Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MS_Primers for Exam 3 Content > Immunity, Anaphylaxis, Allergy Primer > Flashcards

Immunity, Anaphylaxis, Allergy Primer Flashcards

1
Q

Name several factors that can affect the body’s immune response.

A
  • CNS integrity
  • General physical condition
  • Emotional status
  • Medications
  • Dietary factors
  • Illness, trauma, or surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“Immunity” is the responsiveness to…

A

The invasion of foreign substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 functions of our immune system?

A
  • Defence: protection against micro-organisms
  • Homeostasis: damaged cellular substances digested and removed
  • Surveillance: mutations recognized and removed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 “types” of immunity?

A
  • Innate: born with
  • Acquired: acquired after birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 2 types of acquired immunity?

A
  • Active:
    • Immunity developed due to exposure to disease/inoculation
  • Passive:
    • Acquired by receiving antibodies rather than synthesizing them
    • Can xfer across the placenta
    • Short lived due to lack of memory for the antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the “innate” immune system.

A
  • Present at birth
  • First line of defense that responds w/in minutes without prior exposure as it is not cell specific
  • Neutrophils and monocytes are the primary WBCs for this response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the “acquired” immune system.

A
  • Invasion of foreign substances and subsequent development of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes
  • With each reinvasion the body responds more rapidly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Humoral response relates to the body ____ response, with antibodies produced by ____ cells.

A

Fluid, plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In regards to a humoral response, when an individual is exposed to an antigen for a second time the response is ___ and lasts _____.

A

Faster (1 to 3 days), longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A main product of secondary humoral response is ___ rather than ___.

A

IgG, IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Memory cells account for more rapid production of___.

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cell-mediated immune responses are initiated through…

A

Specific antigen recognition by T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are three cell types involved in the cell-mediated immunity response?

A
  • T lymphocytes
  • Macrophages
  • Natural Killer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cell mediated responses are particularly important for immunity against pathogens _____ the cells including…

A
  • Inside
  • viruses and some bacteria, fungal infections, rejection of transplanted tissues, contact hypersensitivity, tumor immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some effects of ageing on the immune system?

A
  • Greater susceptibility to pathogens (ex. influenza pneumonia)
  • Higher incidence of malignancies
  • Bone marrow relatively unaffected
  • Immunoglobulin levels decrease
  • Decreased numbers of T cells
  • Ability to develop new antibodies decreased
  • Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Decreased immunoglobulin levels lead to a…

A

Suppressed immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An antigen is…

A

A substance that elicits an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the key factors to remember regarding Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)?

A
  • Activates macrophages and granulocytes
  • Promotes the immune and inflammatory responses
  • Kills tumor cells
  • Responsible for extensive weight loss
  • Associated with chronic inflammation and cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some signs of recognizing anaphylactic shock?

A

Edema and itching at the site of exposure, possible angioedema, followed by shock symptoms: rapid weak pulse, hypotension, dilated pupils, dyspnea, bronchial edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens if anaphylactic shock isn’t treated immediately?

A

If not treated immediately will lead to death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the cardinal principles of treating anaphylaxis?

A
  • Recognition of the signs and symptoms
  • Maintenance of patient’s airway (high flow O2)
  • Prevention of spread by using a tourniquet (remove stinger if present/applicable)
  • Administration of the appropriate drugs (establish IV access)
  • Treatment of shock (fluids and ongoing monitoring)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the drug regimen for anaphylaxis?

A
  • Epinephrine (1:1000) every 5-15 mins until desired result achieved
  • Nebulized albuterol (Proventil)
  • Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IM or IV
  • Corticosteroids (methylprednisolone, hydrocortisone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why would the administration of epinephrine for anaphylaxis be of concern for someone on beta blockers?

A

Beta blockers attenuate the response to epinephrine and the combo may cause the pt to develop bradycardia and hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False

If a pt is on Beta blockers, you should withhold epinephrine in treating anaphylaxis.

