Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1538 - Test 1 (Immunity, Sexuality, Mood/Affect, End of Life) > Immunity > Flashcards

Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

A

chronic neurological disease due to the demyelination of sheath in the brain + spinal cord; ESPECIALLY in the white matter around ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

demyelination of sheath in the brain + spinal cord; mainly in the white matter around ventricles

A

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS (MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

multiple sclerosis (MS) attributes

A

inflammatory, progressive, degenerative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what causes the inflammatory process of MS?

A

the inflammatory response is caused by the auto-antibodies produced, causing you to be allergic to your own cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what parts of the body are affected my MS?

A

the affected areas, areas showing S/S, depends on what nerves are being affected by the demyelination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what part of the body will be affected if the cerebellum is attacked?

A

the cerebellum controls movements, gait, walking, so if this area is attacked, the patient may have issues walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what causes MS?

A

the cause is unknown, but it is known to run in the family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a PRIMARY event of MS

A

this occurs in the CNS (central nervous system), which then leads to the secondary immune response. The primary event is the actual attack on the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what causes a primary event of MS?

A

the onset of MS is unknown, but infections, such as Epstein Barr virus (EBV) are known to increase the risk of MS. Another risk factor is a vitamin D deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when does MS onset in patients?

A

onset of MS usually occurs between ages 20 - 50; and occurs more often in women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what causes ACUTE attacks of MS?

A

INFLAMMATION; the inflammation of nerves leads to the acute attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what causes CHRONIC attacks of MS?

A

SCARRING; scarring of nerves, ventricles, etc., lead to chronic attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MS: relapsing & remitting

A

during this type of MS, there are clearly defined relapses followed by FULL recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which type of MS effects 85% of MS patients?

A

RELAPSING + REMITTING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MS: primary & progressive

A

during this type of MS, the patient has slowly worsening neurological function from the beginning w/ NO distinct relapses/remissions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which type of MS effects 10% of MS patients?

A

PRIMARY + PROGRESSIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MS: secondary & progressive

A

originally this patient is in relapsing & remitting stage, this is followed by progression w/ or w/o occasional relapses, MINOR remissions + plateaus. (there is a new treatment that slows progression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MS: secondary & progressive (transition)

A

50% of patients with relapsing & remitting develop this within 10 years!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MS: progressive & relapsing

A

this type is progressive from the onset, clear ACUTE relapses, w/ OR w/o full recovery. BUT the periods between the relapses are characterized by continuing progression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What percentage of patients does progressive & relapsing effect?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MS & Fatigue

A

Fatigue is the most PROMINENT symptom - even if/when other S/S occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MS & Weakness

A

Weakness results from the deconditioning of unused muscles + damage to the nerves that stimulate those muscles. **This is managed by rehabilitation stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MS & Ataxia

A

walking/gait difficulties occur when the cerebellum is affected/attacked; the cerebellum provides graceful movements, these movements become less graceful when the cerebellum is affected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MS & Paresthesia

A

Paresthesia is often the first symptom; followed/accompanied by loss of sensation, proprioception & vibration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

LHERMITTE’S SIGN

A

tingling that shoots down the spinal cord/spine when leaning forward with chin to chest

26
Q

MS & Spasticity

A

spasticity is when the muscles are contracted and wont let go, this most commonly occurs in the legs; this uses MORE ENERGY which then INCREASES FATIGUE.

27
Q

MS & Vision changes/problems

A

MS can lead to vision problems like:
nustagmes - vibrating of eyes
&
diplopia - double vision; treated by wearing eye patch

28
Q

MS also causes these other issues:

A

dizziness, vertigo, bladder problems, constipation, sexual problems, cognitive changes, pain

29
Q

MS & Bladder problems + constipation

A

about 80% of MS patients suffer from bladder problems. Constipation also effects many MS patients. If the nerves around/for the bladder/intestines are affected, then these systems will not work properly.

30
Q

MS & Emotional changes

A

MS can lead to/cause emotional changes like:
labile emotions = bouncing from emotion to emotion
&
PAD (pseudobulbar affective disorder) = inappropriate emotional responses; crying when happy or laughing when sad, etc.

31
Q

MS & Depression

A

depression is the MOST COMMON symptom of MS

32
Q

MS & speech + swallowing problems

A

MS can lead to many different speech problems + swallowing problems, because of the affected nerves in the throat + mouth. Speech issues include: shuttering, explosive, scanning (slow + pauses)

33
Q

what triggers exacerbations in MS

A

infections (mainly URI & UTIs), trauma, immunizations, delivery (pregnancy), stress, climate change; **each patient responds differently.

34
Q

how is MS diagnosed?

A

Hx, manifestations, MRI (shows lesions)

35
Q

does MS cause death?

A

MS does not cause death itself, however it causes death because of the complications like UTI, imobility, pneumonia, etc.

36
Q

how is MS treated?

A

INTERFERON + METHOTREXATE

37
Q

MS & Baclofen

A

Baclofen = muscle relaxant; can cause drowsiness; administered IV, PO + pump; can cause seizures

38
Q

MS & Modanfinil

A

Modanfinil = treats fatigue

39
Q

how is MS managed (pharmalogically)

A

MS patients undergo a 3-5 day course of HIGH DOSE corticosteroids via IV infusion, followed by prednisone PO.

40
Q

how to help your MS patient during a relapse/excerbation

A

increase fluids, increase fiber intake, decrease high-fats, increase potassium. Encourage a swap between periods of rest + activity.

41
Q

TB - latent vs active

A

Active TB infection&raquo_space; pt has symptoms

Latent TB infection&raquo_space; pt does NOT have symptoms

42
Q

Latent TB Infection

A
  • patient cannot infect others - not contagious
  • can result as a positive skin test or blood test
  • infected with NO symptoms of TB
  • **ASYMPTOMATIC
  • can have a normal chest x-ray + negative AFB
43
Q

Active TB Infection

A
  • patient has symptoms of TB
  • results as a positive skin test or positive IGRA
  • chest x-ray can be normal OR abnormal
  • positive sputum smear/culture
44
Q

which is the ‘gold standard’ for confirming an active TB infection?

A

a sputum smear + culture

45
Q

Pulmonary TB (lung infection) in adults: S/S

A
  • cough; with or without sputum
  • hemoptysis: coughing up blood
  • chest pain
  • anorexia + unexplained weight loss
  • night sweats
  • fever + chills
  • fatigue
46
Q

Pulmonary TB (lung infection) in children: S/S

A
  • cough
  • fatigue
  • weight loss + failure to gain weight
  • decreased appetite
  • low grade fever
  • night sweat + chills
  • enlarged/swollen lymph nodes
47
Q

Extrapulmonary TB (infection outside of the lungs)

A
  • kidneys&raquo_space; hematuria (blood in urine)
  • spine&raquo_space; back pain
  • larynx&raquo_space; hoarseness
  • meninges (the 3 membranes in the spinal cord)&raquo_space; headache/confusion
48
Q

TB required PPE

A

**AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS: N95 mask + negative pressure isolation room + isolation

49
Q

Risk factors related to TB

A
  • patients younger than 5 + older adults
  • living conditions: poverty, homelessness
  • immigration
  • any disease/illness causing an alteration of any immune system
  • HIV disease
  • living and/or working in congregated areas: shelters/prisons
  • working in labs/healthcare
  • injection drug use + alcohol abuse
50
Q

In the US, what ethnicity is affected most?

A

ASIANS are effected most, PACIFIC ISLANDERS are effected second most

51
Q

What does a TB skin test look like?

A

0.1mL of PPD, injected intradermally
this is read/assessed 48-72 hours after injection
if there is a raised area (induration) = antibodies to TB
takes up to 12 weeks to test positive after exposure

52
Q

What populations would have a 5+ millimeters induration that indicates a positive TB test?

A
  • HIV positive person
  • someone recently exposed to TB
  • any fibrotic changes in CXR
  • people with organ transplants
  • the immunosuppressed
  • anyone taking 15mg/daily+ of prednisone for 1+ month
53
Q

What populations would have a 10+ millimeter induration that indicated a positive TB test?

A
  • recent immigrants
  • current drug users
  • high risk areas/areas of congregation
  • microbio labs
  • children younger than 4 years old
54
Q

what populations would have a 15+ millimeter induration that indicates a positive TB test?

A

ANYONE

55
Q

how long is a person with TB contagious?

A

a person undergoing treatment for ACTIVE TB would still be contagious for up to 2 weeks after treatment

56
Q

how to treat latent TB

A

Isoniazid (INH)
Rifapentine (RPT)
Rifampin (RIF)

57
Q

Treatment for ACTIVE TB

A

four drug therapy; 6-9 months

|&raquo_space;as the culture results, secondary line drugs may be added, as necessary

58
Q

Treatment for ACTIVE TB = RIPE (first line drugs)

A 
RIPE:
R-rifampin
I-isoniazid
P-pyranzinamide
E-ethambutol
59
Q

Is surgical treatment needed for TB?

A

In some cases surgery is needed; things like:
chest tube
lobectomy
pneumonectomy

60
Q

How can someone who has had an ACTIVE TB infection be cleared and considered non-infected?

A
  • 3 negative sputum cultures consecutively over an 8-24 hour period.
  • clinical improvement of symptoms
  • compliance of treatment for 2+ weeks

1538 - Test 1 (Immunity, Sexuality, Mood/Affect, End of Life) (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions