Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

immuno > immuno molecules > Flashcards

immuno molecules Flashcards

1
Q

TNF principle cell source

A

macrophages, T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TNF cellular targets and biologic effects

A 
Endothelial cell: activation (inflammation, coagulation)
Neutrophils: activation
Hypothalamus: fever
Liver: synthesis of acute phase proteins
Muscle:catabolism (cachexia)
Fat: catabolism (cachexia)
Many cell types: apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

IL-1 source

A

Macrophages, endothelial cells, some epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IL-1 targets and effects

A

Endothelial cells: activation (inflammation and coagulation)
Hypothalamus: fever
Liver: synthesis of acute phase proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chemokines source

A

Macrophages, endothelial cells, T lymphocytes, fibroblasts, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chemokines targets and effects

A

Leukocytes: chemotaxis, activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IL-12 source

A

Macrophage, dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IL-12 targets and effects

A

NK cells: IFN-gamma synthesis, increased cytolytic activity

T cells: IFN-gamma synthesis, increased cytolytic activity, TH1 differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IFN-gamma source

A

NK cells, T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IFN-gamma targets and effects

A

Activation of macrophages,

stimulation of some antibody responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IFN-alpha source

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

IFN-alpha targets and effects

A 
All cells: antiviral state, increased class I MHC expression
NK cells: activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IFN-beta source

A

Fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IFN-beta targets and effects

A 
All cells: antiviral state, increased class I MHC expression
NK cells: activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IL-10 source

A

Macrophages, T cells (mainly TH2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IL-10 targets and effects

A

Macrophages: inhibition of IL-12 production, reduced expression of costimulators and class II MHC molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

IL-6 source

A

Macrophages, endothelial cells, T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IL-6 targets and effects

A

Liver: synthesis of acute phase proteins

B cells: proliferation of antibody-producing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IL-15 source

A

Macrophages, others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IL-15 targets and effects

A

NK cells: proliferation

T cells: proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

IL-18 source

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

IL-18 targets and effects

A

NK cells: IFN-gamma synthesis

T cells: IFN-gamma synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cytokines are produced by macrophages

A

TNF, IL-1, Chemokines, IL-12, IFN-gamma, IFN-alpha, IL-10, IL-6, IL-15, IL-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cytokines target macrophages? What is the effect of each?

A

IFN-gamma: activation

IL-10: inhibition of IL-12 production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What cytokines are produced by T cells?

A

TNF, chemokines, IFN-gamma, IL-10, IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What cytokines are produced by endothelial cells?

A

IL-1, chemokines, IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What cytokines are produced by some epithelial cells?

A

IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What cytokines are produced by fibroblasts?

A

Chemokines, IFN-beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What cytokines are produced by platelets?

A

Chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What cytokines are produced by NK cells?

A

IFN-gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
Which cytokine does this?
Endothelial cell: activation (inflammation, coagulation)
Neutrophils: activation
Hypothalamus: fever
Liver: synthesis of acute phase proteins
Muscle:catabolism (cachexia)
Fat: catabolism (cachexia)
Many cell types: apoptosis
A

TNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which cytokine does this?
Endothelial cells: activation (inflammation and coagulation)
Hypothalamus: fever
Liver: synthesis of acute phase proteins

A

IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which cytokine does this?

Leukocytes: chemotaxis, activation

A

Chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which cytokine does this?
NK cells: IFN-gamma synthesis, increased cytolytic activity
T cells: IFN-gamma synthesis, increased cytolytic activity, TH1 differentiation

A

IL-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which cytokine does this?
Activation of macrophages,
stimulation of some antibody responses

A

IFN-gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Which cytokine does this?
All cells: antiviral state, increased class I MHC expression
NK cells: activation
A

IFN-alpha

IFN-beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Which cytokine does this?
Macrophages: inhibition of IL-12 production, reduced expression of costimulators and class II MHC molecules
A

IL-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which cytokine does this?
Liver: synthesis of acute phase proteins
B cells: proliferation of antibody-producing cells

A

IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which cytokine does this?
NK cells: proliferation
T cells: proliferation

A

IL-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which cytokine does this?
NK cells: IFN-gamma synthesis
T cells: IFN-gamma synthesis?

A

IL-12, IL-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the systemic effects of IL-1beta?

A

Fever and production of IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the local effects of IL-6?

A

Lymphocyte activation and increased antibody production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the local effects of IL-8?

A

Chemotactic factor recruits neutrophils, basophils, and T cells to site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the local effects of IL-12?