A

False. Give it, but monitor for bradycardia and hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A pt on beta blockers receives epinephrine and develops bradycardia, what may be given and how?
* Atropine * 0.5mg via IM or SubQ every 10 mins
26
What drug may be used to treat hypotension for a pt who has rec’d epinephrine and how would it be administered?
* Glucagon * 1mg IV bolus followed by 1-5mg/hr infusion
27
True or False The initial exposure triggers the response and mass release of chemical mediators seen in the overreaction or hypersensitivity of anaphylactic shock.
* FALSE! * Overreaction or hypersensitivity seen in anaphylactic shock is NOT due to the first exposure but the SECOND causes a trigger response and mass release of chemical mediators
28
Name the four different types of immune reactions.
I: Atopic or Contact Dermatitis II: Cytotoxic and Cytolytic reactions III: Immune complex reactions IV: Hypersensitivity reactions
29
What does “atopic” mean?
A form of allergy in which a hypersensitivity reaction such as dermatitis or asthma may occur in a part of the body not in contact with the allergen
30
What are some of the conditions that can result of type I reactions?
* Allergic rhinitis * Atopic dermatitis * Urticaria (hives) * Angioedema
31
Atopic reactions can happen as a response to _____ conditions.
Environmental
32
What are the target areas for a type I immune reaction?
* conjunctiva of eyes * mucosa of upper respiratory tract
33
What are the s/s of a type I immune reaction?
* Sneezing * Nasal discharge * Itching of the throat * Eyes watering
34
Allergic rhinitis is triggered by a sensitivity to:
* Grasses * Pollens * Dust * Animal dander * Mold
35
What is atopic dermatitis?
* Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is a condition that makes your skin red and itchy. * It's common in children but can occur at any age. * Atopic dermatitis is long lasting (chronic) and tends to flare periodically. * It may be accompanied by asthma or hay fever.
36
What is Urticaria (hives)
* Transient wheals * Red, itchy welts that result from a skin reaction. * The welts vary in size and appear and fade repeatedly as the reaction runs its course
37
What is Angioedema?
* An abrupt and short-lived swelling of the skin and mucous membranes. * All parts of the body may be affected but swelling most often occurs around the eyes and lips.
38
Define Type II Cytotoxic/Cytolytic reactions.
Direct binding of IgG or IgM antibodies to an antigen on the cell surface that target the cell for destruction
39
An incompatible blood transfusion results in what type of immune reaction?
Type II
40
Explain the patho of an incompatible blood transfusion.
* Antigens coat foreign erythyrocytes * Clumping occurs and causes blockage of small blood vessels resulting in a depletion of clotting factors * Phagocytosis of agglutinated (clumped) cells * Release of hemoglobin into the urine and plasma * Cytotoxic reaction causes vasospasm in the kidney resulting in blockage of kidney tubules
41
Type III immune reactions are associated with _____ disorders.
Autoimmune
42
What is the patho of a Type III immune response?
* An abnormal immune response is mediated by the formation of antigen-antibody aggregates called "immune complexes." * They can precipitate in various tissues such as skin, joints, vessels, or glomeruli, and trigger the classical complement pathway.
43
What are some examples of conditions that cause a Type III immune response?
* SLE * RA * Acute glomerular nephritis
44
Type IV immune reaction is a _____ response.
Cell mediated
45
How does a type IV immune reaction develop?
* Sensitized T lymphocytes attack antigens or release cytokines which attract macrophages into the area * It is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that takes several days to develop.
46
Contact dermatitis is a example of what type of immune reaction?
Type IV
47
What are some ways that hypersensitive allergic reactions may be mediated?
* Reducing exposure * Desensitizing (immunotherapy) * Chronic allergies: lifestyle changes * Allergen recognition and control
48
An example of a sympathomimetic decongestant drug is…
Adrenaline
49
How/why are antipuritics used?
topically applied protect skin and provide relief from itching (calamine lotion, coal, tar preparations)
50
What do anti-mast cell stabilizing drugs do?
Inhibit cytokine release thus immune reactions
51
When is immunotherapy used?
When the allergen cannot be avoided
52
A RAST test is used to determine…
sensitivity to certain food types, severe anaphylactic reactions
53
What type of blood test is used for dx of allergies?
CBC w/ diff
54
Eosinophil count is elevated with type __ sensitivity.
1
55
What type of skin tests may be used for allergy dx?
* Patch * Scratch or prick * Intradermal
56
If a person has a skin test done, the hypersensitive reaction will occur when?
w/in minutes
57
How long will the positive reaction to a scratch test last?
8-12hrs
58
With patch testing, the patch needs to be worn for ___ hours then the patient should come back for the site to be assessed.
48 – 72hrs
59
How is immunotherapy performed?
* Accurate record keeping to prevent an adverse reaction * After administration anticipate adverse reactions (puritis urticarial, sneezing laryngeal edema) * Administer away from the joint so a tourniquet can be applied in an emergency * Rotate the site * Ensure you don’t inject into the bloodstream * Observe for any reaction
60
What is apheresis?
Separation of blood into its separate components followed by the removal of 1 or more of the separated components
61
What is Plasmapheresis?
* Aka: plasma exchange * Removal of plasma containing components thought to cause disease and replacement with saline, fresh frozen plasma, or albumin
62
What are some side effects of plasmapheresis?
Hypotension and as the result of a vasovagal reaction citrate toxicity
63
Citrate is used as an _____ and may cause _____ manifesting as a headache dizziness or paresthesias.
Anticoagulant, hypocalcaemia

MS_Primers for Exam 3 Content (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions