Immunity 1st, 2nd, 3rd Flashcards

1
Q

What type of immunity is referred to as the body’s non-specific defense mechanism?

a) Innate Immunity
b) Adaptive Immunity
c) Acquired Immunity
d) Passive Immunity

A

a) Innate Immunity

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2
Q

Which of the following is an example of a physiological process in innate immunity?

a) Vomiting
b) Antibody production
c) Memory cell formation
d) Vaccination

A

a) Vomiting

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3
Q

What role does normal flora play in the first line of defense?

a) They act as physical barriers
b) They produce antibodies
c) They compete with pathogens, preventing their colonization
d) They trigger inflammatory responses

A

c) They compete with pathogens, preventing their colonization

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4
Q

Which chemical defense is characterized by a low pH that helps to protect the body?

a) Salts in cerumen
b) Fatty acids in sebaceous glands
c) Acids in the stomach
d) Oxygen tension

A

c) Acids in the stomach

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5
Q

How does cilia contribute to the body’s defense?

a) By trapping and removing pathogens from the respiratory tract
b) By lowering the body temperature
c) By producing sebum
d) By raising the pH in the stomach

A

a) By trapping and removing pathogens from the respiratory tract

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6
Q

Which process is responsible for the mechanical removal of pathogens from the body?

a) Defecation
b) Antibody production
c) Memory cell formation
d) Vaccination

A

a) Defecation

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7
Q

Which of the following is responsible for promoting innate immunity and is secreted in the second line of defense?

a) Hydrolytic enzymes
b) Complement proteins
c) Interleukin 6 (IL-6)
d) Acute Reactants

A

c) Interleukin 6 (IL-6)

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8
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) in the second line of defense primarily functions to:

a) Promote innate immunity
b) Kill tumor cells
c) Promote elimination of pathogens through cell lysis
d) Activate NK cells

A

b) Kill tumor cells

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9
Q

Which substance promotes the inflammatory response and is secreted as part of the second line of defense?

a) Interleukin 1 (IL-1)
b) Interferons
c) Acute Reactants
d) NK cells

A

a) Interleukin 1 (IL-1)

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10
Q

other name for IFN-a

A

Leukocyte IFN

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11
Q

Epithelial Fibroblast IFN also known as

A

IFN-B

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12
Q

IFN-Y other name

A

Immune IFN

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12
Q

CD marker for HIV

A

CD+4 or T Helper Cells

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13
Q

Which interferon has the function for Anti-Viral?

A

IFN-B

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14
Q

What is the primary function of C-Reactive Protein (CRP) in the body?

a) Removal of cholesterol
b) Protease inhibitor
c) Opsonization & complement activation
d) Clot formation

A

c) Opsonization & complement activation

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15
Q

Which acute-phase reactant has the fastest response time?

a) Serum amyloid A
b) Alpha₁-antitrypsin
c) C-Reactive Protein (CRP)
d) Ceruloplasmin

A

c) C-Reactive Protein (CRP)

16
Q

Which of the following acute-phase reactants is primarily responsible for clot formation?

a) Haptoglobin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Complement C3
d) Serum amyloid A

A

b) Fibrinogen

17
Q

What is the normal concentration range of Alpha₁-antitrypsin in mg/dl?

a) 0.5
b) 3.0
c) 200-400
d) 40-200

A

c) 200-400

18
Q

Which acute-phase reactant is known for binding copper and oxidizing iron?
a) Ceruloplasmin
b) Complement C3
c) Mannose-binding protein
d) Serum amyloid A

A

Ceruloplasmin

18
Q

hat is the function of Serum amyloid A during the acute phase response?

a) Protease inhibitor
b) Binds hemoglobin
c) Removal of cholesterol
d) Complement activation

A

Removal Of Chelesterol

19
Q

Which acute-phase reactant has a response time of 48-72 hours and is involved in complement activation and lysis?
a) Complement C3
b) Alpha₁-antitrypsin
c) Haptoglobin
d) Mannose-binding protein

A

Complement C3

20
Q

What is the function of Mannose-binding protein in the immune response?
a) Opsonization
b) Complement activation
c) Binds copper
d) Protease inhibition

A

complement activation

21
Q

The enhancement of phagocytosis through opsonization involves which molecules?
a) C3b, IgG1, and IgG3
b) PRRs and PAMPS
c) Nitric Oxide
d) Oxygen-independent mechanisms

A

C3b, IgG1, and IgG3

22
Q

Which of the following phagocytes is the first to react to an antigen or infection?
a) Monocytes
b) Dendritic Cells
c) Neutrophils / Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils (PMNs)
d) Macrophages

A

c) Neutrophils / Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils (PMNs)

23
Q

Which step in phagocytosis involves the formation of a phagosome?
a) Adhesion
b) Digestion
c) Ingestion
d) Opsonization

A

ingestion

24
Q

Which macrophages are found in the spleen?
a) Kupffer Cells
b) Mesangial Cells
c) Littoral Cells
d) Osteoclasts

A

littoral cells

25
Q

n phagocytosis, what do Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) recognize on pathogens?
a) C3b
b) IgG
c) PAMPS (Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns)
d) Nitric Oxide

A

PAMPS

26
Q

hich of the following is produced by Myeloperoxidase during an oxygen-dependent mechanism?
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Superoxide anion
c) Hydroxyl radical
d) Hypochlorite

A

Hypochlorite

27
Q

Which of the following best describes Natural Killer (NK) cells?
a) Phagocytic cells
b) Specific immunity cells
c) Large granular lymphocytes (LGL)
d) Antigen-presenting cells

A

large granular cells

28
Q

Which process is associated with the consumption of oxygen to produce reactive oxygen intermediates during phagocytosis?
a) Apoptosis
b) Respiratory burst
c) Opsonization
d) ADCC

A

respiratory burst

29
Q

What is the role of CD 56 and CD 16 in NK cells?
a) To produce reactive oxygen intermediates
b) To act as receptors for NK cell activation
c) To phagocytize pathogens
d) To enhance antigen presentation

A

acts as a receptors for NK Cell activation

30
Q
A