A

Activate NK cells and induces CD4 T cells to differentiate to TH1 cells;
These then release IFN-gamma cells, which activates macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

TLR2 ligands

A 
bacterial lipopeptides (with TLR1), 
bacterial peptidoglycan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

TLR1 ligands

A

bacterial lipopeptides (with TLR2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

TLR4 ligands

A

LPS (lipopolysaccharide) (MD2 on external side of transmembrane protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

TLR5 ligands

A

bacterial flagellin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

TLR6 ligands

A

bacterial lipopeptides (with TLR2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

TLR3 ligands

A

dsRNA (endosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

TLR7 ligands

A

ssRNA (endosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

TLR8 ligands

A

ssRNA (endosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

TLR9 ligands

A

CpG DNA (endosome)

54
Q

gram positive bacterial ligands

A

lipoteichoic acid

55
Q

What are opsonins?

A

small complement proteins that deposit on microbes and enhance their uptake by phagocytes bearing complement receptors

56
Q

what are chemotactic factors?

A

small complement proteins that attract immune cells

57
Q

What are anaphylatoxins?

A

small complement proteins that cause degranulation of mast cells/basophils and release vasoactive substances

58
Q

What are 3 ways of complement activation?

A

classic, alternative, and lectin pathway

59
Q

describe the classic complement activation pathway

A

activated by antigen-antibody complex

60
Q

describe the alternative complement activation pathway

A

activated by microbial cell wall

61
Q

describe the lectin complement activation pathway

A

interaction of microbial carbohydrates with mannose-binding protein in the plasma activates this

62
Q

What are some key points on neutrophils:

A

1st cell to arrive;

respiratory bursts and release of granules controls bacterial growth

63
Q

What are some key points on eosinophils?

A

contain cationic granule proteins; fight helmithes and other multicellular parasites

64
Q

What are some key points on NK cells?

A

kill infected host cells via cytolytic mediator perforin

65
Q

What site does neutrophils and monocytes enter tissue at?

A

post-capillary venules, except parenchymal tissues (liver, lungs, kidney) where all blood cells enter through capillaries

66
Q

IL-8 target and effect

A

chemoattractant for neutrophils

67
Q

what are microbicidal mechanisms for neutrophils?

A

cathepsin G, defensins, BPI, lactoferrin, lysozyme

68
Q

Describe cathepsin G

A

a Ser protease that digests collagen and proteoglycans

69
Q

Describe Defensins

A

inserted into membrane of microbes to destabilize ion channels

70
Q

describe lysozyme

A

splits bacterial cell wall

71
Q

What are MCP1, MIP1alpha and beta?

A

Macrophage inflammatory proteins:

chemoattractants for monocytes

72
Q

Which cytokines activate macrophages directly?

A

IFN-gamma, TLR-ligands

73
Q

Which cytokines inactivate macrophages and cause antiinflammatory responses?

A

IL-13, IL-4

74
Q

Describe fMet

A

N-formylmethionyl peptide is present in prokaryotes and not in eukaryotes;
bind to 7transmambrane receptor proteins and cause increased integrin avidity in neutrophils and macrophages MIGRATION INTO TISSUES

75
Q

What are the direct functions of NK cells?

A

recognize infected and distressed cells;

release granules to kill them

76
Q

What are the indirect functions of NK cells?

A

secrete IFN-gamma (macrophage)

77
Q

What activates NK cells?

A

failure to detect Ag expressed on healthy cells (MHC-I) class one major histocompatibility complex

78
Q

What is KIR?

A

killer-cell immunoglobulin-like receptor; is the inhibitory receptor which is activated by no change in MHC-I;
upon inactivation NK cells go to town

79
Q

describe CD4

A

Th cells express this and it “directs” Th cells to Ags presented by class II MHC (dendritic cells and macrophages APCs)

80
Q

Describe CD8

A

directs Cytolytic T cells to Ags presented by class I MHC (all cells that express Ags from virus or other microbe inside of them)

81
Q

describe haptens

A

require carrier molecules to be immunogenic, rxn with specific antibodies when homologous carriers are not employed, interact with specific antibody even if the hapten is monovalent, they cannot stimulate secondary antibody responses without carriers

82
Q

Which interleukin is the main regulator of the complement protein production?

A

IL-6

acute phase proteins (hepatocytes)

83
Q

describe granzyme b

A

serine protease (NK cells and CTL)

84
Q

What are the enzymes used by phagocytes to kill.

A 
NADPH oxidase, 
superoxide dismutase,
myeloperoxidase,
glutathione reductase,
G6PD
85
Q

fc receptor

A

binds to antibody which is bound to the pathogen

86
Q

IgA

A

mucosal immunity, neonatal passive immunity

87
Q

IgD

A

Naive B cell antigen receptor

88
Q

IgE

A

Mast cell activation (immediate hypersensitivity)

89
Q

IgG

A

opsonization, complement activation, antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity, neonatal immunity, feedback inhibitor of B cells

90
Q

IgM

A

Naive B cell antigen receptor, complement activation

91
Q

Antibody neutralization

A

neutralize viruses, bacterial toxins (LPS), and other harmful substances by blocking their interaction with cell surface receptors

92
Q

Antibody agglutination

A

cross-linking occurs because Abs possess two identical Ag-binding sites; therefore microbes can be agglutinated into mesh-like structures called immune complexes

93
Q

Antibody activation of complement

A

Abs can trigger an activation of complement cascade via classical pathway

94
Q

Antibody opsonization

A

Abs can bind to Fc receptors on macrophages and neutrophils that enhances phagocytosis

95
Q

Antibody degranulation

A

Mast cells, basophils, eosinophils: IgE binding to Fc receptors on the cells

96
Q

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

A

Fc receptors on NK cells; Ab-tagged killing of tumor cells and virus infected host cells

97
Q

Gram-positive bacteria receptor

98
Q

Gram-negative bacteria receptor

99
Q

Which cells use class II MHC proteins?

A

Dendritic cells: present to naive T cells
Macrophages: present to activated (effector) T cells
B cells: present to activated (effector) T cells

100
Q

Which cells cannot recognize antigens unless they are associated with MHC molecules?

101
Q

Which cells end up expressing class I MHC more than others?

A

Neutrophils

102
Q

What are the 3 genes which encode for class I MHC?

A

human leukocyte antigen (HLA)
HLA-A
HLA-B
HLC-C

103
Q

Which cells does class I MHC present Ag to?

A

CD8+ T cells

CTL

104
Q

What are the 3 genes which encode for class II MHC?

105
Q

What cells does class II MHC present Ag to?

A

CD4+ T helper cells

106
Q

What length of peptides does class II MHC bind to?

A

13-25 amino acids

107
Q

What length of peptides does class I MHC bind to?

A

8-11 amino acids long

108
Q

What is the main structural difference in the binding site on class I vs class II MHC?

A

Class I has two alpha1 domains

Class II has an alpha and a beta domain which presents the peptide

109
Q

What is the functional difference between class I and class II MHC?

A 
class I: alarm CD8 cells about danger occurring inside the cells (pathogen inside of cell)
class II: alarm CD4 cells about danger happening outside of the cells (phagocytes uptake the pathogen)
110
Q

What is the function of the invariant chain?

A

class II MHC needs to be synthesized and stored “at ready” in a endosome. It order to keep it from binding to it’s own proteins during synthesis the invariant chain is bound until removed by HLA-DM (in presence of alien peptides)

111
Q

Which cells do not express class I MHC?

A

non-nucleated cells and cells that have class II MHC

112
Q

Which cells express class II MHC?

A

dendritic, mononuclear phagocytes, B cells, endothelial, thymic epithelium

113
Q

what is the difference between the beta microglobulin and the beta chain (MHC)

A 
beta microglobulin is a smaller part of the class I MHC dimer
Beta chain is the second half of the class II MHC dimer
114
Q

What is required to keep MHC molecules stable?

A

the displayed peptide keeps the molecule stable, without it the MHC complex falls apart

115
Q

What is the exception from the rule regarding class I MHC?

A

Ags taken up from outside can be presented by class I MHC

116
Q

what are plasma cells?

A

formerly b cells; secrete Abs from lymphoid organs

117
Q

What is needed to activate B cells?

A

It does not need antigen presenting cells

118
Q

What are the surface Ig’s

119
Q

What Ag can BCRs recognize?

A

any Ag (lipid, protein, carb, DNA)

120
Q

What is needed to activate T cells?

A

First: APC must present with MHC;
Second: APC must costimulate the T cells

121
Q

Describe CD3

A

identification marker for all T cells

122
Q

What is the difference between resting and active APCs?

A

resting: not expressing costimulatory molecules to activate T cells
active: is expressing high levels of MHC and costimulatory molecules

123
Q

describe the immunological synapse

A

The TCR and MHC comlex is weak; so upon binding a chemokine signals to integrins on the T cell and APC to bind

124
Q

What are the integrins involved in the immunological synapse?

A

LFA-1 and ICAM-1

125
Q

What is the costimulatory pair of proteins between the T cell and the APC

A

B7 and CD28

126
Q

What is the specific marker of B cells?

127
Q

What are the two mechanisms of B cell activation?

A

protein Ags activate B cells with the assistance of T helper cells (thymus dependent TD)
other Ags are activated without help (thymus independent: TI)

128
Q

What is the ligand that Th2 cells use to activate B cells?

A

CD40

CD40L

129
Q

what is the most important function of TLRs

A

activate macrophages

130
Q

what is the most important function of TLRs

A

activate macrophages

131
Q

what molecule is an anaphylatoxin?

132
Q

describe the steps in the classical pathway of complement activation

A 
Ab and Ag bind, attract C1;
C1 cleaves C2 and C4;
C4b (covalent) C2a bound to bacteria;
C3 convertase, 
C3b bound to bacteria as opsonin tag
C3b+C3=C5 convertase

immuno (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions