Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BNF Immune system and malignant disease > Immune system + transplantation > Flashcards

Immune system + transplantation Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of calcineurin inhibitors

A

ciclosporin and tacrlimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is azathioprine metabolised to?

A

Mercaptopurine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If allopurinol is given alongside azathioprine what needs to be considered?

A

Dose reduction of Azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What disease is ciclosporine used prophylactically for?

A

graft vs host disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neurotoxicity, cardiomyopathy and disturbance to glucose metabolism is associated with whihc calcineurin inhibitor?

A

tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What needs to be prescribed prior to adminstration of antithymocyte immunoglobulin?

A

pre-treatment with paracetamol, anti histamine and corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a patient has absent TMPT activity, can they have azathioprine?

A

No - contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 main side effects of azathioprine

A
  1. Hypersensitivity reactions - malaise, fever, vommiting diarrhoea
  2. Neutropenia + thrombocytopenia - dose dependent
  3. nausea - managed by dividing doses, giving after food + antiemetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What pre treament screening is required before starting azathioprine?

A

TPMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a patient has reduced TPMT activity, what is the risk?

A

myleosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Monitoring requirements for Azathioprine

A

FBC weekly for first 4 weeks then 3 monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MHRA warning regarding ciclosporin

A

Must be prescribed by brand name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can a patient with uncontrolled HTN + active infection have ciclosporin?

A

no - contra indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Side effects of ciclosporin

A

Gingival hyperplasia, headaches, apetite decreaase, hyperglycaemiahyperlipidemia, HTN,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Monitoring requirements for ciclosporin

A
  1. ciclosporin level (trough)
  2. BP,
  3. renal function
  4. LFT
  5. serum potassium
  6. serum magnesium
  7. lipids - baseline and at 1 month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should patients be counselled on regarding their skin when on sicrolimus

A

void excessive exposure to UV light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MHRA warning regarding Tacrolimus?

A

prescribe and dispense as brand name only

18
Q

Adoport, prograf, capexion and tacni are what form of tacrolimus capsules?

A

Immediate release BD capsules

19
Q

Advagraf is what form of tacrolimus medication

A

Modified release taken OM

20
Q

True or false - tacrolimus can cause QT prolongation?

A

true

21
Q

Why is echocardiography needed for patients on tacrolimus?

A

risk of cardiomyopathy

22
Q

Belimumab has an MHRA warning about what?

A

increased risk of serious psychiatirc events

23
Q

What is the contraceptive advice regarding mycophenolate?

A

mycophenolate is genotoxic - females need pregancy to be ruled out before treatment. 2 tests required 8-10 days apart. Women need at least 1 form of contraception and for 6 weeks on discontinuation

24
Q

Monitoring requirement for mycophenolate

A

FBC for 4 weeks then twice a month for 2 months then every month for the first year

25
Q

Low levels of what vitamin are a risk factor for developing MS?

A

vitamin D

26
Q

What medication is sometimes used to treat fatigue associated with MS?

A

Amantadine

27
Q

What is the first line treatment of Oscillopsia in MS?

A

Gabapentin

28
Q

What should patients receive prior to anti lymphocyte antibodies?

A

pre medication to reduce risk of infusion related side effects

29
Q

If a patient is prescribed Alemtuzumab, what condition do they requrie prophylaxis medication for?

A

Herpes infection

30
Q

Nataliumab is associated with what neurological condition?

A

PML - progressive multi focal leukonencepthalopathy MRI required before initiation

31
Q

What food interaction should patients be aware of with ciclosporin?

A

Pomelo/grapefruit juice - increases Ciclosporin levels

Purple grape juice decreases levels

32
Q

How often dose ciclosporin levels need to be taken?

A

Every weel until stable for 6 weeks then monthly

33
Q

What is a risk when a patients cholesterol is < 3 and they are on ciclosporin

A

toxicity

34
Q

What is the MHRA warning associated with giving Bevacizumab and Sunitinib?

A

Risk of ONJ

35
Q

What should be measured if hypogammaglobinaemia is suspected following mycophenolate use?

A

serum immunoglobulin

36
Q

Men must use a condom for how many days after completing mycophenolate course?

A

90 days

37
Q

EGFR inhibitors have an MHRA warning about what?

A

serious cases of keratitis and ulcerative keratitis

38
Q

Brand name for Trastuzumab

A

Herceptin

39
Q

What is the main risk with herceptin therapy

A

Cardiotoxic - need to monitor function before and during treatment

40
Q

What hepatic condition can RTX reactivate

A

Hep B

BNF Immune system and malignant disease (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions