ and DP from farther, one from mother - ALL are expressed
116
Chance of being a: Mismatch Half match Full match with sibling MHC and thus organ donations?
Mismatch = 1/4 Half match = 1/2 Full match = 1/4
117
Polymorphisms for each HLA allow?
capacity for individual to mount an immunological response against a antigen challenge
118
Test the donors MHC to determine mismatch (mm). what does 0mm mean? 6mm mean?
All 6 alleles of the HLAs are the same | All 6 of the alleles of the HLAs are different
119
Immune response during transplant Direct? Indirect?
Direct? = interaction with the donors immune system eg. Donors dendrites present to recipients T cells Indirect = the normal immune response to a endothelial damage due to surgical stress
120
Reaction frequency (%) ?
Compare the recipients antibody screen to the Donors database of antigens - to see the likely hood of a mismatch (a reaction)
121
Cross match test? - what is it? what does it test?
Donor lymphocytes + recipients serum --> immunofluescent assay Shows whether there would be a hyperacute reaction (eg. to blood group)